a client asks the nurse what the most common side effect of anticoagulant therapy is. what is the best response by the nurse?

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Answer 1

When a patient asks the nurse what the most frequent adverse effect of anticoagulant medication is, the nurse's best answer is bleeding.

What is anticoagulant therapy?

Anticoagulants are drugs that work to stop blood clots from forming. They are administered to those who have a high risk of blood clots in order to lower their risk of suffering from serious conditions like heart attacks and strokes. To halt bleeding from wounds, the blood forms a seal known as a blood clot. An anticoagulant might be suggested to you if any of the following apply to you: Atrial fibrillation, often known as afib, is a crucial factor in the use of an anticoagulant (a type of arrhythmia, or irregular heartbeat). surgery or transcatheter heart valve replacement.

How is anticoagulant therapy done and its example?

Heparin should be dosed using weight-based nomograms and given as a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion. Usually, an infusion at a rate of 18 units/kg/h follows an 80 unit/kg bolus, and subsequent doses are modified in accordance with the results of the APTT.

Heparin, another anticoagulant, and warfarin, also referred to as Coumadin, are medications that slow down blood clotting in the body. Blood cells called platelets are prevented from assembling to form clots by antiplatelet medications like aspirin and clopidogrel.

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personal information about patients such as their names, ages, and addresses is considered what type of information?

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personal information about patients such as their names, ages, and addresses is considered as Protected health information (PHI).

Personal health information (PHI), also referred to as protected health information (PHI), is any information that a healthcare professional collects to recognise a patient and determine the best course of treatment. This information can include census information, health history, test as well as research lab results, mental health disorders, insurance details, and other data.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 is the principal legislation governing the use, access, and disclosure of PHI in the United States. According to HIPAA, PHI entails details on a person's past, current, or future health as well as details about the treatments they received and their associated costs. Regulations governing the production, acquisition, transfer, management, and storage of this data are applicable to any HIPAA-covered organisation.

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judi has recently been experiencing lower back pain. she has had diagnostic tests, but they did not suggest a definite cause. after trying several medications to no avail, she is considering alternative remedies. which of the following is most likely to help with her back pain?

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Acupuncture, massage therapy, or physical therapy are all potential alternative remedies that could help with judi's lower back pain.

Acupuncture is an ancient form of Chinese medicine that has been practiced for thousands of years. It is based on the idea that the body has an energy, or "qi" (pronounced chee), that flows through pathways called meridians. It is believed that when these pathways are blocked, the body cannot function properly and illness can occur. Acupuncture involves the insertion of thin, sterile needles into specific points along the body in order to open up the pathways and restore balance. It is used to treat a variety of conditions such as pain, headaches, allergies, digestive issues, and even some mental health issues. It is often combined with massage, herbs, and other traditional Chinese medicine practices to enhance its effectiveness. Although acupuncture is not a cure-all, it is a safe, natural way to treat many health issues and can be used to complement more traditional medical treatments.

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in the alternatives approach, many assume that people abuse drugs voluntarily to fill a need or basic drive. True or False?

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Answer:

it were be ture

the nurse is providing education to a client newly diagnosed with glaucoma. what explanation could the nurse provide to describe the cause of the disorder?

Answers

The cause of glaucoma is an increase in pressure within the eye due to a buildup of fluid.

What is Glaucoma?

Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that damage the optic nerve, which carries information from the eye to the brain. It is often associated with increased pressure within the eye, known as intraocular pressure (IOP). If left untreated, glaucoma can lead to permanent vision loss and even blindness. Symptoms of glaucoma may include gradual vision loss, usually in the peripheral (side) vision, tunnel vision, pain, headaches, and halos around lights. Treatment usually involves medications, laser treatments, and surgery to reduce IOP and protect the optic nerve.

This is usually caused by a blockage in the drainage canals of the eye, which prevents the fluid from draining properly. The increased pressure can damage the optic nerve and lead to vision loss.

