Never tug on the halo traction in any way. The traction may be harmed or loosened by it. To avoid infection, pins are cared for.
How should the nurse position the client who has just had a craniotomy and the client's intracranial pressure is high and is becoming more lethargic?Never tug on the halo traction in any way. The traction may be harmed or loosened by it. To avoid infection, pins are cared for. Use a sterile q-tip applicator to clean around pins at least twice each day. To prevent contamination from one pin site to another, use a fresh, sterile q-tip for every pin site. Except when prescribed, avoid using ointments or antiseptics.
The client who has elevated intracranial pressure should have their head held in a neutral midline posture. The client's neck should not be bent or extended, nor should the client's head be turned side to side by the nurse. The angle of the bed's head should be between 30 and 45 degrees.
When necessary, administer the prescribed analgesic.evaluation of the state of the nervous system.Make sure the halo vest fits properly.Wash the customer's back and chest.appraisal of the respiratory system.Check for redness at pin locations.For patients who have had supratentorial surgery, the head of the bed should be elevated by 30 degrees to encourage venous drainage from the head. The client is positioned to prevent excessive hip flexion or neck flexion, and the midline neutral position of the head is preserved.
The complete question is:
A client is being discharged with halo traction. What should the nurse teach about home care of this traction?
You answered this question Correctly
1. Showering is permitted.
2. Apply baby powder under the halo vest to prevent irritation.
3. Never pull on any part of the halo traction.
4. Clean around pins at least twice a day using sterile technique.
5. Driving is allowed after discharge.
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the nurse is reinforcing instructions regarding the prevention of lyme disease to a group of teenagers going on a hike in a wooded area. which points would the nurse include in the session? select all that apply.
Insert socks into the pant legs. Hiking requires closed-toe footwear. Use DEET-based insect repellent. When seated, drape a blanket over the ground. the nurse would include in the session of reinforcing instructions.
This uses the term reinforcement in a far less scientific way than psychologists do. The provision of verbal, symbolic, tangible, or other rewards for desired academic performance or effort at the classroom level is what we'll refer to as reinforcement instructional for the sake of this definition. Reinforcement is a technique used in behavioural psychology to strengthen an organism's future behaviour if that behaviour is preceded by a certain antecedent stimulus. This strengthening effect may be quantified as increased behaviour (e.g., drawing a lever more frequently), increased length (e.g., pushing a lever for an extended period of time), increased magnitude (e.g., pulling a lever more firmly), or decreased latency.
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the order is for 250 mg of ampicillin ivpb every 8h. the ivpb comes prepared from the pharmacy in a 50 ml iv bag with instructions to infuse the ivpb over 15 minutes. how many ml/hour will the nurse set on the iv pump?
200 mL/hour which the nurse will attach to the IV pump in a 50 mL IV bag and instructions for 15 minutes.
Intravenous (IV) aka infusion is a method of administering drugs that are carried out directly through a vein. This therapy is usually the best choice if the patient's body condition does not allow taking medication orally (by mouth).
Some types of drugs need to be given more than once with a constant dose. So, to facilitate administration and the accuracy of the dose, administration via intravenous injection can be an option.
This is usually applied to patients who are unconscious or have difficulty accepting oral medication. The injection of the drug will be carried out through an infusion tube, which can be connected to a blood vessel for some time.
The dosage for this question is calculated from the:
n = 50/0.25
n = 200 mL/hour
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which is the provision of local or regional anesthetic services with certain conscious-altering drugs when provided by a physician, anesthesiologist, or medically directed crna?
A type of anaesthesia service known as "monitored anaesthesia care" (MAC) involves a clinician who specializes in anaesthesia constantly monitoring and supporting the patient's vital signs, diagnosing and treating any clinical issues that may arise, giving sedative, anxiolytic, or analgesic medication as necessary, and switching to general anaesthesia if necessary.
