Keep your right leg elevated above heart level. instruction should the nurse provide in client cast care .
Casts are often designed to keep you dry. An infection or skin irritability may result from a moist cast. Casts made of fiberglass or plaster with standard padding are not waterproof. Cover your child's cast with two layers of plastic and secure it with a rubber band or piece of duct tape to keep it dry during baths or showers.
How do you take care of a plaster cast?
Keep the plaster cast clean and dry at all times.The cast usually dries completely in 48 hours. Allow it to dry naturally and keep it away from direct heat.Avoid bumping or hitting the cast.Do not paint the cast. This will close the pores of the plaster. Having friends decorate the cast using markers is OK.Learn more about cast care to visit this link
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which route should the nurse clarify with the healthcare provider prior to administering a drug with a high first-pass effect?
A high first-pass effect drug should only be administered orally, and the nurse should check this with the doctor before doing so.
What is defined as healthcare?The word "health care" refers to the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of illness, notably by trained and licensed professionals, in order to maintain and restore health (as in medicine, dentistry, clinical psychology, and public health). Health care, sometimes called healthcare, strives to enhance people's total well-being by preventing, detecting, treating, mitigating, or curing disease, illness, injury, and other physical and mental impairments in humans. Specialists in medicine and related professions provide health treatment.
What is the purpose and importance of healthcare?Improving health is the primary objective of healthcare in order to raise quality of life. Commercial firms focus on making a profit in order to keep their value and remain operational. Health care must put social profit generation first if it is to fulfil its responsibility to society. High-quality healthcare helps with the prevention of disease and the improvement of life quality.
Briefing:The first-pass effect occurs when hepatic metabolism decreases a drug's bioavailability. A portion of the active compounds in oral medications are eliminated in the liver during the first-pass effect process, which occurs before the medicine reaches the site of action. Oral drugs go through first-pass effect after being digested through the GI tract and absorbed by the small intestines.
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a patient who has severe alzheimer's disease (ad) is being admitted to the hospital for surgery. which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care?
Maintain a consistent daily routine for the patient's care.
Alzheimer's disease is a progressive neurologic disorder that causes brain cells to die and the brain to shrink (atrophy). Alzheimer's disease is the most common cause of dementia, which is defined as a progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and social skills that impairs a person's ability to function independently.
Providing a consistent routine will reduce the patient's anxiety and confusion. Reorientation to time and place will not help the patient with severe Alzheimer's disease, and the patient will be unable to read. The patient with severe Alzheimer's disease will most likely be unable to recall past events.
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a group of diverse medical and health care systems, practices, and products that are not generally considered part of conventional medicine
The group of medical care system practices is known as Complementary and Alternative Medicine.
Taiji, massage, acupuncture, and green tea consumption are examples of complementary and alternative medicine procedures. Integrative medicine is a method of treating patients that blends traditional medical treatment with CAM procedures that have been scientifically proven to be secure and efficient. The patient's preferences are frequently emphasized, and this method makes an effort to address the mental, physical, and spiritual facets of wellness. People with cancer may turn to complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) to help them deal with the side effects of cancer treatments, such as nausea, pain, and fatigue, to comfort themselves, to ease their concerns about cancer treatment and related stress, to feel like they are contributing to their own care, or to try to treat or cure their cancer.
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TRUE/FALSE. choose the abbreviation that stands for an imaging procedure in which contrast medium is injected via a catheter tube through the mouth, esophagus, stomach, duodenum, and then into the bile ducts.
The ERCP procedure, also known as endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography, is used to identify and address issues with the pancreas, liver, gallbladder, and bile ducts. It combines the use of an endoscope—a long, flexible, lighted tube—with X-ray technology.
What are ERCP and Mrcp?
Bile and pancreatic duct issues are diagnosed with ERCP and MRCP. Although ERCP is more intrusive, some disorders can be treated with it. If you can't receive ERCP, MRCP is the best option because it's noninvasive. Your doctor can determine which test is best for you.
How is ERCP carried out?
The physician utilizes an endoscope, a unique flexible tube with a video camera, during an ERCP. The tube is inserted via the child's mouth and into the upper digestive tract while the child is asleep. The doctor can spot stones, abnormal constriction, or obstructions in the ducts when contrast dye is used with X-rays.
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a client on hispice care is receiving palliative treatment. which is the goal of palliative care for this client
For these patients, palliative care aims to improve their health.