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which would be included in the plan of care for an obstetrical client who has been taking carbamazepine

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Analyses to rule out neural tube defects. The drug carbamazepine has been linked to neural tube abnormalities. Down syndrome, heart malformations, and fetal hydraenids are unrelated to carbamazepine use.

Why do heart malformations occur?

The majority of these problems are not completely understood by researchers, but they speculate that genetics, specific medical disorders, particular drugs, and ambient or lifestyle factors, like as smoking, may all be involved. Congenital cardiac abnormalities can in a variety of forms.

What cardiac abnormalities are there?

The most typical kinds are: Septal defects, also known as "holes in the heart," are openings in the heart's left and right wall surface. Defects in the lobes that control blood flow through the heart are referred to as heart valve defects. Large blood arteries with defects that affect how blood enters and exits the heart.

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which initial inference would the nurse make about a psychiatric client curled up in the fetal position

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The first assumption a nurse would make about a mentally ill patient curled up in the fetal position is that the patient is engaging in regressive behavior, which is a reaction to extreme anxiety.

What do you mean psychiatric?

The area of medicine known as psychiatry is dedicated to the identification, management, and prevention of mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders. An M.D. or D.O. A psychiatrist is a specialist in mental health, particularly problems related to substance use. The identification, prevention, and treatment of mental diseases are the primary goals of the medical specialty of psychiatry. These encompass a range of maladaptations in behaviour, emotion, cognition, and perception. Check out the psychiatry glossary.

What is an example of psychiatric and what is the most common psychiatric issue?

Among the mental health conditions that psychiatrists treat are schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, depression, anxiety disorders, personality disorders, panic disorders, and anxiety disorders. They also deal with drug and substance abuse, dependency, and addiction.

Anxiety disorders are the most prevalent psychiatric disorders in the general population of the United States. The most prevalent psychiatric diagnoses in the general population, according to European data, are mood and anxiety disorders, which have roughly equal prevalence rates.

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the nurse performs a cultural assessment with a patient from a different culture. which action by the nurse should be taken first?

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An early step in performing a cultural assessment is to determine whether the patient feels an affiliation with any cultural group

Ask about ethnic background, preferred religion, familial structure, dietary preferences, eating habits, and health practises when doing a quick cultural assessment . Instead, a cultural assessment is used to comprehend deeply ingrained norms and values, drivers of behavior, and existing characteristics. Before the assessment, be aware of the important topics to discuss and how to do so without upsetting the patient and family. Reviewing the many cultural elements, such as the environment, traditions, interpersonal relationships, incentives, and values, is a part of doing this assessment.

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a child with heart disease starts on oral digoxin. when preparing to administer the medication, what should the nurse do first?

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A nurse should assess the apical pulse for a full minute before administering digoxin due to its positive inotropic action , negative chronotropic action (it decreases heart rate), and negative dromotropic action (it decreases electrical conduction).

The nurse monitor blood pressure and apical pulse prior to administration. Cardiac monitor should be used on patients receiving digoxin, especially loading doses. Monitor serum digoxin levels closely, especially if receiving antibiotic therapy. Monitor serum electrolytes, especially potassium.Serum digoxin levels should be monitored, with a normal therapeutic range from 0.8 to 2 ng/mL. Serum potassium levels should also be closely monitored for patients on digoxin because hypokalemia increases the effect of digoxin and can result in digoxin toxicity.

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which career combines dna technology and medicine? pharmaceuticals paternity testing environmental studies biopesticide development

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The career that combines DNA technology and medicine is paternity testing.

What is DNA technology?

More recently there has been a lot of advancement in the field of genetics. What happens in genetics is that there is a lot of research that tries to understand the pattern of inheritance and this has been of a great use to the medical science ever since it became an independent discipline.

The area of DNA technology has been very impotant when it comess to paternity testing. What happens in paternity testing is that we are able to match the DNA of the supposed father and that of the child and look out for similarities.