What is monitored anesthesia care (MAC)?In reality, MAC is preferred in 10–30% of all surgical procedures. The three main components and goals of a conscious sedation during a MAC are: a safe sedation, the management of the patient's anxiety, and the management of pain. Conscious sedation, commonly referred to as twilight sleep or monitored anesthesia care (MAC), is a type of sedation that is given intravenously to make a patient asleep and relaxed during a surgery. The patient can usually follow directions when necessary and is usually awake but sluggish. When a patient is under general anesthesia, they are fully unconscious and have an endotracheal tube in their throat.provision of local or regional anaesthetic services with specific conscious-altering drugs when provided by a doctor, anesthesiologist, or medically directed CRNA; monitored anaesthesia care entails keeping a close eye on the patient to foresee when general anesthesia might be necessary, and it necessitates ongoing assessment of vital physiologic functions as well as the identification and treatment of adverse changes.To learn more about monitored anesthesia care refer to:
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a 75-year-old patient reports pain and a feeling of tiredness in both legs that only relieves after sitting for 30 minutes or more. what the does provider suspect as the cause for these symptoms?
Cauda equina syndrome. a 75-year-old patient reports pain and a feeling of tiredness in both legs that only relieves after sitting for 30 minutes or more.
The compression of the cauda equina, a cluster of nerve roots, causes cauda equina syndrome. Nerves transmit and receive electrical signals throughout your body. At the bottom of your spinal cord lies a cluster of nerve roots fashioned like a horse's tail. The upper respiratory tract is defined as the airway above the glottis or voice cords; it is also defined as the airway above the cricoid cartilage. The nose, sinuses, pharynx, and larynx are all part of the respiratory tract. Cauda equina syndrome develops when the lumbar spine's nerve roots get crushed, cutting off sensation and movement. Nerve roots that regulate function.
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a patient being treated for gastroesophageal reflux disease with pantoprazole reports continued symptoms. while reviewing the patient-s 24 hour dietary recall, the nurse understands that which dietary choices would likely be a contributing factor?
Eating high fat and fried foods, drinking caffeinated beverages, and eating large meals are likely contributing factors to the patient's continued symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
What is mean by gastroesophageal reflux disease and its symptoms? Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a chronic digestive disorder that occurs when stomach acid or bile flows back up into the esophagus (the tube that connects the mouth to the stomach). This backflow of acid is called acid reflux. GERD is a common condition that affects people of all ages, including infants and children, and can cause discomfort and significant health problems if left untreated. Symptoms of GERD include heartburn, chest pain, difficulty swallowing, sour taste in the mouth, regurgitation, and a chronic cough or hoarseness. In some cases, GERD can lead to more serious problems such as inflammation or damage to the esophagus, which can cause bleeding or narrowing of the esophagus, breathing problems, and even cancer of the esophagus. Treatment options for GERD include lifestyle changes, medications, and surgery.To learn more about gastroesophageal reflux disease refer to:
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After teaching nursing students about methods to assess gastric tube placement, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which of the following as the most accurate method
The group should identify X-ray visualization as the most accurate method.
What is X-ray visualization?An X-ray is a type of medical imaging technology also referred to as radiography. It produces photographs of the internal bodily structures using minute amounts of electromagnetic energy. Then, these pictures can be seen on film or digitally. One family of non-invasive measurement methods that is widely used for evaluating products and assessing static objects with complicated features is X-ray imaging. The purpose of this work is to illustrate and quantify opaque fluid flow features using X-rays. The nursing students should decide that the most precise technique in this case is X-ray visualization after they learn about the methods to assess gastric tube placement.To learn more about nursing, refer:
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To assess gastric tube placement: the group should identify X-ray visualization as the most accurate method.
What is X-ray visualization?An X-ray is a type of medical imaging technology also referred to as radiography.It produces photographs of the internal bodily structures using minute amounts of electromagnetic energy.Then, these pictures can be seen on film or digitally.One family of non-invasive measurement methods that is widely used for evaluating products and assessing static objects with complicated features is X-ray imaging.The purpose of this work is to illustrate and quantify opaque fluid flow features using X-rays.The nursing students should decide that the most precise technique in this case is X-ray visualization after they learn about the methods to assess gastric tube placement.To learn more about X-ray, refer:
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A nurse has just inserted a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to secure the catheter?