Patients and their families who are dealing with obstacles brought on by life-threatening illnesses, whether they be medical, psychological, social, or spiritual, benefit from palliative care. The standard of living for caretakers also rises.
In general, those who are nearing death require assistance with four different types of demands: physical comfort, emotional and mental needs, religious needs, and practical duties.
Palliative care helps you feel as at ease as possible if you have a disease that cannot be treated by controlling the pain as well as other uncomfortable symptoms. It also includes assistance for you as well as your family or caregivers on a psychological, social, & spiritual level.
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while completing secondary assessment of unresponsive. diabetes and hypotension how often should repeat vitals
Every 5 minutes, you should retest the patient's vital signs as you finish the secondary assessment of an unresponsive patient with a history of diabetes and hypotension.
The secondary assessment is a quick and thorough examination of a child who has been hurt from head to toe to detect all wounds or of a patient who is critically ill when the exact cause of signs and symptoms is unknown. The focused history and the focused physical evaluation, both based on the presenting signs and symptoms, are the two main parts of the secondary assessment. The goal of the secondary survey is to identify injuries and metabolic abnormalities by taking a thorough medical history, conducting a full physical examination from head to toe, reviewing all vital signs, and ordering the necessary lab and imaging tests.
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Julia is a gymnast who has had knee pain for the last two weeks. After examination it is determined that she has prepatellar bursitis of the left knee. This would be reported with code ________ .a. M70.72b. M70.42c. M70.40d. M70.52
The code she would be reported with is (b) M70.42
Bursae are small, jelly-like sacs which are positioned for the duration of the frame, together with around the shoulder, elbow, hip, knee, and heel. They incorporate a small quantity of fluid, and are placed between bones and smooth tissues, performing as cushions to help reduce friction.
Prepatellar bursitis is an infection of the bursa within the front of the kneecap (patella). It takes place while the bursa becomes iinflammatio and produces an excessive amount of fluid, which causes it to swell and positioned pressure on the adjacent parts of the knee.
an immediate fall on the patella, an acute trauma, repeated blows or friction at the knee might also purpose prepatellar bursitis. other reasons encompass infections or low-grade inflammatory situations, together with gout, syphilis, tuberculosis or rheumatoid arthritis
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30 . According to the Neonatal Resuscitation Program 8th Edition
Ideally, how quickly should the intubation procedure be completed?
A. 30 seconds
B. 40 seconds
C. 60 seconds
D. 90 seconds
C. The intubation procedure be completed within 60 seconds.
The Neonatal Resuscitation Program 8th Edition recommends that intubation should be completed within 60 seconds. This is because intubation is a critical step in resuscitating an infant, and a delay of more than 60 seconds may reduce the chances of a successful outcome. Additionally, a delay in intubation may affect the infant's oxygenation and ventilation status. Therefore, it is important that the intubation procedure is completed as quickly as possible.
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which type of nutritional therapy may be required for a patient with acute kidney injury who is scheduled to undergo dialysis?
A patient with an acute kidney damage might need to receive some sort of nutritional therapy. Dialysis is indicated for a patient suffering from acute kidney damage (AKI).
How does it feel to have kidney pain?The following are a few of the most typical signs of kidney pain: a dull, continuous pain in your back. suffering from side, ribcage, or abdominal pain. pain that is intense or acute and comes in waves.
How do you know if your kidneys require attention?Renal illness may be indicated by the requirement to pee more frequently, particularly at night. Disruption to the kidney filter may cause an increase in the urge to urinate. This could sporadically be a sign of a urinary infection.
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a nurse who wants to promote improved health for obese children might engage in which tertiary prevention measure?
The nurse would organize lifestyle modification initiatives through neighborhood youth organizations as the best tertiary preventative approach.
Activities designed to lessen disease process consequences are included in tertiary prevention. Only programs aimed at improving one's lifestyle are intended to prevent issues in children who are already obese. Screening programs can include assessing BMI and dietary intake (secondary prevention). There are no kids involved in offering education sessions to expecting parents who are overweight. Implemented in symptomatic patients, secondary prevention seeks to lessen the severity of the illness as well as any subsequent complications. Tertiary prevention aims to lessen the effects of the disease once it has been established in a person, whereas secondary prevention aims to prevent the onset of illness.
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a client with alzheimer disease becomes agitated while the nurse is attempting to take vital signs. what action by the nurse is most appropriate?