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which of the following is the most common mental disorder of the elderly, covering several diseases, each of which includes serious memory loss accompanied by declines in other mental functioning?

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There are numerous potential causes of memory loss and other cognitive issues, such as depression, infections, and pharmaceutical side effects. Sometimes the issue is treatable, and cognition advances. Other instances, the issue is a brain ailment that is irreversible, like Alzheimer's disease.

What kind of memory deteriorates during the course of life until it peaks around age 70?

Adulthood sees a progressive reduction in short-term memory until the age of 70, at which point it becomes evident. Age has little bearing on semantic memory (generic information and facts) and implicit memories (bicycle riding).

is there a type of memory loss that doesn't come along with any other mental issues?

Amnesia, a memory loss that happens without other mental issues and can take the forms of retrograde amnesia and anterograde amnesia, are two of the memory dysfunctions. Alzheimer's disease also causes a progressive loss of memory.

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Hemoglobin is a complex protein that contains four polypeptide chains. The normal hemoglobin found in adults—called adult hemoglobin—consists of two alpha and two beta polypeptide chains, which are encoded by different loci. Sickle-cell hemoglobin, which causes sickle-cell anemia, arises from a mutation in the beta chain of adult hemoglobin. Adult hemoglobin and sickle-cell hemoglobin differ in a single amino acid: the sixth amino acid from one end in adult hemoglobin is glutamic acid, whereas sickle-cell hemoglobin has valine at this position. After consulting the genetic code provided in Figure 15.10, indicate the type and location of the mutation that gave rise to sickle-cell anemia.

Answers

GAA and GAG are two potential codons for glutamic acid. Codons that encode valine can be created by making a single base substitution in the second position in both codons: GAA-> GUA (Val), (Val) GAG -> GUG (Val)

What occurs if hemoglobin levels are low?

Being anemic, or having low hemoglobin, can make you feel exhausted and frail. Anemia can have many different forms, each with a unique etiology. Anemia can be mild to severe and can be short-term or long-term. Anemia typically has multiple causes.

What hemoglobin level is considered dangerously low?

According to some physicians, hospital patients with hemoglobin levels below 10 g/dL ought to have a blood transfusion. A blood transfusion may not be necessary for many individuals with levels between 7 and 10 g/dL, according to current studies. One blood unit is typically just as effective as two and may even be safer.

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a client with metastatic bone cancer sustained a left hip fracture without injury. what type of fracture does the nurse understand occurs without trauma or fall?

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A client with metastatic bone cancer sustained a left hip fracture without injury. Pathologic fracture does the nurse understand occurs without trauma or fall.

The spread of cancer cells to the bones can result in a variety of issues, including discomfort, broken bones, or more severe occurrences. All malignancies have the potential to spread to the bone, but breast, lung, prostate, kidney, melanoma, ovarian, and thyroid cancers are those that frequently do so. Metastatic bone cancer most frequently occur in the spine. The skull, ribs, upper arm bone, upper leg bone, pelvis, and femur are additional typical locations. Cancer cells can travel to a bone through a process known as bone metastasis. In almost all cases, cancer can "metastasize" (spread) to the bones. However, some cancers, such as breast and prostate cancer, have a higher chance of migrating to the bone.

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in many institutions, which telephone or fax orders requires a signature within 24 hours by the ordering physician or nurse practitioner?

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Many institutions require the signature of a prescribing physician or nursing staff within 24 hours to order antibiotics over the phone or by fax.

What are antibiotics?

Antibiotics are drugs that fight infections in humans and animals caused by bacteria by either killing them or making it difficult for them to grow and multiply. They live in the environment inside and outside our bodies and everywhere.

Common side effects of antibiotics include: nausea, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. These symptoms can lead to dehydration and other problems.

How fast do antibiotics work?

It can take several days for antibiotics to start working, so you may have to wait 3 to 5 days to see improvement. Depending on infections, antibiotics may take time to feel completely better (like bacterial pneumonia).