A. Apply an IV securement device
B. Wrap tape around the circumference of the client's arm
C. Trap the IV catheter's hub securely to the client's skin
D. Place a piece of paper tape over the insertion site.
Answer:
A. Apply an IV securement device
The nurse should put on an IV safety device to secure the catheter. So, the correct option is (A).
What is Peripheral IV catheter?A peripheral venous catheter is also called a peripheral venous line or peripheral venous access catheter, or peripheral intravenous catheter. It is defined as a catheter into a peripheral vein for venous access so that intravenous therapy such as pharmaceutical fluids can be administered.
There are two types of venous catheters. The central venous catheter differs from an intravenous (IV) catheter placed in the hand or arm which is also called a "peripheral IV" in that the central line is longer, with a larger tube and is placed in a large (central) vein in the neck, upper chest, or groin.
Thus, the nurse should put on an IV safety device to secure the catheter. So, the correct option is (A).
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n order to provide the best intervention for a patient,the nurse is often responsible for obtaining an sample of exudate for a culture. this test will identify:
A sample of exudate for culture is frequently taken by the nurse in order to give the optimal care for a patient. This examination will reveal the precise pathogen that is causing the ailment.
Describe a pathogen.A pathogen is an organism which causes disease in its host; virulence refers to the intensity of the disease symptoms. In terms of taxonomy, pathogens are varied and can be bacteria, viruses, or both single- & multicellular eukaryotes.Pathogens, which may infect the body and damage the immune system, include bacteria, fungus, viruses, and parasites. Microorganisms that may lead to serious diseases include tetanus, HIV, the Epstein-Barr viruses, and the Zika virus, among many others. Viral agents, bacterial agents, fungal agents, and parasites are the four main categories of pathogens. There are many varieties of pathogens.The whole query is,
In order to provide the best treatment for a patient, the nurse routinely takes a sample for exudate for culture. The results of this examination will show that the patient has an infection.
b. the infection's source.
c. which cells are being used by the body to fight an illness.
d. The specific pathogen causing the disease.
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some of the pain from a sore throat is caused by swelling of moist throat tissue. a common remedy for a sore throat is to gargle (rinse the throat tissue) with salt water. explain why gargling with salt water would be expected to relieve the pain of a sore throat.
By using salt, you're pulling out fluids from your throat tissues, which helps wash the virus out.
What is sore throat?A sore throat is a painful, dry, or scratchy feeling in the throat.
Pain in the throat is one of the most common symptoms, which accounts for more than 2%Trusted Source of all adult primary care visits each year.
Most sore throats are caused by infections, or by environmental factors like dry air. Although a sore throat can be uncomfortable, it will usually go away on its own.
Sore throats are divided into types, based on the part of the throat they affect:
Pharyngitis causes swelling and soreness in the throat.Tonsillitis is swelling and redness of the tonsils, the soft tissue in the back of the mouth.Laryngitis is swelling and redness of the voice box, or larynx.a common remedy for a sore throat is to gargle (rinse the throat tissue) with salt water.
Benefits of a Salt Water Gargle:
Salt water gargles are a simple, safe, and affordable home remedy. They’re most often used for sore throats, viral respiratory infections like colds, or sinus infections. They can also help with allergies or other mild issues. Salt water gargles may be effective for both relieving infections and preventing them from getting worse, as well.Making a salt water gargle is quite easy. It requires only two ingredients — water and salt. It takes very little time to make and apply, and it’s completely safe for children over 6 years old to use (and for anyone who can gargle easily).Since it’s also a fairly natural, affordable, and convenient remedy.To learn more about salt water gargle refers to;
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which statement regarding fluid and electrolyte imbalance is false? a. it will resolve without intervention. b. it can be caused by vomiting and diarrhea. c. it disrupts the heartbeat. d. it is a medical emergency.
d. it is a medical emergency. statement regarding fluid and electrolyte imbalance When exposed to such a stress, a fluid, any liquid or gas, or any substance in general cannot maintain a tangential.
