1. which dragonflies undergo the change from yellow to red, and when in their life cycle does it occur? (4 points) 2. what types of in vivo experiments did the researchers perform, and what were the results? (7 points)

Answers

Answer 1

When gyndandromorphic dragonflies mature sexually, their pigmentation changes. The in vivo experiment revealed that the color or pigmentation change from red to yellow occurred only locally and had a significant impact on the dragonfly, causing it to die very quickly.

A dragonfly is a flying insect in the order Odonata's infraorder Anisoptera. There are approximately 3,000 known species of true dragonflies. The majority are tropical, with only a few species found in temperate regions. Wetland habitat loss threatens dragonfly populations worldwide. Adult dragonflies have two pairs of strong, transparent wings with colored patches and an elongated body. Many dragonflies have brilliant iridescent or metallic colors caused by structural coloration, which makes them stand out in flight. The compound eyes of an adult dragonfly have nearly 24,000 ommatidia each.

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Related Questions

cyanobacteria have been genetically modified to produce isobutanol directly what advabtagebdoes this have

Answers

In contrast to other potential biofuels, isobutanol can be directly produced by cyanobacteria. As a result, multiple processing stages can be avoided.

Heterologous biosynthetic pathways are used to create cyanobacteria that use photosynthesis to manufacture valuable compounds. In successfully designed cyanobacteria, many compounds have been produced. Target biosynthesis pathway genes are expressed when certain chemical inducer-dependent promoters are activated.

2-ketoisovalerate and 2-ketoisocaproate, which are 2-keto acid precursors in the L-leucine and L-valine biosynthetic pathways, are converted into isobutanol and 3MB in cyanobacteria by KDC and ADH, respectively (See Picture). In order to produce isobutanol and 3MB in PCC 6803 under the influence of green light, we created the expression vector pKT-GSS-KDC-ADH, in which the CcaS/CcaR system was integrated to cause the expression of the kdc and adh genes detailed in the Methods section.

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______, necessary for photosynthesis in plants, is stored in the thylakoids.

Select one:

a.
The nucleus


b.
Mitochondria


c.
Vacuoles


d.
Chlorophyll

Answers

Answer: Chlorophyll

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

D, chlorophyll

Explanation:

chlorophyll is one of the most process of making their own food.

Which are the answers ?? Help pls

Answers

Answer:

saassaa

Explanation:

The mitotic spindle consists of two types of microtubules: kinetochore microtubules and nonkinetochore microtubules. In animal cells, these two types of microtubules function differently in the stages of mitosis. Complete the sentences by dragging the terms to the appropriate locations. Terms may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Answers

Answer:

Kinetochore microtubules attach to the kinetochore of the chromosomes and help to move them to opposite poles of the cell during the anaphase stage of mitosis. Nonkinetochore microtubules are involved in the formation of the spindle apparatus, which helps to line up the chromosomes in the metaphase stage of mitosis.

what type of transport does not require energy? provide an example of one process that is a type of passive transport? 2. what are the two main components of the cell membrane? 3. how does oxygen cross into the cell? how does glucose cross into the cell? 4. what is the purpose of a channel protein? 5. what are the two parts of a phospholipid: 6. define diffusion. 7. define osmosis: 8. what is a solute?

Answers

Transfer of solute across the membrane without the expense of energy is called passive transport.

1. An example of passive transport is diffusion where the solute move area of high concentration to area of low concentration.

2. The two main components of cell membrane are proteins and lipid.

3. Oxygen and other such molecules like carbon move across the cell membrane via the process of simple diffusion. Whereas molecules such as glucose which are too large to move across via simple diffusion need some integral transport molecule such GLUT to move across membrane.

4. The channel proteins in the cell membrane help in transport of molecules across the membrane.

5. The two parts of phospholipid are phosphate group and lipid molecules.

6. Diffusion is the simple movement of molecules along the concentration gradient without the expense of energy.

7. Osmosis is the movement of water molecule across a semi permeable membrane from a point of high concentration to low concentration.