If a client with Alzheimer's disease becomes agitated while the nurse is attempting to take vital signs, the action by the nurse that is most appropriate is to distract the client with a familiar object or music.
An Alzheimer's patient could experience anxiety or agitation. He or she might get antsy, needing to pace or move about, or upset when in certain settings or paying attention to a certain aspect. Numerous physical disorders, drug interactions, and situations that impair one's capacity to think can all contribute to anxiety and agitation.
In the end, a person with dementia is biologically losing their capacity to deal with new knowledge and stimuli. It is a direct consequence of the illness.
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a pregnant client asks the prenatal clinic nurse what the fetal period of development means. which is correct information about the fetal period?
Longest period of fetal development is the correct information about the fetal period that the nurse should give the pregnant lady.
Quickening, a term used to describe the patient's feeling of fetal movement, is a relatively late indication of pregnancy that typically appears between weeks 19 and 21 in nulliparous women and between weeks 17 and 19 in multiparous women. Fertilization triggers the pre-embryonic stage, which lasts for two weeks.
This stage of development sees the implantation and division of cells. The fetal stage lasts until delivery and begins at the beginning of the ninth week following conception. Prenatal development occurs in three stages: germinal, embryonic, and fetal. Remember that this is not the same as a pregnancy's three trimesters.
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the physicians' health study, a large medical experiment involving 22,000 male physicians, attempted to determine whether aspirin could help prevent heart attacks. in this study, one group of about 11,000 physicians took an aspirin every other day, while a control group took a placebo. after several years, it was determined that the physicians in the group that took aspirin had significantly fewer heart attacks than the physicians in the control group. which of the following statements explains why it would not be appropriate to say that everyone should take an aspirin every other day?
It would not be appropriate to say that everyone should take an aspirin every other day because the results of the Physicians' Health Study only applied to male physicians.
Also may not be applicable to other groups of people. Furthermore, the study did not address the potential side effects of taking an aspirin every other day. Aspirin is an over-the-counter drug that is used to treat pain, fever, and inflammation. It is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that works by reducing hormones that cause inflammation and pain in the body. Aspirin also prevents the formation of blood clots that can lead to heart attack and stroke. Aspirin is often used to prevent heart attack and stroke in those with a high risk of such events. It can also be used in the treatment of certain types of cancer, rheumatoid arthritis, and polycystic ovary syndrome. Aspirin should be taken as directed by a doctor or pharmacist, as it can cause serious side effects if taken in large doses or for a prolonged period of time.
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the nurse is caring for a client prescribed a tocolytic agent. the nurse takes immediate action based on what assessment finding?
The client is receiving tocolytic therapy from the nurse. Based on the auscultation's detection of bilateral crackles, the nurse acts right away.
Labor contractions are stopped by tocolytics. Pulmonary edema is the side effect that occurs most frequently after using these medications. When there are bilateral crackles on lung auscultation, there is pulmonary edema and immediate treatment is needed. Although it should be reported, a blood glucose level of 170 mg/dL (9.4 mmol/L) is not life-threatening but is elevated.
With bounding arterial pulsations, tachycardia and increased cardiac output are possible side effects of tocolytics. A peripheral pulse strength of +2 denotes a level that is marginally below average but not immediately concerning.
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why do you think devoloping nations in africa or asia might report a high number of feaths from diseases
In 2002, Africa was home to about 50% of all infectious disease-related fatalities and DALYs. Two groups of countries are defined by economies globally.
What are the four primary diseases?Infectious diseases, deficient diseases, hereditary diseases (covering both genetic disorders and quasi inheritable diseases), and physiological illnesses are the four primary categories of disease. An alphabetical list of prevalent chronic and infectious illnesses and conditions that have an impact on Illinois citizens' daily life.
Your body should it alert you to a heart attack?Yes. Pain in the chest. It may feel like a painful pressure, squeezing, fullness, or uncomfortable pressure. discomfort in various upper body regions respiration difficulty. This can happen whether or not your chest hurts. Other indications might include chilly sweats and nausea.
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A nurse is assessing a school-age child who has heart failure and is taking furosemide.Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication iseffective?
a. An increase in venous pressure
b. a decrease in peripheral edema
c. a decrease in cardiac output
d. an increase in potassium levels
b. a decrease in peripheral edema is the correct answer
it could deal with fluid retention (edema) and swelling caused by congestive heart failure, liver ailment, kidney disease, and different medical conditions.
