A bus uses 50 liters of petrolfor 1-000 km of journey' t3l Find the amount of petrol needed for 400 km journey'

Answer:

2nd and 3rd ordered pair are on the graph

Step-by-step explanation:

Substitute the x- coordinate into the equation and if the value obtained is equal to the y- coordinate then it lies on the graph.

(1, 625 )

f(1) = - [tex]25^{1+1}[/tex] = - [tex]25^{2}[/tex] = - 625 ≠ 625 ← No

(0, - 25 )

f(0) = - [tex]25^{0+1}[/tex] = - [tex]25^{1}[/tex] = - 25 ← Yes

(- 1, - 1 )

f(- 1) = - [tex]25^{-1+1}[/tex] = - [tex]25^{0}[/tex] = - 1 ← Yes [ using [tex]a^{0}[/tex] = 1 ]

Answer: ~27.5

Step-by-step explanation:

I don't know about all the geometry terms, but since a line is 180°, and SE makes 1 right angle (90°), the other side is also 90° (180-90=90).

This means you have a right triangle with sides 15 and 23 and unknown hypotenuse AS.

Pythagorean Theorem: a^2 + b^2 = c^2

(15^2) + (23^2) = AS^2

sqrt( 225 + 529 ) = AS

AS = 27.459

Answer:

B = 64°

AB = 33.378

BC = 14.632

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the right angled triangle ;

Angle B = 180 - (90 + 26) (sum of angles in a triangle)

Angle B = 180 - 116

Angle B = 64°

Side AB = c

Using trigonometry :

Sin B = opposite / hypotenus

Sin 64 = 30/AB

AB = 30 / Sin64

AB = 33.378

Side BC ;

Sin A = BC / AB

Sin 26 = BC / 33.378

BC = 33.378 * Sin 26

BC = 14.632

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As,

- 0.0084

When estimated,

= - 0.008

[tex] = \frac{ - 8}{1000} [/tex]

Then,

[tex] - 8 \times \frac{1}{1000} [/tex]

[tex] = - 8 \times {10}^{ - 3} [/tex]

Here,

Power of ten as observed is -3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The standard form for a circle is

[tex](x-h)^2+(y-k)^2=r^2[/tex] and what's important here is that the x- and the y- remain that way in the equation. Filling in our values,

[tex](x-(6))^2+(y-(-3))^2=25[/tex] which tells us that our center is

        6      and     -3 -------------------> (6, -3)

The radius is the square root of 25 which is 5.

Answer:

are you look for finaincl loan

Step-by-step explanation:

The measure of the angle C is 120°.

Given that the parallelogram ABCD, we need to find the measure of the angle C,

We know that in a parallelogram the opposite angles are equal and the adjacent angles are supplementary,

So,

∠D = ∠B

6x + 6 = 10x - 30

4x = 36

x = 9

So, ∠D = ∠B = 60°

So,

∠C + ∠D = 180°

∠C = 180° - 60°

∠C = 120°

Hence the measure of the angle C is 120°.

Learn more about parallelogram click;

https://brainly.com/question/28854514

#SPJ1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

If the mean is 98 and standard deviation is 6, then 92 is one standard deviation to the left of the mean; that means that 34% + 34% + 13.5% + 2.35% + .15% of the data is included in this area. Add those up and you get, as a percentage, 84%.

Answer:

0.84

Step-by-step explanation:

yee its right

Answer:

6 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

A=b1+b2/2*h

Fill in the equation with what we know

21=8+x/2*3

Isolate x

Quick steps: 21/3=7*2=14-8=6

x=6

Answer:

you guess any value of x and then you substitute any three values for example for the first equation you can guess the value of x to be 1 or 2 or 3

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer is 10 because there are only two odd numbers in here and the best. Even so when you put that in two digit odd number then it'll just be interchangeable those four numbers that aren't at the end of

Answer:

72

Step-by-step explanation:

For a five-digit number to be odd it's one digit must be 1,3,5.

So there can be no repeats of any digits.

Let's look at numbers with one's digit being 1.

There are 4 ways to choose the tabs digit.

After that you can choose the hundreds digit 3 ways.

The thousands digit can then be chosen 2 ways.

Then finally the ten-thousands digit can be chosen 1 way.

4×3×2×1=24

24 odd numbers with one's digit being 1 that are 5 digits long only using 1,2,3,4, and 5 with no repeats.

That means there are 24 odd numbers with one's digit being 3 that are 5 digits long only using 1,2,3,4, and 5 with no repeats.

Also means there are 24 odd numbers with one's digit being 5 that are 5 digits long only using 1,2,3,4, and 5 with no repeats.

3(24)=72

Answer:

50

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

96 + 2² / 2

96 + 4 / 2

100 / 2

50

Answer:

I think It would be A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

i think its A

Step-by-step explanation:

(if its not im sorry :( )

3/7×4/7= (3×4)/(7×7)= 12/49

Answer:

12/49

Step-by-step explanation:

Hi! To start off, I'm going to multiply our numerators, and then our denominators.

3 × 4 = 12

7 × 7 = 49

Usually, if this fraction was not simplified (but it is) we would simplify it (ex. 2/4 to 1/2).

