After receiving thrombolytic treatment for an ischemic stroke, the nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately if there is a rapid increase in blood pressure.
This is because thrombolytic therapy can increase the risk of bleeding, and elevated blood pressure can further increase this risk. Additionally, high blood pressure can exacerbate cerebral edema, which is a potential complication of ischemic stroke. Therefore, it is important to monitor the client's blood pressure frequently and to notify the healthcare provider if there is a sudden and significant increase in blood pressure.
Thrombolytic treatment, also known as thrombolysis, is a medical intervention that involves the use of medications to dissolve blood clots that are obstructing blood flow in the arteries.
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when putting away prescriptions that are ready for pick-up, what section of the pharmacy would mr. bronstein's celecoxib capsules be stored?
When putting away prescriptions that are ready for pick-up, In the will-call area of the pharmacy Mr. Bronstein's celecoxib capsules would be stored.
The pharmacy should be organized into four sections: over-the-counter (OTC) items, cosmetics, prescription pharmaceuticals, and pharmaceutical preparation. The pharmacy should acquire specific authorisation to store and distribute prohibited drugs, and other security standards, involving storage and dispensing, must be completed.
A Dispense Location is the physical area in a warehouse where dispensing takes place. The Dispensing Area is separated into smaller rooms known as Dispensing Booths, which serve as dedicated areas for dispensing operations. The dispensary service produces medication for in-patients, some out-patients, and hospital discharges. Pharmacists inspect all drugs and frequently consult with doctors or nurses to verify that they are safe and effective.
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the nqf provides a model for advancement of healthcare quality that could be used in healthcare organizations. what does the use of this model by the centers for medicare and medicaid services specificity link with adverse patient events for healthcare facilities?
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) have adopted a policy based on the NQF's "never events." The CMS will no longer pay for patient conditions or events that result from poor practice while patients are under the care of a health professional.
About CMSThe Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is a federal agency within the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) that administers the Medicare program and works with state governments to establish Medicaid, Children's Health Insurance Programs (CHIP). increase.
Health insurance portability standards. In addition to these programs, CMS also complies with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) Administrative Simplification Standards and Quality Standards for Long Term Care Facilities (more commonly referred to as Nursing Homes). and other responsibilities throughout the investigation and certification process. , Clinical Laboratory Quality Standards under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments, and oversight by HealthCare.gov. CMS was known as Health Care Financial Administration (HCFA) until 2001.
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in which stage is carbon dioxide released and you get rid of it by exhaling?
They expel carbon dioxide and inspire oxygen into our body, which is referred to as inhalation (called expiration, or exhalation). Respiration is the process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide. The citric acid cycle is the phase of cellular respiration that results in the release of carbon dioxide.
Glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain are the first three processes in aerobic cellular respiration. The process by which the cells of all living organisms break down the chemical component glucose with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water is known as cellular respiration. Every time you breathe in, oxygen enters your body, and every time you breathe out, carbon dioxide leaves. The process by which cells (both plants and animals) break down sugar when it is present in their mitochondria is known as cellular respiration.
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Which of these abbreviations indicate immediately
answer choices
I/O
Ad lib
Stat
Inj
I/O is the abbreviations that indicate immediately therefore the correct option is A.
I/ O stands for Input/ output and is used to indicate that data is being transferred between two sources. announcement Lib is an condensed for “ ad libitum ” which means to do commodity freely, as you wish. Stat is an condensation for “ incontinently ” and is used to indicate that commodity should be done right down.
is an condensation for “ injection ” and is used to indicate that an injection should be given. All of these abbreviations indicate that commodity should be done incontinently.
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how long does it take for cortisone injection to work?
The effectiveness and timing of cortisone injections might vary based on the ailment being treated and the patient's response, and they can take up to a week to start working.
Arthritis, bursitis, and tendinitis are just a few of the inflammatory disorders that are treated with cortisone injections, which are a synthetic form of the hormone cortisol. The effect of the injection is a reduction in localized pain and inflammation. While some people may find long-lasting relief from their symptoms after a single injection or other treatment, others could need numerous to receive long-lasting relief.