When your body contains either too much or not enough of a certain mineral, an electrolyte imbalance results. This imbalance might indicate a condition like renal disease. When minerals like electrolytes dissolve in fluids like blood and urine, they release an electrical charge. An electrolyte imbalance is typically caused by a loss of body fluids. This may occur during prolonged diarrhoea, vomiting, or sweating brought on by a medical condition, for instance. Fluid loss as a result of burns is another potential reason. The most typical kind of electrolyte imbalance is hyponatremia, or insufficient sodium.
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which is the most therapeutic instruction for the nurse to provide to a client with preeclampsia regarding methods for improving her health?
Preeclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy, it begins at the onset of it.It is related with high blood pressure and high amount of urine in the body. Nurse would be high on alert when treating a patient with preeclampsia, as it could lead to eclampsia.
Nurses should form a strong bond during the whole pregnancy with the patient and check her thoroughly her every monthly checkup.
Educating patient is also a first line defence mechanism after supporting her emotionally and mentally, as patient suffering from it is unaware.
Postpartum care is also important, women also experience a long term trauma after such a short term symptoms, so nurse carry some of the emotional burden during such a distressing time can reduce short- and long-term trauma.
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an older client recentily has been taking cimedtidine. the nurse monitoring the clients nervous systme side effect of this medication?
The nurse should keep an eye on the client since confusion is the most common central nervous system adverse effect of this medicine.
Cimetidine is used to treat ulcers, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), which causes heartburn and damage to the food pipe (oesophagus), and disorders in which the stomach generates too much acid, including such Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Cimetidine is an over-the-counter medication used to prevent and cure heartburn symptoms caused by acid reflux and a sour stomach. Cimetidine belongs to a family of drugs known as H2 blockers. It reduces the quantity of acid produced in the stomach.
Cimetidine is available as a pill as well as a liquid to use orally. It is often taken once a week at bedtime or twice a day with meals and that was at bedtime. Cimetidine is often taken either once twice a day with a drink of water. This is taken within 30 minutes of eating or drinking things that induce heartburn to avoid symptoms. Follow the instructions on your prescription or the package label exactly, and ask your doctor or pharmacist to explain any parts you don't understand. Cimetidine should be taken exactly as prescribed. Do not take more or less of it, or take it more frequently than your doctor has suggested.
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the nurse is assisting in caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 ml of normal saline with 40 meq of potassium chloride. the nurse is monitoring the client for signs of hyperkalemia. which sign/symptom would be noted in the client if hyperkalemia is present?
Normal saline solution (0.9% NaCl) or NSS, is a crystalloid isotonic IV fluid that contains water, sodium (154 mEq/L), and chloride (154 mEq/L).
what is hyperkalemia?
High potassium (called “hyperkalemia”) is a medical problem in which you have too much potassium in your blood. Your body needs potassium.Other causes of hyperkalemia include:Addison's disease (adrenal insufficiency)Angiotensin II receptor blockers.Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.Beta blockers.Dehydration.Destruction of red blood cells due to severe injury or burns.Excessive use of potassium supplements.Type 1 diabetes.Hyperkalemia symptoms include:Abdominal (belly) pain and diarrhea.Chest pain.Heart palpitations or arrhythmia (irregular, fast or fluttering heartbeat).Muscle weakness or numbness in limbs.Nausea and vomiting.To learn more about potassium chloride refers to:
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assess the culture of the organization for potential challenges in incorporating the nursing practice intervention. use this assessment when creating the strategic plan. discuss with your preceptor the culture of your organizations and what are the potential problems. write a strategic plan (150-250 words) defining how the nursing practice intervention will be implemented in the capstone project change proposal. apa style is not required, but solid academic writing is expected. you are not required to submit this assignment to lopeswrite.
A successful nursing strategic plan lays the groundwork for the future. It provides nurses with direction and can refresh and reenergize an organization.