Hope this Helps! :)

Have any questions? Ask below in the comments and I will try my best to answer.

-SGO

Answer:  D. Reflect across the x-axis, and then reflect again over the x-axis.

Explanation:

If we reflect over the x axis, and then reflect over that same axis again, then we arrive at the original image. Nothing has changed. This is because the two reflections effectively cancel each other out.

It's like taking one step forward, then taking one step back. You haven't moved at all.

Answer:

The Second One

Step-by-step explanation:

It Shows Side Lengths, and the angles for LOM and PON connect at O.

That means they share a similar angle, and between the angle are Sides.

SAS. (Side-Angle-Side)

(I'm not really good at math so i'm sorry if its wrong!)

Answer:

x³-7x-6

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the products of the factors

(x+1)(x+2)(x-3)

x²+3x+2(x-3)

x³+3x²+2x-3x²-9x-6

x³-7x-6

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we can say that because the men do 1/3 of the work in 20 days,

for 10 men:

20 days = 1/3 total work

Because we need the house built in 30 days, and 20 days have already passed, we only have 30-20=10 days left. Furthermore, 20/2=10, so in our equation of 20 days = 1/3 total work, we can divide both sides by 2 to get

10 days = 1/6 total work

The amount of work we need to get done in 10 days is (all of it) - (1/3 of total work) = 1 - 1/3 = 2/3 = 4/6

Since 10 men can do 1/6 of the work in 10 days, 10*4 =40 men can do 1/6 * 4 = 4/6 of the work in 10 days. This is the amount of work that needs to get done. Therefore, the contractor needs 40 (total workers) - 10 (current workers) = 30 new workers to finish the remaining work in due time

The first hose pumps out water at a rate of

(161 gal)/(3 h) = 161/3 gal/h

The second hose fills the pool at a rate of

(161 gal)/(2 h) = 161/2 gal/h

Working together, they can fill the pool at a rate of

(161/3 + 161/2) gal/h = 805/6 gal/h

so that it would take

(161 gal) / (805/6 gal/h) = 161×6/805 h = 6/5 h = 1.2 h = 1 h 12 min

to fill the pool.

Answer:

x= -12 & y=24

Step-by-step explanation:

given,

x+y=12.......... equation (i)

2x=3y........eq(ii)

let,

x=12-y.......eq(iii)

from eq(ii)

2(12-y)=3y

y=24

putting the value of y in eq(iii)

x=12-24

x= -12

The answers are in the red rectangles with the work.

Let me know if something is unreadable.

Answer:

that is the thousands place value.

the place value of 3 in 3546.= 3000

Answer: 24 cans

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

George has 9 fence

It requires [tex]2\frac{2}{3}[/tex] cans to paint a fence

So, 9 fence required

[tex]\Rightarrow 9\times 2\dfrac{2}{3}\\\\\Rightarrow 9\times \dfrac{8}{3}\\\\\Rightarrow 3\times 8=24\ \text{cans}[/tex]

9 fence requires 24 cans

Answer:

jejejjejejr

Step-by-step explanation:

uejejjejejjsjs

Answer:

y + 1 = 2/3 (x - 8)

Step-by-step explanation:

y2 - y1 / x2 - x1          -5 - (-1) / 2 - 8      -4/-6      2/3

y + 1 = 2/3 (x - 8)

Answer:

Amount she would have in 2 years at a simple interest of is

$5000 + ($5000 x 0.048 x 2) = $5480

Amount she would have in 2 years at a 4.1 % / year compounded semi- annually is :

$5000 x ( 1 +0.041/2)^4 = $5422.78

the first option yields a higher value in two years when compared with the second option. Thus, the first option is the best one to choose

Step-by-step explanation:

Future value with simple interest = principal + interest

Interest = principal x interest rate x time

0.048 x 5000 x 2 = 480

future value = $480 + 5000 = $5480

The formula for calculating future value with compounding:

FV = P (1 + r)^nm

FV = Future value  

P = Present value  

R = interest rate  

m = number of compounding

N = number of years

5000 x ( 1 + 0.041 / 2)^(2 x 2) = $5422.78

First we need to assume that the sum of the angles is also 180°. if one is less than 90°, the other will be more. we can do this because in a plane 4-sided polygon the sum of the inner angles will always be 360°, and we already know the two angles on the right side

so we can say that:

3x + 20 + x = 180

Since we got only one variable in this equation, we can already solve for x.

4x + 20 = 180

4x = 160

x = 40

the lower left angle is just 40°

the upper left is three times that plus 20, so it's 160°

hope this helps you to get the method

I assume you're supposed to establish the identity,

cos(A) cos(2A) cos(4A) = 1/8 sin(8A) / sin(A)

Recall the double angle identity for sine:

sin(2x) = 2 sin(x) cos(x)

Then you have

sin(8A) = 2 sin(4A) cos(4A)

sin(8A) = 4 sin(2A) cos(2A) cos(4A)

sin(8A) = 8 sin(A) cos(A) cos(2A) cos(4A)

==>   sin(8A)/(8 sin(A)) = cos(A) cos(2A) cos(4A)

as required.