8. Solute is a substance that is dissolved in a soltion.

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in the histology study area, how can you obtain information about the image type, original magnification, tissue source, and the stain or procedure used to obtain the displayed histological image?

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In the bottom right corner of the APR window, click the I symbol (information icon). When you enter the dissection or histology study sections for a given bodily system.

you must first choose a perspective, such as anterior or posterior, and then a topic to study, such as muscles of the belly.

Human anatomy is the scientific study of the structures of the human body. Some of these structures are so minute that they can only be seen and examined with the use of a microscope. Other bigger structures may be observed, moved, measured, and weighed with ease.

Microscopic anatomy, commonly known as histology, is the study of animal, human, and plant cells and tissues. Without a microscope, these subjects are too tiny to observe.

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acacia inherits a variety of genes from both of her parents. these genes combine and interact with each other, some increasing her chance of developing bipolar disorder, some possibly reducing her chances. this overall pattern of genetic inheritance for the mental disorder is called what?

Answers

Polygenic refers to the overall pattern of genetic inheritance for the mental disease.

Describe polygenic.

A trait that is influenced by two or more genes, such as height or skin tone, is referred to as a polygenic trait. Polygenic traits do not follow the laws of Mendelian inheritance since several genes are involved. Humans have three polygenic traits: height, skin tone, and eye color. Multiple genes control these features.

Etiological diagnosis:

Etiology is the study of origin or cause. In epidemiology, etiology is crucial for determining the origin and causation of a disease. It is possible to intervene in the treatment and prevention of contagious, communicable, and non-communicable diseases by taking into account their etiological conditions.

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true/false. (a) If a particular gene is located on the Z chromosome of this lizard species, describe why a lizard with a ZW genotype has a greater probability of expressing the recessive phenotype for the trait than a lizard with the ZZ genotype does.

Answers

If the dominant allele of a sister chromatids, which most often hides the recessive gene, is absent, the recessive trait will become evident. In this case, the gene resides on the Z chromosome.

What gender is the YY?

The mother carries the XX chromosome, while the guy carries the XY chromosome. It is not possible for a human to inherit one Y chromosome from his mother and another from his father, which is required for a baby to be have two chromosomes as YY.

What does a chromosomal primarily accomplish?

DNA may be precisely duplicated throughout these cell divisions thanks to chromosomes. I'll reiterate it. In our cells, chromosomes are found in the nucleus, where they enable exact information copying during cell division. This guarantees the efficient and proper operation of every internal system.

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Which sea is the saltiest natural lake and is also at the lowest elevation on the face of the earth?

Answers

Answer:

Death Sea. Among the lakes in the globe, the Dead Sea is distinctive. With a salinity of 34%, it is the saltiest body of water in the whole globe.

Explanation:

The Dead Sea. It is one of the most unique lakes of the world and has amazing history.

if a dna double helix that is 100 base pairs in length has 32 adenines, how many cytosines, guanines, and thymines must it have?

Answers

If a given strand is made up of 100 base pairs and has 32 adenines, the number of thymine is equal to adenines, so the strand will have 32 thymine.

This rule is base on Chargaff's rules that tells that the DNA of any individual species or any organism, amount of guanine must be equal to the amount of cytosine and the amount of adenine must be equal to the amount of thymine. Hence, we can say that ratio of purine and pyrimidine bases should exists in form of A+G=T+C  or 1:1 stoichiometric ratio.

According to Chargaff's rule in a DNA molecule A = T and G = C and A + G + C + T = 100%. Cytosine will always pairs with guanine, and their percentages must also be equal. Sum of all four percentages of purine and pyrimidine must equal 100%.

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ap bio unit 3 examleave the first ratingterms in this set (58)what is the term for metabolicpathways that release storedenergy by breaking downcomplex molecules.

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Catabolism is the metabolic pathway that releases stored energy by breaking down complex molecules.

There are two types of metabolisms: anabolism and catabolism. Something is synthesized in anabolism, whereas catabolism performs the exact opposite of anabolism.

The breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones by catabolic pathways typically results in the release of energy. In catabolic pathways, the energy that is stored in the bonds of complex molecules like glucose and fats is released.

The catabolic, or respiration-driven breakdown of complex organic molecules into water and carbon dioxide results in the storage of released energy in ATP molecules.

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Pictured are two cells along with their radius. What does cell B likely have when compared to cell A

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The radii of two cells are displayed. Cell b presumably has more surface area per unit volume than cell a does because of this. The two main parts of a cell are the nucleus and the cell membrane.

the smallest biological unit that is capable of supporting life on its own and makes up all living entities as well as the tissues of the body. Cells are the essential building blocks of all life. The human body is made up of many billions of cells. They provide the body its framework, take in food's nutrients and convert them into energy while carrying out certain activities. The cell membrane, which surrounds the cell, controls the substances that flow into and out of the cell. Cell biology is the study of cells, including their structure at a molecular level and how each organelle performs. Robert Hooke, a biologist, made the first discovery of cells. All living things are made up of cells.

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Name the divisions (and sub-divisions) of the nervous system, with a brief description of function.

Answers

The nervous system has two main parts: The central nervous system is made up of the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system is made up of nerves that branch off from the spinal cord and extend to all parts of the body.

if the pedigre is for an autosomal recessive characteristic, which individuals are definetly heterygous

Answers

The pedigree is for an autosomal recessive characteristic, which individuals are definitely heterozygous.

In terms of genetics, being heterozygous implies having inherited multiple alleles (variations) of a targeted genomic marker from each biological parent. Heterozygous refers to a person who possesses two copies of a particular genetic marker. A person who is homozygous for a marker, however, has identical copies of that marker.

Heterozygous. Each pair of chromosomes in a diploid animal contains two alleles, one from the father and one from the mother, for each gene that determines a trait. A gene can have two or more alleles, which are variations of it, and they can all exist at the same spot on a chromosome, or locus. The term "heterozygous" describes the presence of several alleles for a given trait.You have a heterozygous genotype for that gene if the two copies of the gene are different from one another. Which traits are expressed are determined by how the two alleles are related.

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experiments involving the cloning of dna encoding for a low ld50 toxin or work with vectors that express toxins with a low ld50 (less than 100 nanograms per kilograms body weight) fall under what section of the nih guidelines?

Answers

Answer:

Experiments involving the cloning of DNA encoding for a low LD50 toxin or work with vectors that express toxins with a low LD50 (less than 100 nanograms per kilograms body weight) fall under Section III-F-2 of the NIH Guidelines for Research Involving Recombinant or Synthetic Nucleic Acid Molecules. This section states that experiments involving the cloning of DNA encoding for a low LD50 toxin or work with vectors that express toxins with a low LD50 pose extreme biosafety risks, and must be conducted in the highest level of containment (BSL-4).

Final answer:

The cloning of DNA encoding for a toxin with a low LD50 falls under Section III-D-4 of the NIH guidelines. This section outlines provisions for research involving dangerous biological agents. Lower LD50 values indicate higher toxicity levels.

Explanation:

Experiments involving the cloning of DNA encoding for a toxin with a low LD50, or work with vectors that express such toxins, fall under the Section III-D-4 of the NIH guidelines. This section is specifically for research involving dangerous biological agents. The LD50 or Lethal Dose 50% measure is used to denote the lethal dose of a substance which can kill 50% of a test population. It's mainly a measure of a substance's toxicity.

A lower LD50 value refers to a higher toxicity level because it requires a smaller amount to cause harm. Therefore, if you're working with vectors that can express toxins with an LD50 of less than 100 nanograms per kilogram body weight, you're working with a highly toxic material, and your experiments must strictly adhere to the guidelines under Section III-D-4 of the NIH Guidelines.

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how are the other types of food fats, proteins, other carbs related to the process of cell respiration

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Other types of food fats, proteins, other carbs are related to the process of cell respiration in that they are all used as sources of energy for the cell.