What are the strategic plan in implementing capstone project change proposal? Proposal for a Capstone Project Change - Improving a Fall Prevention Program in a Clinical Setting. Improving a Fall Prevention Program in the Clinic. Falls are extremely dangerous, and preventing them is the most important goal and plan for every patient's safety who enters a healthcare setting.A successful nursing strategic plan lays the groundwork for the future. It provides nurses with direction and can refresh and reenergize an organization. A solid strategic plan is essential for ensuring excellent patient care and the best possible outcomes.Strategic management consists of five essential tasks. They include creating a strategic vision and mission, establishing objectives, developing tactics to meet those objectives, implementing and executing the tactics, and evaluating and measuring performance.To learn more about strategic plan refer to :
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why is understanding the health care system at the local level important to consider when planning an ebp implementation? conduct research and solicit anecdotal evidence from your course preceptor that you will take into consideration for your own change project.
Understanding the health care system at the local level important to consider when planning an EBP implementation because it gives you an indication of what you can expect as far as demographics and availability of resources.
Define health care system?An organization of people, institutions, and resources known as a health system, health care system, or healthcare system provides health care services to satisfy the needs of target populations.A health system, according to the World Health Organization, comprises of all institutions, individuals, and activities whose principal goal is to advance, restore, or maintain health. This covers more indirect health-improving actions as well as initiatives to change the factors that determine health.The five core components of staff, stuff, space, systems, and social support are what we constantly think of when discussing enhancing the health system at Partners In Health (PIH).The quality of life is enhanced and diseases are prevented by high-quality healthcare.To learn more about health care system refer to:
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on reviewing the blood reports of a client who presents with a fever, the nurse finds the white blood cell count is 13,000/microliter. which term does the nurse use when documenting this finding?
Typically, if there are more than 11,000 white blood cells in a microliter of your blood, it's considered leukocytosis.
what is blood cell count?
Blood count tests measure the number and types of cells in your blood. This helps doctors check on your overall health. The tests can also help to diagnose diseases and conditions such as anemia, infections, clotting problems, blood cancers, and immune system disordersWhen you don't have enough healthy red blood cells, you have a condition called anemia. This means your blood has lower than normal hemoglobin (Hgb) levels. Hemoglobin is the part of the red blood cell (RBC) that carries oxygen to all the cells in your body. Anemia is a common side effect in patients with cancer.Lean meats, such as fish, eggs seafood, and skinless poultry contain high quantities of protein. Great plant based sources include lentils, beans and soy. Zinc is one of the best foods to increase white blood cells you can consume as it can help the body produce more WBCs and makes existing WBCs more aggressiveTo learn more about blood refers to:
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Leukocytosis is typically defined as having more than 11,000 white blood cells per microliter of blood.
What is blood cell count?Blood count tests count and classify the different blood cell types. Infections, blood clotting issues, blood malignancies, immune system abnormalities, anaemia, and other diseases and conditions can all be diagnosed with the aid of these tests.
Anemia is a disorder that occurs when your body lacks enough healthy red blood cells. This indicates that the haemoglobin (Hgb) levels in your blood are lower than usual. The component of red blood cells (RBCs) called haemoglobin is responsible for delivering oxygen to every cell in your body.
Fish, eggs, seafood, & skinless poultry are examples of lean meats that are rich in protein. One of the finest foods to eat to boost white blood cells is zinc since it helps the body manufacture more WBCs & makes the ones it already has more aggressive.
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A nurse is assessing four clients for fluid balance. The nurse should identify that which of the following clients is exhibiting manifestations of dehydration?
a. A client who has a urine specific gravity of 1.010.
b. A client who has a weight gain of 2.2 kg (2 lb) in 24 hr.
c. A client who has a hematocrit of 45%A client who has a temperature of 39° C (102° F)
d. A client who has a temperature of 39 C (102 F)
Answer:
Answer: A client who has a urine specific gravity of 1.010. Dehydration can be identified by an increased specific gravity of urine, as it is an indication of concentrated urine. A normal urine specific gravity is between 1.008-1.029.