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Almost all (99%) of the calcium in the body is used to:
maintain the blood level of calcium within very narrow limits.
provide rigidity for the bones and teeth.
regulate the transmission of nerve impulses.
provide energy for cells.

Answers

Calcium is a mineral that is most frequently linked to bone production and metabolism. Teeth and bones include calcium hydroxyapatite and constitutes and over 99 percent of the body's total calcium.

How come Bones was canceled?

Due to declining ratings and the Fox channel's general opinion that the show had peaked, Bones was canceled. Despite having a fairly successful run throughout the course of its 12 seasons, the show's ratings started to fall after it was repeatedly relocated around the TV schedule.

Is the Bones girl autistic?

Although it has been claimed that Brennan was modeled after an autistic person, the series' plot has never explicitly acknowledged this.

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TRUE/FALSE. patterns are stored and analyzed by the cdc through the pulsenet program in order to assist in the investigation of possible infectious disease outbreaks.

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True, The CDC uses the Pulse Net tool to store and analyze bacterial BLANK patterns in order to aid in the investigation of potential infectious disease outbreaks.

What are some instances of infectious diseases?

Diseases brought on by living things like bacteria or viruses are referred to as infectious diseases. They are thought to be contagious and can spread from one person to another through bodily secretions, insects, or other means. SARS, influenza, the typical cold, tuberculosis (TB), and hepatitis A and B are a few examples.

Short answer: What are infectious diseases?

Disorders produced by organisms, such as germs, viruses, fungus, or parasites, are known as infectious diseases. Our bodies are home to a variety of creatures. In most cases, they are beneficial or even safe. But certain microbes have the potential to cause disease in specific situations.

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after a thyroidectomy, the client develops a carpopedal spasm while the nurse is taking a bp reading on the left arm. which action by the nurse is appropriate?

Answers

Administer IV calcium gluconate as ordered.

A thyroidectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of all or part of the thyroid gland. When a patient has thyroid cancer or another condition of the thyroid gland or goiter, endocrine or head and neck surgeons frequently perform a thyroidectomy in general surgery.

Thyroidectomy is a common surgical procedure with several potential complications or sequelae, including temporary or permanent voice changes, temporary or permanent low calcium, the need for lifelong thyroid hormone replacement, bleeding, infection, and the remote possibility of airway obstruction due to bilateral vocal cord paralysis. When the procedure is performed by an experienced surgeon, complications are uncommon.

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a nurse is preparing to insert a rectal suppository and observes a small amount of rectal bleeding. what action should the nurse implement

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A nurse preparing to insert a rectal suppository observes a small amount of rectal bleeding. Nurses should withhold from giving suppositories until they contact their doctor.

What are the uses and drawbacks of rectal suppositories?

Rectal suppositories are intended for local or systemic action to relieve pain, constipation, irritation, inflammation, nausea and vomiting, fever, migraines, allergies, and sedation.

Drawbacks include: mucosal irritation, irregular and unwanted absorption; Gastrointestinal conditions affecting absorption; Diarrhea and sick conditions impairing absorption.

Why do rectal suppositories work so quickly?

Medicines in rectal suppositories usually work quickly (usually 10-45 minutes). This is because suppositories dissolve in the body and are absorbed directly into the bloodstream.

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the nurse should identify which potential health disparities when conducting an admission assessment on a hospitalized patient? (select all that apply.)

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The nurse should identify The following potential health disparities when conducting an admission assessment on a hospitalized patients recent divorce, a low-paying, unfulfilling job, and a regular smoker, Male African-American.

The nurse may use the factors that contribute to health disparities to pinpoint patients who are at risk. A risk factor for health disparities is exposure to stressful living conditions, such as the financial instability brought on by poor salary. One example of a selected unhealthy activity is smoking. Due to recent divorce and extreme stress, the patient is at risk. Race, a natural, biological component that is more prevalent in African Americans, may be a risk factor for hypertension. Having comprehensive insurance has the benefit of promoting better health, even though not having health insurance is unequal.