It's crucial to adhere to the doctor's care and monitoring recommendations after obtaining a cortisone injection.
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the manager of a nursing unit is having difficulty working with a new graduate nurse. the new graduate nurse is excited and full of ideas she wants to try. the manager decides to journal her feelings regarding the new nurse and her feelings. what is the nurse manager practicing in this situation?
The nurse manager practising in this situation is reflection where the manager decides to journal her feelings regarding the new nurse and her feelings.
Any sort of process of combating stress or burnout at work requires engaging in numerous self-care practices. Self-care is another technique to keep in mind that we are a person first, before an employee. Setting limits and placing yourself at the top of your list of priorities for care entail prioritizing your own health and wellness. Additionally, it promotes mental health protection. Setting your needs first during the workday can make you more focused, motivated, and productive. Manage your time well, take breaks, go for walks, and let others know it's acceptable sometimes for them to put their own needs first.
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a patient with nausea and vomiting is not able to tolerate oral medications. the patient has a fever, and the health care provider prescribes acetaminophen to be given rectally. the nurse understands that the medication may not be absorbed properly in a patient with which concurrent condition?
A patient who is suffering from nausea and vomiting is not able to tolerate any sort of oral medications and the healthcare provider prescribes acetaminophen. Constipation is the condition by which the nurse will understand that the medication may not be absorbed properly in a patient with which concurrent condition.
The incidence of constipation is high among patients who follow diet which lack fruits and vegetables.
Constipation is a medical condition in which the patient find it hard to empty the bowel as a result of hardened feces.
The condition can be alleviated by drinking much water and by eating fruits and vegetables.
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the nurse knows that the school-age child is in erikson's stage of industry versus inferiority. which best exemplifies a school-aged child working toward accomplishing this developmental task?
The nurse is aware that the school-age youngster is experiencing Erikson's stage of superiority vs industry. The finest example of a school-age person working to complete this developmental objective is a child who registers for after-school activities, the correct option is A
The nurse acting in the capacity of an educator must carefully take into account the characteristics of learners in relation to their stage of life development when planning, designing, implementing, and assessing an educational programme.
The establishment of an educational programme to fulfill the varied demands of the people is more challenging the more diverse the target audience. The three approaches to learning in childhood, young adulthood, middle adulthood, and elder adulthood are pedagogy, andragogy, and geragogy, respectively.
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The complete question is:
The nurse knows that a school-age child is in Erikson's stage of industry vs. inferiority. Which best exemplifies a school-aged working toward accomplishing this developmental task?
A. The child signs up for after-school activities.
B. The child is developing a conscience.
C. The child becomes aware of the opposite sex.
D. The child performs his bedtime preparations autonomously.
which medication would the nurse identify as one that can be prescribed for the elective termination of a pregnancy
Mifeprex would the nurse identify as one that can be prescribed for the elective termination of a pregnancy. So, the correct option is A.
What is Mifeprex?Mifeprex also called as mifepristone or RU-486 is defined as a drug that is used in combination with misoprostol to cause medical abortion during pregnancy and manage early miscarriage. The combination is 97% effective during the first 63 days of pregnancy which is also effective in the second trimester of pregnancy.
Mifeprex helps in stimulating the contractions of the uterus which can be used for elective termination of pregnancy.
Thus, Mifeprex would the nurse identify as one that can be prescribed for the elective termination of a pregnancy. So, the correct option is A.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
Which medication with the nurse identify as one that can be prescribed for the elective termination of a pregnancy?
a. Mifeprex
b. Raloxifene
c. Methylergonovine
d. Clomiphene
the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to a parent of an 8-year-old girl whose weight is 65 lb (29.5 kg) and height is 50.5 in (128.3 cm). which statement by the parent demonstrates the need for further teaching?