A client who has a urine specific gravity of 1.010. The correct option is A.
What is dehydration?When a water molecule is lost in a chemical reaction, such as when an organic compound is being created, it is referred to as a dehydration reaction.
Synthesis is the process of generating an organic substance, often with the help of enzymes, in biology and organic chemistry.
a disorder that develops when the body loses too much of the fluids it needs to function normally, including water.
Four patients are being evaluated by a nurse for fluid balance. The client who has a urine specific gravity of 1.010 should be identified by the nurse as having dehydration symptoms.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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the nurse is caring for a client on the mental health unit who has been declared incompetent through a formal legal proceeding. a guardian has been appointed. the nurse knows that guardians are typically selected from among family members. from the list of family members, what is the order of selection of a guardian for this client? list in descending order of importance from the first to the last choice. all options must be used
Spouse, Adult child, Parent Sibling, Close relative or friend, Public Guardian/ Conservator n these order the family members can be selected.
What is the order of selection typically chosen from among family members?When a client has been declared incompetent through a formal legal proceeding, a guardian is typically appointed to make decisions on their behalf.The order of selection for a guardian is typically based on the client's family members, with priority given to the closest relatives. The order of selection typically starts with the client's spouse, followed by adult children, parents, siblings, and close relatives or friends. If no suitable family members are available or willing to serve as a guardian, a public guardian or conservator may be appointed by the court. It's worth noting that the selection process is not always based on a rigid order, and the court may select a guardian that it believes is in the best interest of the client.it may also take into consideration the willingness of the candidate to take on the role and the financial resources of the candidate.To learn more about order of selection refer:
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The order of selection of a guardian is as follows: (1) Spouse, (2) Adult children/ grandchildren (3) Parents (4) adult siblings (5) Adult nieces/nephews
What is the order of selection typically chosen from among family members?When a client has been declared incompetent through a formal legal proceeding, a guardian is typically appointed to make decisions on their behalf.
The order of selection for a guardian is typically based on the client's family members, with priority given to the closest relatives.
The order of selection typically starts with the client's spouse, followed by adult children, parents, siblings, and close relatives or friends.
If no suitable family members are available or willing to serve as a guardian, a public guardian or conservator may be appointed by the court.
It's worth noting that the selection process is not always based on a rigid order, and the court may select a guardian that it believes is in the best interest of the client.
it may also take into consideration the willingness of the candidate to take on the role and the financial resources of the candidate.
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The complete question is:
The nurse is caring for a client on the mental health unit who has been declared incompetent through a formal legal proceeding. A guardian has been appointed. The nurse knows that guardians are typically selected from among family members. From the list of family members, what is the order of selection of a guardian for this client? List in descending order of importance from the first to the last choice. all options must be used.
(1) Parents
(2) Spouse
(3) Adult Children/ grandchildren
(4) Adult nieces/ nephews
(5) Adult siblings
the nurse is caring for a client in acute kidney injury (aki). which complication would most clearly warrant the administration of polystyrene sulfonate?
Polystyrene sulfonate hyperkalemia would be most definitely justified by the complication.
What is polystyrene sulfonate?High blood potassium levels are treated with a class of drugs called polystyrene sulfonates. Effects usually take a few hours to many days. Additionally, in technical applications, they are used to remove sodium, potassium, and calcium from solutions. High potassium levels in the blood, often known as hyperkalemia, are treated with sodium polystyrene sulfonate. Only a doctor's prescription is needed to purchase this medication. So gastrointestinal symptoms are the most frequent side effects. Anorexia, vomiting, diarrheic, and constipation are a few of them. Your potassium levels may be excessively lowered by sodium polystyrene sulfonate, which may also result in irregular cardiac rhythms. Because it is so effective at what it does, sodium Lauretha sulfate, the sulfate currently used most frequently in shampoos, is actually outperformed by olefin sulfonate in terms of cleaning (SLES).To learn more about polystyrene sulfonate refer to:
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which information would the nurse provide to a patient with cancer presenting with a platelet count of 21,000 cells/mm to decrease the risk for bleeding?