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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the ED after 48 hours of vomiting and diarrhea. Her parents are concerned that she is becoming dehydrated. Which of the following is a sign of moderate dehydration?
ADecreased urine output
B-Hypotension
C-Lethargy
D-Mottled extremitie

Answers

After 48 hours of vomiting and diarrhea, a 4-year-old girl is brought to the ED. Her parents are worried that she's dehydrating.

decreased urine output is a sign of moderate dehydration.

The ability of the first responder to identify and effectively treat hypovolemic shock will determine whether or not a child with severe volume depletion survives at the emergency room. Although the fundamentals of fluid and electrolyte therapy have been studied for decades, the issue still presents difficulties because it is difficult to agree on a clinical management regimen and because fluid administration causes more side effects than any other medicine. However, more recent systematic reviews and meta-analyses have brought attention to the risk of hyponatraemia and hyponatraemic encephalopathy in some children receiving treatment with hypotonic fluids. The ancient concepts put forth by Holliday, Segar, and Finberg have endured the test of time. Despite contradictory research on fluid and electrolyte therapy.

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___are chemicals that help to combat infection by slowing down the multiplication of bacteria, fungi, or protists.

Answers

Antibiotics are substances that lessen the growth of bacteria, fungus, or protists, aiding in the fight against infection.

What is the purpose of antibacterial medication?

Some varieties of bacterial infections are treated or prevented with the help of antibiotics. Bacteria are either eliminated or prevented from multiplying and spreading by them. Viral infections cannot be treated with antibiotics. This covers the typical cold, the flu, the majority of coughs, and sore throats.

I need antibiotics when, exactly?

Only bacterial illnesses are treated with antibiotics. This comprises a variety of middle ear infections as well as sepsis, skin abscesses/impetigo, bacterial pneumonia, utis, and streptococcal pharyngitis.

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What is a narrative review

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Answer:

A narrative review is a type of literature review that provides a summary and synthesis of the existing research on a particular topic. It is based on the analysis of existing literature and does not involve any primary research.

Explanation:

A narrative review is the type first-year college students often learn as a general approach. Its purpose is to identify a few studies that describe a problem of interest. Narrative reviews have no predetermined research question or specified search strategy, only a topic of interest.Answer:

Explanation:

in a cdi program, asking questions of providers for clarification on documentation is done through a ____.

Answers

Clarification on documentation of provider in CDI program is done through Query.

The term "Clinical Documentation Improvement" (CDI) refers to the process of enhancing medical records to guarantee better patient outcomes, high-quality data, and proper compensation. Hospitals started CDI programs in reaction to the introduction of DRGs (Diagnosis Related Groups) as a method of payment. In order to improve hospital reimbursement and data gathering, the majority of physicians have encountered requests for supplemental paperwork to support additional or more precise ICD codes. In order to represent the integrity of the financial, clinical, and quality outcomes, a strong and effective CDI program helps to ensure that physician documentation appropriately depicts the patients' clinical picture.

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which medication would a nurse anticipate providing teaching about for an adolescent with dysmennorhea

Answers

The majority of teenagers who come with dysmenorrhea are suffering from primary dysmenorrhea, which response well to initial treatment with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs), hormone suppression, or both.

What treatment for dysmenorrhea works best?

The day before you anticipate the start of your period, start taking regular doses of ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin IB, and other brands) or naproxen sodium (Aleve) to ease the pain. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications are also offered with a prescription.

Does ibuprofen help with period cramps?

Period pain relievers are available over the counter. Many of the same over-the-counter painkillers that you use for migraines also work to ease the discomfort of menstrual cramps. Ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin IB), naproxen (Aleve), and even acetaminophen are some of these (Tylenol).

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the nurse is teaching a parenting class. which would the nurse suggest about managing the behavior of a young school age child

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Be consistent about established rules.