Furosemide: medication to deal with excessive blood stress and oedema
critical side outcomes:-
intense stomach ache that may attain through on your returned – this can be a sign of an infected pancreas (pancreatitis) extreme pain for your facet or blood for your urine – these might be symptoms of inflamed kidneys. ringing for your ears (tinnitus) or loss of hearing
reveal daily weight, intake and output ratios, quantity and vicinity of edema, lung sounds, skin turgor, and mucous membranes. Notify health care professional if thirst, dry mouth, lethargy, weak spot, hypotension, or oliguria happens. screen BP and pulse before and at some stage in administration.
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how is it possible for two athletes to have the same height, weight, and bmi but different body composition?
Due to the fact that a variable body composition is always conceivable, two athletes who share the same height, weight, and BMI may have distinct body compositions. Body fat proportion is excluded from BMI.
A girl and a male athlete make for the most straightforward comparison. Their height, weight, and BMI are the same, but a female breast, often known as fat, skews the comparison. When comparing men to men, the differences in body compositions will be determined by body fat percentage in relation to muscle. Muscle weighs more than fat does. It serves as an absurd measure of physical fitness. I've seen expert body builders who, despite having less than 3% body fat, had their BMI classify them as clinically obese.
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An injection contains 5 million international units (MIU) of interferon alpha-n3 (ALFERON N) proteins per milliliter. The recommended dose is 0.05 mL. The literature states that the activity of interferon alpha-n3 is approximately equal to 2.6 × 108 international units/mg of protein.
Calculate (a) the number of international units and
(b) the micrograms of interferon alfa-n3 proteins administered per dose.
An injection contains 5 million international units (MIU) of interferon alpha-n3 (ALFERON N) proteins per milliliter, so the calculated values are:
(a) 250000 IU present in 0.05ml ordered dose.
(b) 890.3 mg is present in 0.05 ml ordered dose.
What is interferon alpha-n3?interferon alpha-n3 is a purified form of human interferon used to stimulate innate antiviral response to treat genital warts caused by human papilloma virus.
Given that,
Available dose ( Injection) = 5MIU / ml
(interferon alpha-n3 known as ALFERON N proteins per milliliter. )
Ordered dose = 0.05 ml
Activity of Interferon Alpha n3 = 2.6 ×108 IU /mg of protein.
a)
Given that,
5 million IU = 1 ml
5× 0.05 × 10⁶ IU = 0.05 ml
25 × 10⁴ IU = 0.05 ml
Hence, 250000 IU present in 0.05ml ordered dose
b)
Given that,
5 × 10⁶ IU = 1 ml
1 IU = 1/ (5 × 10⁶) ml
and
Given that,
2.6 ×10⁸ IU = 1 mg
or, (2.6 ×10⁸)/( 5 × 10⁶ ) ml = 1 mg
or, 1 ml = (5 × 10⁶)/(2.6 ×10⁸) mg
or, 1 ml = 17806 mg
Now,
0.05 ml = 17806 × 0.05 mg
0.05ml = 890.3 mg
Hence, 890.3 mg is present in 0.05 ml ordered dose.
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children feel pain just as much as adults do. what is the major principle in pain management in the pediatric population?
Treat each child individually and match the analgesic to the cause and severity of the pain is the major principle in pain management in the pediatric population.
Pediatric pain management generally follows the guiding philosophy of treating each child's pain as an individual and matching the analgesic medication with the source and intensity of the pain. Thus, children experience pain in a similar way as adults. A typical method for treating acute pain in children is patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with intravenous opioids [29]. Patients are able to take tiny dosages of opioids on their own. The management of pain using a combination of non-opioids and opioids is quite effective. Medicines are administered orally (oral and IV) (a small tube in the vein).
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a client with a pulmonary embolism is being treated with a heparin infusion. what diagnostic finding suggests to the nurse that treatment is effective?
The diagnostic finding suggests to the nurse that treatment with a heparin infusion is effective if the patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value.
A blood clot called a pulmonary embolism prevents blood from flowing through a lung artery. The blood clot typically originates in a deep leg vein and goes to the lung. The clot very rarely develops in a vein in another area of the body. Deep vein thrombosis is the medical term for when a blood clot develops in one or more of the body's deep veins (DVT).
One of many blood coagulation tests is the aPTT. It gauges how long it takes for a blood clot to develop. Blood proteins known as clotting factors normally assemble in a specific order to create blood clots and rapidly halt bleeding when one of your blood arteries is injured.