A nurse provides positive guidance to a parent of an 8-year-old girl who weighs 67 pounds and is 51 inches tall. Therefore, a statement from a parent that helps elaborate on breastfeeding is, "I should be concerned that my child is overweight based on my child's weight and height."
Very obese/overweight children tend to grow up to be very obese adults, which can lead to health problems such as type 2 diabetes, heart disease, and certain types of cancer. Children who reach this age tend to be healthier, better learners, and more confident. Encourage up to several hours of physical activity for 60 minutes each day. Stick to kid-sized portions. Offer healthy meals, drinks, and snacks. Spending less time looking at screens and more sleep are ways to lose weight.
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How did Broca and Wernicke determine the location of key language areas in the brain?
Both looked examined persons who had lesions in different parts of their brains and how it affected their capacity to communicate. Broca discovered that persons with left frontal hemisphere damage have difficulties speaking.
Wernicke's area, often known as Wernicke's speech region, is one of two areas of the cerebral cortex associated with speech; the other being Broca's area. In contrast to Broca's region, which is largely involved in language creation, it is involved in the understanding of written and spoken language. Wernicke's aphasia is caused by damage to the Wernicke's region.
Broca's area, sometimes known as the Broca area, is a region in the frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere of the brain, generally the left, that has activities related to speech production. Since Pierre Paul Broca discovered deficits in two cases, language processing has been related to Broca's region. They had lost their capacity to talk due to a brain damage to the posterior inferior frontal gyrus.
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after providing initial care, which actions must you implement?
The nurse should always use fresh gloves, protective eyewear, face shields, and masks when caring for a client who was treated initially. Keeping the initial care is important.
The doctor or nurse uses a suction bulb to gently remove mucus and other debris from the mouth, nose, and throat right after a healthy birth. The infant can then breathe on its own. The umbilical cord of the newborn is clamped using two devices side by side, and it is then severed between the clamps. The infant is thoroughly dried before being placed on the mother's belly with skin-to-skin contact or on a warm, sterile blanket. Not every delivery follows the same pattern. In order to spot any evident deformities or indications of discomfort, the doctor checks the infant. A thorough physical examination follows.
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what underlying conditions put people at higher risk of developing pulmonary hypertension? group of answer choices copd, lymphedema cad, congenital heart disease, exercising 30 minutes 3 times per week copd, congenital heart disease, pe avoiding alcohol and smoking
The underlying condition that puts people at higher risk of developing pulmonary hypertension is congenital heart disease.
Pulmonary hypertension is an increase in the mean pulmonary artery pressure (Pulmonary Arterial Pressure) greater than or equal to 25 mmHg at rest as assessed by the right heart catheterization procedure. Pulmonary hypertension is a condition in which the blood pressure in the arteries that supply the lungs becomes high.
In pulmonary hypertension, the increase in blood pressure results from changes in the cells lining the pulmonary arteries. These changes can cause the walls of the pulmonary arteries to become thicker and stiffer, as well as the formation of excess tissue.
One of the things that can lead to worsening life expectancy of patients with congenital heart disease is the emergence of complications of pulmonary hypertension.
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iridology is a technique where practitioners diagnose health problems by studying changes in the irises of a patient's eyes. which statement, if true, would suggest that iridology is a pseudoscience?
The statement that would suggest that iridology is a pseudoscience, the irises of people remain relatively unchanged throughout life, the correct option is (c).
Many medical pseudosciences continue to exist despite having no basis in reality or proof of their effectiveness. Ignatz Peczely, a Hungarian physician who initially published his theories in 1893, is solely responsible for the invention of the diagnostic method that includes iridology.
Iridology is the study of the patterns and hues of an individual's iris to ascertain details about their general health. Since the iris is divided into several zones, each of which represents a different component or organ of the human body, iridologists use iris charts to record their findings.