Because of a short attention span and distractibility, consistent limit setting is essential toward providing an environment that promotes concentration, prevents confusion, and minimizes conflicts. Questions should be answered, but the answers should not be judgmental. A list of expectations may be overwhelming at this age. Parents need to assist children with routine tasks; children this age may not be concerned with time frames.

Parental class:-Teach parents the basics of child development so they will have appropriate expectations of their children. Teach parents appropriate, non-aggressive discipline and ways to manage and correct misbehavior. Help parents recognize their strengths and use them when parenting.

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the nurse recognizes which condition as an integumentary manifestation of chronic renal failure? seizures asterixis tremors gray-bronze skin color

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The nurse will recognize gray-bronze skin color as an integumentary manifestation of chronic renal failure.

The major organ in the body that physically separates the internal environment from the outside environment, which it protects and maintains, is the integumentary system. The epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis, along with any accompanying glands, hair, and nails, make up the integumentary system.

Skin that is gray-bronze in color is an integumentary symptom of chronic renal failure. Other symptoms include rough, thinning hair, ecchymosis, purpura, thin, brittle nails, and dry, flaky skin. Neurologic signs of chronic renal failure include asterixis, tremors, and seizures.

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a patient has undergone a diagnostic peritoneal lavage. the nurse interprets which result as indicating a positive test?

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The nurse interprets feces as evidence of a positive test when a patient has had a diagnostic peritoneal lavage.

Following abdominal trauma, diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), an invasive emergency treatment, is used to identify hemoperitoneum and assess whether a laparotomy is necessary. After inserting a catheter into the peritoneal cavity, the intraperitoneal contents are aspirated, frequently after being diluted with crystalloid. Following abdominal trauma, diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), an invasive emergency treatment, is used to identify hemoperitoneum and assess whether a laparotomy is necessary. After inserting a catheter into the peritoneal cavity, the intraperitoneal contents are aspirated, frequently after being diluted with crystalloid. DPL has low specificity, detecting numerous lesions that cause bleeding but don't need to be surgically repaired,  which leads to  high negative laparotomy rate.

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a nurse is assessing a client with cushing's syndrome. which observation should the nurse report to the physician immediately?

Answers

Hypokalemia may result from Cushing's syndrome because it increases urine potassium loss by overproducing aldosterone.

What kind of syndromes are examples of?

For instance, women are more likely to experience inflammatory bowel disease, chronic fatigue syndrome, and polycystic ovary syndrome, which is a condition that only affects women. An assortment of symptoms or indicators characterizes a syndrome.

Is a syndrome a condition?

A syndrome is indeed a collection of symptoms and indicators that develop simultaneously and change over time. The signs and symptoms of a disorder are also a collection, but they also have recognized linked qualities that are thought to be connected.

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a nurse is caring for a severely depressed client who is barely functioning. the priority nursing goal for this client would be to:

Answers

Food and fluid intake may be compromised in a client who is severely depressed

A prolonged sense of sadness and loss of interest are symptoms of depression, a mood illness. It affects how you feel, think, and behave and can cause a number of emotional and physical issues. During a depression, the unemployment rate soars into double digits and demand for consumer goods plummets. It is also known as major depressive disorder or clinical depression. To make up for this, businesses typically reduce production or close plants, while investment activity decreases. The result is significant contractions in GDP and other economic activity indicators. Depression elevates cortisol levels in the hippocampus, which inhibits the growth of neurons in your brain. The shrinkage of brain circuits is closely connected to the reduction of the affected part's function.

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A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should anticipate administering:
a. insulin.
b. furosemide (Lasix).
c. potassium chloride.
d. vasopressin (Pitressin).

Answers

A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse must anticipate administering d. vasopressin (Pitressin).

What is diabetes?

Diabetes Mellitus (DM) occurs as a result of an unhealthy lifestyle which causes an accumulation of sugar levels in the blood and is above the normal threshold which is chronic and long-term.