Carbohydrates, such as sugars and starches, are broken down into glucose molecules which can be used directly by the cell as a source of energy. The breakdown of glucose is the first step in cellular respiration, which occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.

Fats, such as triglycerides, are also broken down and used as a source of energy. However, the breakdown of fats occurs in the mitochondria, the organelles responsible for cellular respiration, and produces a greater amount of energy per gram than carbohydrates.

Proteins can also be broken down and used as a source of energy, but they are typically not the primary source of energy. Proteins are mainly used for structural and functional purposes, such as enzymes and transport proteins.

Overall, cellular respiration is the process by which cells convert the chemical energy in food molecules into a form that can be used by the cell, called adenosine triphosphate (ATP). All types of food are related to the process of cellular respiration as they are the starting point of the process and their breakdown is the energy source that drives the process.

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why is saltatory conduction along a myelinated axon faster than continuous conduction along an unmyelinated axon?

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Saltatory conduction along a myelinated axon is faster than continuous conduction along an unmyelinated axon because it boosts signal (i.e., Action Potential)  propagation speed.

Myelination boosts signal (i.e., Action Potential) propagation speed by decreasing membrane capacitance and increasing membrane resistance. Action potentials can be conducted along nerves in two ways: saltatory and continuous. Myelinated axons conduct impulses in a process known as saltatory conduction from one node of Ranvier to the next.

For this reason, in myelinated axons, the action potential is exclusively generated at the neurofibrils. In this sense, it is more rapid than continuous conduction. At rest, the neuron's inside is more negatively charged than its exterior due to the distribution of ions within the cell. The result is an electrical gradient across the membrane of the cell, known as the resting membrane potential.

By regulating the entry and exit of positively charged sodium (NA+) and potassium (K+) ions, sodium and potassium channels in the cell membrane help to keep the inside of the cell at a constant -0.7 mV.

After becoming depolarized, the cell membrane becomes more permeable to NA+. A positive charge is generated within that segment of the axon in relation to its outside.

To the extent that this positive voltage is high enough (when an action potential is formed), the inflow causes the same behavior in the next segment of the axon. Gradually, the axon's positive charge travels from the cell's interior to its terminals.

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what does the term antiparallel mean? the 5' end of one strand is opposite the 3' end of the second strand. the 5' end of one strand is opposite the 5' end of the second strand. the strands run in opposite directions. the strands separate in opposite directions. the strands run in the same direction.

Answers

The term "antiparallel," which denotes that the strands run parallel to one another but in opposite directions, is the appropriate choice.

Since the strands of a DNA double helix have the same chemical structure but are oriented in the opposite direction, they are referred to as being "antiparallel."Since the strands of a DNA double helix have the same chemical structure but are oriented in the opposite direction, they are referred to as being "antiparallel." Polarity, another word for a DNA strand's direction, is used. The two DNA strands' opposing directions of travel with respect to one another are referred to as the antiparallel arrangement of DNA. In other words, one DNA strand will run in a direction of 5' to 3', while the other DNA strand will run in a direction of 3' to 5'. (i.e. antiparallel).

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Can i please get an in depth easy to follow explanation of mitosis. Which explains what going on with chromatids and chromosomes and everything really. Id really appreciate it as i’m struggling. Please make it a level biology friendly. Also within this image which part is the chromatid/ chromosome. Thanks again

Answers

Answer:

see below for figure exp.

Explanation:

A cell with four chromosomes (found as two pairs) is seen in the image below; the pink and blue chromosomes were inherited from the mother and the father, respectively. Every chromosome that the father supplied has a matched chromosome that came from the mother. A homologous pair is made up of these comparable chromosomes, which are similar in size and structure (also referred to as bivalents). Typically, the DNA sequences of homologous chromosomes do not match perfectly.

Mitosis is a type of cell division that produces daughter cells identical to the parent cells. It occurs in eukaryotic cells and is an important part of the cell cycle process necessary for development, tissue regeneration, and growth.

Before mitosis, the cell needs to prepare for division. This involves the DNA condensing into chromosomes, which is the key step. Chromosomes are made of two identical sister chromatids and these chromatids are made of double-stranded DNA.