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The complete question is:
Iridology is a medical technique where practitioners diagnose health problems by studying changes in the irises of a patient's eyes. Which of the following statements is true, would suggest that iridology is a pseudoscience?
a. Doctors of standard medicine generally agree with the diagnoses of iridologists.
b. Patients going to both standard doctors and iridologists become measurably healthier.
c. The irises of people remain unchanged throughout life.
d. Statistically, patients going to iridologists are healthier than those who go to standard doctors.
e. Iridology is taught as an alternative medical diagnostic procedure in most medical schools.
the mother of a 12-year-old boy is talking with the school nurse about her son's clumsiness. she reports that he seems to fall a lot, his writing is horrible, and as much as he practices he can't play his guitar very well. how should the nurse respond to the mother?
The nurse should explain to the mother that her son's clumsiness, poor writing, and difficulty playing guitar may be signs of a learning disability or other developmental issue.
What is nurse?A nurse is a healthcare professional who provides medical care to patients in a variety of settings, including hospitals, clinics, long-term care facilities, and private homes. Nurses are typically responsible for assessing and monitoring patients’ health, administering medication, conducting physical exams, providing education and counseling, and performing other tasks to ensure the best care and health outcomes for patients. Nurses must also have excellent communication and interpersonal skills, as they often serve as a patient’s primary point of contact with the healthcare system.
She should suggest that the mother schedule an appointment with her son's doctor to get a more thorough assessment of his issues and determine if any accommodations or interventions could help him improve.
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the nurse has inserted a peripheral intravenous catheter into a client. what is the appropriate action when a blood return is not obtained?
Change the site of catheter insertion is the appropriate action when a blood return is not obtained.
If there is no blood return, the IV catheter is not properly inserted. The nurse will replace the location and remove the IV catheter. It is not safe to insert the catheter any farther, start infusion, or squeeze the IV tubing. A peripheral venous catheter is a kind of venous catheter. A peripheral venous catheter is a flexible, thin tube that is placed into a vein. It is often injected into the lower arm or the back of the hand.
A peripheral venous catheter, peripheral venous line, peripheral venous access catheter, or peripheral intravenous catheter is a catheter that is inserted into a peripheral vein to provide venous access for the administration of intravenous treatment such as pharmaceutical fluids. It is employed in the administration of intravenous fluids, blood transfusions, chemotherapy, and other medications.
The complete question is:
The nurse has inserted a peripheral intravenous catheter into a client. What is the appropriate action when a blood return is not obtained?
a) Change the site of catheter insertion.b) Begin infusing the IV fluid.c) Insert the IV catheter further.d) Pinch IV tubing to prohibit initial infusion.To learn more about Peripheral venous catheter, here
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Consider the following situations, and determine when simple stains should be used instead of Gram stain.
A. The unknown bacterial species is being characterized and identified.
B. Specimens are being examined in which the presence of multiple bacterial species is suspected.
C. The wound specimen is being examined.
D. A microbiologist is trying to determine if an organism has flagella
Simple stains should be used instead of Gram stains in case of A microbiologist is trying to determine if an organism has flagella.
Simple stain is a staining method in which the bacterial cell is stained with a positively charged dye in order to see the bacterial details. Gram stain is a staining method that uses two dyes to identify bacteria. Since it uses two dyes instead of one dye, the gram stain is a differential stain (not a simple stain).
Simple stain is best used when one wants to see the details, such as the shape of a bacteria. That is why determining whether an organism has flagella or not is best done using simple stain.
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during an annual visit of a 6-year-old boy, the nurse observes dental caries on two of the child's primary teeth. which response by the parents suggests more education is needed regarding the importance of primary teeth?
A rotting infant tooth that is not properly cared for by a professional may result in major and long-lasting issues with the developing permanent teeth.
This is why it is advised that parents take their kids to the dentist for frequent checkups so that any existing dental issues can be identified and treated quickly.
Parents must appreciate the importance of primary teeth and not view them as merely transient and shortly to be replaced.
When parents are aware of the value of the primary teeth, they may be more willing to refer their children to a pediatric dentist and supervise their oral hygiene routine.
If fluoride is present in the local water source, supplementation is not required.