Diabetes can cause complications including heart attacks and strokes, severe foot infections (causing gangrene, which can lead to amputation), and end-stage renal failure.

While Diabetes insipidus is a health problem characterized by frequent thirst and frequent urination with a larger volume, even up to 20 liters in one day.

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what diuretic is most likely to be prescribed for a client assess with lower extremity edema and bilateral lung crackles

Answers

Furosemide is the usual drug of choice. While diuresis

Furosemide belongs to a group of drug treatments called loop diuretics (additionally referred to as water drugs). Furosemide is given to assist deal with fluid retention (edema) and swelling this is caused by congestive heart failure, liver ailment, kidney disease, or different scientific conditions
Diuretics. Diuretics, which include furosemide (Lasix), decrease the pressure as a result of extra fluid in the heart and lungs
Furosemide is given to help treat fluid retention (edema) and swelling this is resulting from congestive coronary heart failure, liver disease, kidney sickness, or different scientific situations. it really works by way of performing at the kidneys to increase the float of urine.

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Other Questions
TRUE/FALSE. virtual integration is the use of information technology and partnership concepts to allow two or more entities along a value chain to act as if they were a single economic entity. after the civil war two new ""frontiers"" of opportunity emerged in the united states. they were the initial clinical manifestations associated with acute spinal cord injury are all of the following except: dr. shaver has discovered that the students in her class always wait for direction and blame their mistakes on factors outside of their control. dr. shaver would be smart to use which of the following styles from path-goal theory? Angles EBI an BCJ are Corresponding angles. Use a transformation that takes angle EBI to Angle BCJ to PROVE that corresponding angles are congruent. What is your transformation that you used to Prove corresponding angles are congruent? I like ice cream, but it___ my favorite food suppose that everyone prefers to live in a society without poverty. further suppose that some private charities are successful in reducing poverty. people who do not contribute to the charities a. are most likely to be in favor of government-sponsored programs. b. receive no external benefit from private antipoverty programs. c. decrease the reliance of individuals on antipoverty programs. d. can free ride on the generosity of others. 11) Doug borrowed $1,000 from Patricia. He agreed to pay a 5% interest rate.Doug ended up paying $150 in interest to Patricia. How many years did Doug taketo repay the loan? 8. in a different study described in the same paper, Glanzer and Cunitz (1966) gave subjects three seconds between each word rather than one second (thus giving them more rehearsal time). What effect would this change have on the recency and primacy effects?a. It would make the recency effect disappear but would not influence the primacy effect.b.It would make the primacy effect disappear but would not influence the recency effect.c. It would increase the primacy effect but not influence the recency effect.d. It would not have a noticeable effect on memory for the words on the list. Evaluate the way that political, economic, OR social sectionalism was tied directly to arguments over slavery. true or false: o2 gas produced by photosynthesis occurring in tony will contain a majority of the 18o isotopes originally found in the labeled co2 gas. What is hyper mammary development? Which of the following congruence does not occur * A SSS B SAS C SSA D RHS? o owns a harley? harley-davidson motorcycles make up 14% of all the motorcycles registered in the united states. you plan to interview an srs of 500 motorcycle owners. how likely is your sample to contain 20% or more who own harleys? Excerpt taken from The Historic Rise of Old Hickory by Suzanne B. WilliamsFour major candidates ran in the 1824 election, all under the "Democratic-Republican" name. One of the candidates, Andrew Jackson, was already famous. In the 1780s, he earned the right to practice law and served in various offices of the state government, including senator. He earned the nickname "Old Hickory" for his toughness as a general during the War of 1812 and First Seminole War. Jackson supported slavery and "Indian removal." This earned him support from voters in southern and frontier states. The other three candidates were John Quincy Adams of Massachusetts, Henry Clay of Kentucky, and William Crawford of Georgia. U.S. presidents are elected through the Electoral College. The Founding Fathers worried that Americans were too spread out to learn enough about the candidates. Under the Electoral College, Americans