Mitosis itself has 4 main phases:

Interphase

Prophase

Metaphase

Anaphase

Telophase

Interphase is the gap between mitosis. The cell grows and copies its genetic material.

Prophase is the first stage of mitosis. During this phase, the chromosomes condense further, making them visible under a microscope. The nuclear envelope around the genetic material also breaks down.

Metaphase is the next stage, during which time the spindle fibers connect to the chromosomes, aligning them in the center of the cell.

Anaphase begins when the chromatids, the two identical strands of the chromosome, are pulled apart and move towards the opposite poles of the cell, into the two groups of daughter cells.

Telophase is the final stage of mitosis and is when the cell starts to reform a nuclear membrane, the chromatids turn back into chromosomes and the genetic material unravels and relaxes back into short strands.

In the picture, the two chromatids of the chromosome that can be seen would be the two lines extending from the middle, which are connected at the end. The thicker middle part of the structure is the chromosome, which is made up of the two chromatids.

Spot the injuries preventions in this photo pls i'll give brainliest!

Answers

The top ten ways of injuries preventions in the photo are:

Warm-Up and Cool-Off.Make a session plan.Between-exercise recoveryRecognize Your LimitsApply the right technique.Obtain Qualified Assistance.Put On the Proper Gear.Good RecoveryTake enough Food and DrinkSeek appropriate medical care

What is injury prevention?

Injury prevention is an endeavor to stop or lessen the degree of physical harm brought on by outside forces, such as accidents before they happen.

In a school gym, the possibility of injuries is higher if adequate injury prevention steps are not put in place such as wearing proper gear, warming up, etc.

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An antimicrobial that inhibits cell wall synthesis will result in which of the following?
A) Cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure.
B) Cells cannot attach to their hosts.
C) Ribosomes lose their function.
D) The sterols in the cell wall become nonfunctional.
E) The replication of cells, including cancer cells, slows down.

Answers

An antimicrobial that inhibits cell wall synthesis, by this cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure, hence option A is correct.

What is the effect of antimicrobials on cells?

Antibiotics are defined as substances that help to stop infections caused by bacteria. It is a process of inhibition of cell wall synthesis of bacteria and is one of the mechanisms used by antibiotics to stop the infection.

Osmotic rupture defines as the no balance between the pressure inside and outside of the cell which causes cells to burst.

Therefore, cells becoming more susceptible to osmotic pressure is the correct option.

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At the pet store, what two new carriers is the virus passed to? in the movie outbreak​

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Puppies from pet stores have been linked to a new outbreak of drug-resistant bacteria.

what exactly was virus ?

A virus is an infectious microorganism made up of a segment of nucleic acid (either DNA or RNA) wrapped by a protein coat. A virus cannot replicate on its own; instead, it must infect cells and use host cell components to replicate. Viruses frequently kill host cells, causing harm to the host organism. AIDS, COVID-19, measles, and smallpox are all well-known examples of viruses that cause human disease.

Viruses that infect bacteria and are frequently referred to as phages have the greatest number. They have many of the same features, but they are far more plentiful. Much future research will focus on the mechanisms by which viruses infect people, as well as possible methods for inhibiting viral replication within human cells.

Puppies from pet stores have been linked to a new outbreak of drug-resistant bacteria.

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where does meiosis take place in the moss life cycle? in the antheridia and aronia of the gametophyte generation in the spores after being released by the sporophyte in the sporangium at the time of spore formation in the aronium of the gametophyte generation

Answers

in moss, The photosynthetic gametophyte provides nutrition for the sporophyte generation. Meiosis occurs within the sporangium of the sporophyte to produce male and female spores.