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under the u.s. department of health and human services (hhs) and u.s. food and drug administration (fda) regulations, what is the institutional review board (irb) charged with? select all that apply. select all correct answers.
Under the HHS and FDA regulations, what is the Institutional Review Board (IRB) charged with:
Protect the rights and welfare of human subjects. Assure that researchers follow all applicable institutional policies and federal regulations related to research with human subjects. Review subject recruitment materials and strategies.Institutional Review Board, also known as Independent Ethic Committee, is a committee that applies research ethics by reviewing methods proposed for research to ensure that they are ethical. Their primary function is to review and monitor any biomedical research that involves human subjects. According to FDA regulations, IRB has the authority to approve, require modification, or disapprove research.
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why do action potentials often travel in only one direction?
Action potentials often travel in only one direction because of the refractory period.
The action potential is an electrical signal generated by cells in the body in response to a stimulus. It is created when the cell is depolarized and ions flow in and out of the cell, creating an electrical impulse that is transmitted along the cell membrane.
During the refractory period, the sodium channels are inactive and unable to open. This prevents the action potential from moving backward and ensures that it only travels in one direction. Additionally, the potassium channels are still open during the refractory period, which helps to repolarize the membrane and prepare it for the next action potential.
Overall, the refractory period is essential for ensuring that action potentials travel in only one direction and do not overlap with each other.
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21) when caring for a patient with a head injury, which of the following assessment information requires immediate action by the nurse? a. the pulse is 58 (bpm) and is irregular b. the client complains of a severe headache c. the blood pressure increases from 115/60 to 140/80mmhg. d. the client starts slurring their speech
The client complains of a severe headache : If a patient complains of a severe headache, the nurse should act immediately. Option B is correct.
Depending on the location of the brain damaged and the degree of the brain damage, individuals with severe brain damage may lose their ability to move finely, speak, see, hear, or taste. In addition, there might be temporary or long-term alterations in Many small or big blood arteries in the brain can be harmed by a traumatic brain injury. Blood clots, strokes, and other issues can result from this injury. headache. With traumatic brain damage, frequent headaches are extremely typical. Concussions, skull fractures, and lacerated scalps are among the common head wounds. Depending on the kind and extent of the brain injury, outcomes and treatments can differ significantly. There are two types of head wounds: closed and open. An injury to the closed head is one in which the skull is not broken.
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the nurse is performing a physical examination of an 11-year-old girl. what observations would be expected?
The nurse is performing a physical examination of an 11-year-old girl therefore the observations which would be expected is the child has grown 2.5 inches since last year which is therefore denoted as option B.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved in other to prevent complications.
Children who are at the stage of puberty usually have an increased growth due to the different changes which occurs in their body system and there are lots of hormones being released to attain this form of growth and development of the girl.
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The full question:
The nurse is performing a physical examination of an 11-year-old girl. what observations would be expected?
A)The child has not gained weight since last year.
B)The child has grown 2.5 inches since last year.
C)The child breathes abdominally.
D)The child's third molars are about to erupt.
which patient assessment data does the nurse recognize could contribute to an older adults risk of hyperthermia
The patient assessment data which the nurse recognize could contribute to an older adult's risk of hyperthermia is taking furosemide 40 mg daily. Option B is correct.
Hyperthermia, often known as overheating, is a condition in which a person's body temperature rises above normal owing to a failure of thermoregulation. The body generates or absorbs more heat than it releases. As excessive temperature rises, it becomes a medical emergency that requires prompt care to avoid disability or death. Every year, over 500,000 people die as a result of hyperthermia.
Furosemide is used to treat high blood pressure either alone or in conjunction with other drugs. Furosemide is used to treat edema (extra fluid stored in bodily tissues) caused by a variety of medical conditions, including heart, kidney, and liver disorders.
The complete question is:
Which patient assessment data does the nurse recognize could contribute to an older adult's risk of hyperthermia?