cast their ballot for the popular vote, which chooses the electors for each state. The number of electoral votes each state equals the number of representatives and senators combined. The candidates must win an absolute majority of electoral votes to win the election.In 1824, Andrew Jackson won the popular vote, but he did not win it in each state. Jackson and Adams both won many electoral votes. Jackson won the most with 99. However, a candidate needs an absolute majority of electoral votes to win. In 1824, Jackson needed 131 to win. When there is not majority winner, the election goes to the House of Representatives. This has only happened twice in U.S. history.Even though he won the popular vote and many electoral votes, Andrew Jackson lost the presidency in 1824. John Quincy Adams was the Secretary of State at this time. Henry Clay was the Speaker of the House of Representatives. Henry Clay, receiving the least, was left out. However, as a leader in the House of Representatives, he had influence over the other members. Clay openly hated Jackson and there were rumors that Clay made a deal with Adams in exchange for his support. The House election declared John Quincy Adams president. Soon, he chose Henry Clay to fill the seat he left vacant, Secretary of State. Jackson was shocked and enraged. Although there was no inquiry of possible wrongdoing, Jackson accused Adams and Clay of making a "corrupt bargain."John Quincy Adams was a disappointment as president. Many of his goals created divisions like federal funds for internal improvement. Some states thought that taking federal funds would force them to follow certain rules. They felt this reduced their rights as independent states. Jackson took advantage of issues like this one to gather more support. More Jackson supporters found their way to seats in Congress. He was as a man of the people and said Adams could never understand the common mans concerns.John Quincy Adams ran against Andrew Jackson in the 1828 election. Personal attacks grew even more vicious, but Andrew Jackson appealed to many. He believed government was for the common man. He believed in strict reading of the law and limited internal improvements. He also believed in states rights. Andrew Jackson easily won the 1828 election, winning both the popular vote and a majority of electoral votes. Historians note the sectional nature of the voting. Support for Jackson was concentrated in South while Adams support was mostly in the North. Jackson was so popular because he brought changes to the government. He also wanted to make sure the government was responsible for its actions. Jackson pushed settlement into the frontier. He supported the Indian Removal act. He also defended the spread of slavery. Though his support was heavier in the South, he was determined to keep a unified nation. The rise and presidency of Old Hickory is memorable to Americans today. What was the "corrupt bargain" of the 1824 election? Split of the Democratic-Republican candidates Description by Andrew Jackson of the election outcome Smear campaign John Quincy Adams used to win Difference between the popular and electoral votes suppose fender produces 5,000 guitars per year. its average total cost is $90, and its fixed cost is $250,000. what is its variable cost? asuni hears her neighbor's burglar alarm go off in the middle of the night, but she doesn't call the police because she assumes that one of the other neighbors will do so. asuni's failure to call the police is the result of two software firms have developed an identical new software application. they are debating whether to give the new app away free and then sell add-ons or sell the application at $30 a copy. the payoff matrix is above and the payoffs are profits in millions of dollars. what is the nash equilibrium of the game? Drag the tiles to the boxes to form correct pairs.Dr. Jones schedules patient appointmentsin a way that allows her to take the time tolisten to her patients and make sure that theyfeel heard.Dr. Smith is always at the hospital on time,helps his coworkers, and stays aware ofadvancements to make sure he providesquality care.Dr. Martin develops an app that helps hisdepartment send reminders to patients aboutappointments, which saves the support staff's time.creativity empathy reliability which of the following statements is correct? a. a firm's financial risk can be minimized by diversification. b. the factors that affect a firm's business risk include industry characteristics and economic conditions, both of which are generally beyond the firm's control. c. the amount of debt in its capital structure can under no circumstances affect a company's ebit and business risk. d. a firm's business risk is determined solely by the financial characteristics of its industry. e. one of the benefits to a firm of being at or near its target capital structure is that this generally minimizes the risk of bankruptcy.