The "leafy" moss you step on in the woods is the plant's gametophyte generation. Mosses produce two types of spores, which develop into male and female gametophytes. Male gametophytes have reproductive structures known as antheridia (plural, antheridium) that produce sperm via mitosis. Archegonia (singular, archegonium) are female gametophytes that produce eggs via mitosis. Sperm are transported to a neighboring plant via a water droplet, where they are chemically attracted to the archegonium entrance and fertilization occurs. The embryonic sporophyte grows within the archegonium, and the mature sporophyte remains connected to the gametophyte. The sporophyte lacks photosynthetic ability. Thus, the gametophyte feeds both the embryo and the mature sporophyte.

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Salt is notoriously dangerous to land snails; however, some populations of aquatic, freshwater snail have
brackish (or mix of salt and fresh water) water adaptations and live in different parts of a river system. A
group of scientists monitored salt concentrations in the habitats of two freshwater snail populations located
nearby and recorded the salt level as follows (in ppt, parts per thousand):
Population (Day 1): 0.1 ppt (morning), 0.0 ppt (afternoon), 0.1 ppt (evening)
Population 2 (Day 1): 0.3 ppt (morning), 0.5 ppt (afternoon), 0.2 ppt (evening)
In 3-5 sentences, 1) describe in which population you'd expect to see more adaptations for salt water and
2) explain how such adaptations would become more common in this population.

Answers

Given that members of population 2 are exposed to higher levels of salt than members of population.

How salt water will affect the population?

1, I would anticipate seeing more adaptations to salt water in this population.

Population 2 members need to adapt to their surroundings better in order to survive and gain fitness.

2) Describe how such adaptations would proliferate within this population.

Natural selection will favor adaptations for salt water, and these traits will be more prevalent in the population.

Let's go through a few aspects of natural selection.

Benefitful alleles are chosen by natural selection, which acts as an evolutionary force, and their frequency is increased in the population.

Gene destiny in space and time is the outcome of the phenotype-environment interaction.

Natural selection produces adaptation, thus. a rise in the aptitude phenotype is the result.

Each genotype's contribution to the following generation is what is referred to as aptitude.

The phenotype, which affects a person's survival, fertility, and capacity to mate, is a reflection of their aptitude (or fitness). It serves as a method of evaluating a person's capacity to produce viable offspring.

In order for aptitude to be advantageous, it must be significant.

Depending on how an allele impacts the fitness of people, natural selection may act in its favor or against it.

The environment or the selective forces exerted by other organisms or habitats can often be linked to adaptations brought about by natural selection.

The environmental feature that affects how differently phenotypic individuals survive is the selecting agent.

Each genotype's likelihood of passing on its gametes to the following generation is influenced by the environment.

Recall that a mutation is an adjustment or modification of DNI sequences that results in the emergence of new variants.

Some of these might be successful and be absorbed into each person, though many of these are eliminated. It is these mutations that have undergone natural selection.

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mammal a has twice the body mass of mammal b. what is the ratio of mammal a's specific brain mass to mammal b's? report your answer using two significant figures.

Answers

They have more fully developed brains than other animals, with a ratio of mammal A's particular brain weight to mammal B's equal to 1.624.

Can mammals include humans?

Since humans share the same distinguishing characteristics as every other member of this vast group, they are categorized as mammals. Humans are also included in the category of mammals known as primates, which includes the apes and, in particular, the "Great Apes" '

A mammal or a shark?

Although some people mistakenly think that sharks are mammals because of their size and the fact that some of them can bear children to live young, sharks are actually fish. Fish are aquatic creatures and some of the earliest vertebrates.

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With an appearance similar to granite this sample seems to have undergone a change where the ferro-magnesium minerals have separated from the silica rich minerals. This ion-migration has produce what appears to be a foliated texture.

Answers

This sample likely underwent a process known as metamorphism, in which heat and pressure cause the minerals in a rock to recrystallize and change.

Metamorphism is the process of change in the structure, mineralogy, texture, and chemical composition of rocks in the solid state, as a result of changes in temperature, pressure, and/or deformation. It occurs in the Earth's crust and upper mantle and can be caused by tectonic activity, such as the movement of tectonic plates, or by exposure to heat and fluids from intrusions of magma or hot fluids.