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Where did AIDS/HIV originate? How did it move to humans?
HIV infection in humans was caused by a type of chimpanzees in Central Africa.
What is HIV/AIDS?HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is an immune-deficiency virus. (A person's immune system fights infections and diseases in the body.) HIV weakens a person's immune system over time, making it difficult to fight diseases. AIDS is caused by HIV (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome).HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, had jumped from chimps to humans in Africa sometime in the early twentieth century. The earliest known case of HIV-1 infection in human blood is from a sample taken in 1959 from a man who died in Kinshasa, then in Belgian Congo.It can be passed from mother to child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding, or through sexual contact, illicit injection drug use or needle sharing, contact with infected blood, or from mother to child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding.To learn more about HIV refer to :
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which hospital publication includes a list of your rights to know whether a prescribed medical treatment is experimental?
The patient's bill of rights includes a list of your rights to know whether a prescribed medical treatment is experimental.
The goal of evidence-based medicine (EBM) is for medical practitioners to "conscientiously, explicitly, and judiciously apply current best evidence" in their routine care. Evidence-based medicine evaluates the best data on certain health subjects by conducting systematic reviews of the medical literature (evidence synthesis).
Medical professionals then apply the evidence to specific instances by choosing the best course of action based on the latest research, patient preferences, and unique patient features (knowledge translation). Practitioners of evidence-based medicine are dedicated to the ongoing professional and patient communities' education and engage in lifelong learning.
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from the choices below, which is the only permissible option if you need to electronically save the names, ssns and/or other data regarding your patients?
Keep it on a VA system in a file that only those authorized to read the information may access.
This set's terms (9) The nurse has a professional obligation to participate in initiatives that promote a patient-centered safety culture.
If you suffered a needlestick injury or were exposed to a patient's blood or other bodily fluids while working, take the following measures right away: Soap and water should be used to clean needlesticks and wounds. Splashes to the nose, mouth, or skin should be flushed with water.
VA disability is not generally for life. When you begin receiving benefits, you understand that the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) can and will review your situation on a regular basis to determine whether you should continue receiving benefits at the same level.
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Full Question ;
From the choices below, which is the only permissible option if you need to electronically save the names, ssns, va, and/or other data regarding your patients?
blueprint version 2.0 updates public health surveillance activities for the 21st century. which methods exemplify these activities?
surveillance is being transformed by 3 influences: public health information and preparedness as national security issues; new information technologies; and health care reform.
The purpose of surveillance is to provide information for action, and as such the design of a surveillance system should be shaped by the information requirements (surveillance system outputs) of those responsible for taking the control and prevention action that is to be informed by the system.Public health surveillance provides and interprets data to facilitate the prevention and control of disease. To achieve this purpose, surveillance for a disease or other health problem should have clear objectives.
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a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus asks why they need ketone testing when the disease affects their blood glucose levels. how should the nurse respond?
Your risk of developing diabetes ketoacidosis can be indicated by high levels of ketones in your blood or urine. It's vital to be aware of your ketone level because this could be fatal.
The way your body converts food into energy is affected by diabetes, a chronic (long-lasting) health disease. Your body converts the majority of the food you eat into sugar (glucose), which is then released into your circulation. Your pancreas is notified by an increase in blood sugar to release insulin. When blood glucose, commonly referred to as blood sugar, is excessively high, it can lead to diabetes. Your main source of energy, blood glucose, is obtained from the food you eat. The pancreas produces the hormone insulin, which facilitates the uptake of glucose from food into your cells for use as fuel. Your body occasionally produces little to no insulin or uses it poorly. Consequently, glucose doesn't get to your cells and remains in your blood.
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Several clinical manifestations are associated with a tumor of the head of the pancreas. Choose all that apply.
Clay-colored stools
Dark urine
Jaundice
Sixty to eighty percent of pancreatic tumors occur in the head of the pancreas. Tumors in this region obstruct the common bile duct. The obstructed flow of bile produces jaundice, clay-colored stools, and dark urine. Malabsorption of nutrients and fat-soluble vitamins may result if the tumor obstructs the entry of bile to the gastrointestinal tract. Abdominal discomfort or pain and pruritus may be noted, along with anorexia, weight loss, and malaise. If these signs and symptoms are present, cancer of the head of the pancreas is suspected.