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the nurse is performing a physical assessment of a 10-year-old child. the nurse notes that 1 year ago the child weighed 80 lb (36.3 kg). which weight, if noted during this assessment, would alert the nurse to further assess the child for appropriate growth and development?
Nurse's assessment of children's weight with appropriate growth and development: From ages 6 to 12 years, weight gain is expected to be 7 pounds (3 to 3.5 kg) per year.
The development of children aged 6-12 years is stable or not as fast as in infancy and adolescence. That way, the child's weight and height gain at this age go slowly until they reach the ideal size.
The average child's weight will increase by 3-3.5 kilograms (kg) per year and the child's height will increase by about 6 centimeters (cm) per year at this age.
At the age of 6 years, children should have an ideal body weight in the range of 20 kg with a height of 115 cm. and at the age of 12 years ideally around 42 kg with a height of 152cm.
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How is receptor-mediated endocytosis different from phagocytosis?
combining all four measures of health yields a measure of just how healthy people are, which is called: a. disease/life ratio. b. global disease burden. c. life benefit. d. quality-adjusted life years.
The measure that combines all four measures of health, namely the presence or absence of disease, the length of life, the quality of life, and the level of disability, is called "quality-adjusted life years" (QALYs). Option D is correct.
QALY is a measure of disease burden that includes both the quality and the quantity of life lived. It is commonly used in health economics to evaluate the effectiveness of medical interventions, as it provides a way to compare the benefits of different treatments and health interventions. The QALY measure assigns a score to each year of life lived, based on the level of health and functional status experienced during that year, and then sums the scores across the entire lifespan of an individual.
The higher the QALY score, the better the health status of the individual, indicating a longer life lived with better quality of life. QALYs are often used to make decisions about resource allocation in healthcare, such as which interventions to fund or which patients to prioritize for treatment, by providing a way to compare the costs and benefits of different health interventions on a common scale.
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Choose the correct answer regarding utilization of triglycerides for energy.
Question 7 options:
A-Triclycerides must go through glycogenolysis to hydrolyze into glycogen and fatty acids
B- Beta oxidation is required in the mitochondria to transform the fatty acids to acetyl-CoA
C- The breakdown of fat is less efficient than CHO therefore fewer ATP are generated from fat catabolism for energy
D- Skeletal muscle is only able to utilize fat stored within the muscle to produce energy while all other body cells are able to utilize fat from adipose cells
Choose the correct answer regarding utilization of triglycerides for energy.
Question 7 options:
A-Triclycerides must go through glycogenolysis to hydrolyze into glycogen and fatty acids
B- Beta oxidation is required in the mitochondria to transform the fatty acids to acetyl-CoA
C- The breakdown of fat is less efficient than CHO therefore fewer ATP are generated from fat catabolism for energy
D- Skeletal muscle is only able to utilize fat stored within the muscle to produce energy while all other body cells are able to utilize fat from adipose cells
The correct option regarding utilization of triglycerides for energy are: Triglycerides must go through glycogenolysis to hydrolyze into glycogen and fatty acids. Thus, the correct options are A, B, C, and D.
What are triglycerides?A triglyceride is an ester derived compound from glycerol and three fatty acid molecules. Triglycerides are the main constituents of the body fat in humans and other vertebrates, as well as the vegetable fat.
Triglycerides must go through the glycogenolysis to hydrolyze into glycogen molecule and fatty acid molecules. Beta oxidation is required in the mitochondria to transform the fatty acid molecules to acetyl-CoA molecules. The breakdown of fat is less efficient than that of CHO therefore, fewer ATP molecules are generated from the fat catabolism for energy. Skeletal muscle is only able to utilize fat which is stored within the muscle to produce energy while all the other body cells are able to utilize fat from the adipose cells.
Therefore, the correct options are A, B, C, and D.