The specific process you described, where ferromagnesian minerals have separated from silica-rich minerals, is known as segregation. This can result in a foliated texture, where the minerals are aligned in parallel layers. This is often seen in metamorphic rocks such as schist and gneiss.

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the pharmacy has aminosyn 8.5% in stock. in order to prepare 150 gram of protein, how many ml of aminosyn will be needed from the stock solution

Answers

In order to prepare 150 grams of protein from 8.5% of stock solution of aminosyn stock, 1764.71 ml of of aminosyn will be required.

Aminosyn is a solution containing crystalline amino acids solution present along with electrolytes. If a stock solution has 8.5 % of aminosyn it indicates that 8.5 gm of amino acids are dissolved in the solution. Therefore to calculate the amount of protein formed from it, the formula used is:

Amount of solution required (in ml) × concentration of stock solution = Amounts of protein obtained (in gm)

According to the question,

Amount of solution required × (8.5 / 100) = 150 gm

Amount of solution required = (150 × 100) / 8.5 = 1764.71 ml

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quality control vials must be labeled with an expiration date when opened. what is the new expiration date once opened?

Answers

The QC solutions can be used until the expiration date on the vial label or for 90 days after they were first opened, whichever comes first. 3.

What is the new expiration date of the QC material once it has been opened?

Quality Control is stable once opened for up to 90 days or until the expiration date, whichever comes first. On the vial, write the Date Opened and the Discard Date. Insert a Glucose Test Strip into the metre to begin QC Analysis and turn the metre ON.

Test strips expire 180 days after opening or by the expiration date written on the label, whichever comes first.

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Periodontal diseases in teeth and osteoarthritis are common problems that show up on skeletal remains. T/F

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It is TRUE that common health issues that appear on skeletal remains include osteoarthritis and periodontal infections of the teeth.

A severe gum infection called periodontitis can kill the jawbone in addition to causing gum and bone damage.

Although frequent, periodontitis is largely preventable. Usually, inadequate dental hygiene is the culprit. Loss of teeth can result from periodontitis. It raises the risk of lung and heart conditions.

Swollen, red, and sensitive gums are among the symptoms.

Professional cleaning of the pockets around teeth is part of the treatment in order to protect the nearby bone. Serious conditions can call for periodontal surgery.

The deterioration of the flexible tissue at the ends of bones leads to osteoarthritis, a kind of arthritis.

A bone's protective layer, called cartilage, deteriorates with time and happens gradually.

The most typical symptom is joint pain, which most commonly occurs in the hands, neck, lower back, knees, or hips during osteoarthritis.

Medicines, physical therapy, and occasionally surgery can assist retain joint mobility while reducing pain.

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The statement "Periodontal diseases in teeth and osteoarthritis are common problems that show up on skeletal remains" is true.

Periodontal diseases are a group of diseases that affect the tissues surrounding and supporting the teeth, such as gums and bone. The periodontium is the name for these tissues. Periodontal disease can lead to tooth loss if left untreated. The most severe form of periodontal disease is periodontitis. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative disease that affects the joints, particularly the weight-bearing ones. The cartilage, which cushions the ends of bones, breaks down over time in individuals with osteoarthritis.

The most common symptoms of osteoarthritis are pain and stiffness in the joints, which worsen over time. Skeletal remains refer to the bones that make up the human skeleton after death. There are several causes of death that can be detected through skeletal remains analysis, such as trauma, infection, disease, and others.

Therefore, the remains can tell us much about the person’s life, such as health, age, diet, and lifestyle. Based on the information provided above, it can be concluded that the statement "Periodontal diseases in teeth and osteoarthritis are common problems that show up on skeletal remains" is true.

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How are lactic acid fermentation and alcoholic fermentation similar? different?

Answers

Answer:

One similarity between lactic acid fermentation and alcoholic fermentation is that they are both types of anaerobic respiration, meaning they occur in the absence of oxygen.

One key difference is that lactic acid fermentation results in the production of lactic acid, while alcoholic fermentation results in the production of ethanol and carbon dioxide.

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