Several clinical manifestations are associated with a tumor of the head of the pancreas all apply are Clay-colored stools ,Dark urine ,Jaundice
Sixty to eighty percent of pancreatic tumors occur in the head of the pancreas. Tumors in this region obstruct the common bile duct. The obstructed flow of bile produces jaundice, clay-colored stools, and dark urine.
Malabsorption of nutrients and fat-soluble vitamins may result if the tumor obstructs the entry of bile to the gastrointestinal tract. Abdominal discomfort or pain and pruritus may be noted, along with anorexia, weight loss, and malaise. If these signs and symptoms are present, cancer of the head of the pancreas is suspected.
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which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client with seizures who is going home with a prescription for gabapentin?
The correct option (b) Notify the health care provider (HCP) if vision changes occur.
Gabapentin may impair vision. Changes in vision, concentration, or coordination should be reported to the HCP. Gabapentin should not be stopped abruptly because of the potential for status epilepticus; this is a medication that must be tapered off. Gabapentin is to be stored at room temperature and out of direct light. It should not be taken with antacids.
What is health care provider (HCP) ?
An organization or individual certified to offer medical diagnostic and treatment services, such as medicine, surgery, and medical gadgets, is known as a health care provider. Health insurance companies frequently compensate healthcare professionals for the services they deliver.
A health care provider is any "person or organization who supplies, bills, or gets paid for health care in the ordinary course of business," according to the Department of Health and Human Services in the United States.
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Full Question: Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client with seizures who is going home with a prescription for gabapentin?
Take all the medication until it is gone.
Notify the health care provider (HCP) if vision changes occur.
Store gabapentin in the refrigerator.
Take gabapentin with an antacid to protect against ulcers.
true or false? the person experiencing abdominal pain should be given small amounts of milk to coat the stomach.
False, Although milk temporarily covers the stomach's lining, buffering the acid and momentarily improving your mood, the alleviation may only persist for twenty minutes or so.
While milk may have many advantages, one of them isn't calming an upset stomach. Milk may be beneficial if too much acid is what is irritating the esophagus or stomach. This is so that milk may cover the lining of your stomach and buffer the acid there. Additionally, milk helps ease the burning feeling that comes with hot meals like chile.
When consuming dairy, those who are lactose intolerant have digestive issues, which can be detrimental to their life satisfaction. These signs include bloating, diarrhea, and cramping in the abdomen.
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1. Which of the following implies preservation of the basic outline of the involved cell for a span of at least some days?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
E. Gangrenous necrosis
2. In an experiment, bacteria are introduced into a perfused tissue preparation. Leukocytes leave the vasculature and migrate to the site of bacterial inoculation. The movement of these leukocytes is most likely to be mediated by which of the following substances?
A. Bradykinin B. Chemokines C. Complement C3a
D. Histamine E. Prostaglandins
3. 20-year-old woman breastfeeds her infant. On examination, her breasts are slightly increased in size. Milk can be expressed from both nipples. Which of the following processes that occurred in her breasts during pregnancy enables her to breastfeed the infant?
A. Ductal metaplasia
B. Epithelial dysplasia
C. Intracellular lipid deposition
D. Stromal hypertrophy
E. Lobular hyperplasia
4. Which lymphoma is highly associated with translocations involving the MYC gene on chromosome 8?
A. Burkitt lymphoma
B. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
C. Mantle cell lymphoma
D. Follicular lymphoma
E. Small lymphocytic lymphoma
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Chemokines
E. Lobular hyperplasia
A. Burkitt lymphoma
neurological symptoms, including peripheral neuropathy, are associated with a deficiency of which of the following?
Neurological symptoms and peripheral neuropathy, associated with deficiency of vitamin B6
What is peripheral neuropathy?Peripheral neuropathy is a disease resulting from damage to the peripheral nervous system. This damage causes disruption of the function of the peripheral nerves in sending signals from the organs to the brain or vice versa.
The peripheral nervous system functions to transmit physical sensations from all organs of the body to the brain. Peripheral nerves also transmit commands from the brain to carry out certain functions, such as moving the body, sweating, increasing heart rate, and regulating blood pressure.
Peripheral neuropathy can be prevented by living a healthy lifestyle, such as: Eating nutrient-rich foods, such as fruit, vegetables, and sources of lean protein, and meeting the needs of vitamins B1, vitamin B 6, and vitamin B12.
This question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
Neurological symptoms, including peripheral neuropathy, are associated with a deficiency of which of the following?
Vitamin B6Vitamin CVitamin DLearn more about neurological symptoms here :
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