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you are on the scene of a 16-year-old patient in respiratory distress. the patient has a history of asthma. after placing the patient on oxygen and performing the primary and secondary assessments, you are confident that the patient is indeed having an asthma attack. how can you be sure your field diagnosis is accurate? question 1 options: a) think of all possible causes of respiratory distress and rule them in or out as potential diagnoses based on your clinical findings. b) ask your partner her opinion; if she also agrees that it is asthma, the diagnosis is correct c) constantly reassess the patient to make sure you are correct d) keep your emt textbook with you on the ambulance and review it to confirm your diagnosis
The answer to this question is (a) think of all possible causes of respiratory distress and rule them in or out as potential diagnoses based on your clinical findings.
Other causes of Respiratory Distress pneumonia or severe flu sepsisa severe chest injury accidentally inhaling vomit, smoke or toxic chemicals near drowning acute pancreatitis – a serious condition where the pancreas becomes inflamed over a short time an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion Asthma attack signs and symptoms include: Severe shortness of breath, chest tightness or pain, and coughing or wheezing Low peak expiratory flow (PEF) readings if you use a peak flow meter Symptoms that fail to respond to the use of a quick-acting (rescue) inhaler
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1.the nurse is teaching the student nurse the physiology involved in pain transmission. which statements accurately describe a physiologic event in the nervous system related to pain transmission? select all that apply.
Nurses teach nursing students the physiology associated with pain transmission. An apt statement to describe pain transmission is that when nociceptors are activated by a noxious stimulus, the stimulus is converted into electrical impulses that are transmitted to the spinal cord and brain, causing myelinated A-delta fibers to travel at very high speeds. They are large fibers that carry impulses. small myelinated C-fibers transmit impulses slowly.
When nociceptors are activated by a noxious stimulus, the stimulus is converted into electrical impulses that travel through peripheral nerves to the spinal cord and brain. Myelinated A-delta fibers are large fibers that transmit impulses very quickly. Small myelinated C-fibers transmit impulses slowly. Upon reaching the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, the nerve fibers divide and cross to the opposite side, ascending to the thalamus.
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The full question is
The nurse is teaching the student nurse the physiology involved in pain transmission. Which statements accurately describes a physiologic event in the nervous system related to pain transmission? Select all that apply.
A)Thermal stimulation may involve the release of mediators, such as histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, or bradykinin.
B)When nociceptors are activated by noxious stimuli, the stimuli are converted to electrical impulses that are relayed to the spinal cord and brain.
C)Myelinated A-delta fibers are large fibers that conduct the impulse at very rapid rates; unmyelinated small C fibers transmit the impulse slowly.
D)Once in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, the nerve fibers divide and then cross to the opposite side and rise upward to the thalamus.
E)The point at which the person first feels the highest intensity of the painful stimulus is termed the pain threshold.
F)Peripheral sensitization allows the nerve fibers to react to a stimulus that is of lower intensity than would be needed to cause pain.
a mother asks the pediatric nurse about what she should begin to feed her 3 month old infant. the correct response is: group of answer choices fruits and vegetables are good sources of iron rice cereal is the first solid introduced that is least allergenic of the cereals egg whites are the least allergenic food to be introduced into the baby's diet fruits should be introduced before vegetables
For a baby's nutritional needs, breast milk is the greatest option. However, in some circumstances, nursing (or exclusive breastfeeding) isn't a viable alternative. Generally speaking, whatever works for your family is what's greatest for the wellbeing of your infant. So long as you supplement if necessary, your child will be fine and healthy, especially if it means less stress for you.
A supplemental nursing system may be effective for babies who require it. In order to supply pumped milk or formula to a baby who is breastfeeding, women place a tiny tube by their nipple in this situation. Start substituting bottle feeds for nursing if you are discontinuing a breastfeeding session or weaning your baby from breastfeeding entirely. In order to lessen painful engorgement, pump as you do this. Breasts that are engorged with milk or other fluids become uncomfortable, puffy, heated, or rigid. This can result in blocked duct issues (when the ducts won't drain well or at all) or mastitis, a disorder that affects the breasts. Your milk production will decline as you cut back on breastfeeding sessions. Your body will adjust to make exactly the right amount of milk to accommodate your new feeding schedule.
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