Nurse would tell cancer patient that a normal platelet count is between 150,000 and 350,000 and too few platelets can cause excessive bleeding.
What type of cancer causes a high platelet count?Certain cancer, such as leukemia and lymphoma, can lower platelet counts. Abnormal cells in these cancers can crowd out healthy cells in bone marrow where platelets are made. Less common causes of low platelet count include: Cancer that has spread to the bone. In the current study, lung and colorectal cancers were particularly associated with high normal platelet counts.
Are there natural ways to raise platelet levels?Foods rich in folic acid (vitamin B9), such as green leafy vegetables, legumes, peanuts, liver, and seafood.Foods rich in vitamins B-12, C, D, and K, such as beef, liver, poultry, fish, seafood, citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, egg yolks, and grains.To learn more about platelet visit:
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a client with a nasogastric (ng) tube who is 2 days postoperative bowel resection is reporting increased abdominal pain and nausea. which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?
action by the nurse would be most appropriate is avoid replacing the NG tube if it is accidentally dislodged.
What is abdominal pain and nausea?Both adults and children frequently experience nausea and stomach pain. Overeating, intestinal infections, stress and worry, and long-term gastrointestinal issues are some of the potential causes. Typically, stomach discomfort and nausea are transient and resolve on their own.If any of the following apply: abdominal ache that lasts for at least a week. abdominal discomfort that does not go away in 24 to 48 hours, gets worse and happens more frequently, and is accompanied by nausea and vomiting more than two days of persistent bloating. Abdominal pain mostly comes in three flavours: visceral, parietal, and referred.Hence, The action by the nurse would be most appropriate is avoid replacing the NG tube if it is accidentally dislodged.To learn more about abdominal pain and nausea refer to:
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Which condition is closely linked to heart disease? a. low cardiorespiratory fitness b. low muscular strength c. poor flexibility d. poor reaction time.
Heart disease is closely linked with chronic kidney disease, a condition in which your kidneys are damaged and can't filter blood the way they should.
Which condition is closely linked to heart disease?
High blood pressure is a major risk factor for heart disease. It is a medical condition that happens when the pressure of the blood in your arteries and other blood vessels is too high.Although it's not a disease in itself, hypertension can lead to an increased risk of developing serious conditions such as coronary heart disease, heart attacks and strokes.Smoking. Being overweight or having obesity. Not getting enough physical activity. Eating a diet high in saturated fat, trans fat, cholesterol, and sodium (salt)To learn more about heart diseases refers to:
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1. a pregnant patient presents to the labor and delivery unit reporting contractions every 3 minutes. the patient denies leaking any fluid or having any vaginal bleeding. what must the nurse review before performing an sve?
The nurse will review the gestational age and placental location of the patient.
During pregnancy, the placenta serves as a temporary organ to join the uterus to growing child. Soon after fertilization, the placenta begins to grow and adheres to the uterine wall.
The umbilical cord connects with the child to the placenta during pregnancy. Placenta and umbilical cord function as the baby's life support system when they are within the uterus.
gestational age, the period during which a fetus develops inside the uterus of the mother.
The fetus's stage of growth and physical development, are related to gestational age. When determining the potential adverse effects of a fetal exposure to toxins or infection, the gestational age of the fetus is particularly significant.
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the purposes of restraining devices in the intensive care unit are to ensure that the patient is unable to disrupt invasive lines or pull at lifesaving devices and to assist with maintaining patient safety. however, the most common adverse events associated with restraining devices are associated with:
Restraints in a medical setting are devices that limit a patient's movement.
What are restraint devices used for?In order to keep a patient still during surgery or while being carried on a stretcher, restraints may be utilised. Additionally, restraints can be employed to restrict or stop dangerous conduct. Restraints are sometimes required for hospital patients who are disoriented to prevent them from: Scratching their skin
Keeping these guidelines in mind, the following situations may necessitate the application of four-point restraints: when the patient engages in physical conflict. when the patient poses a direct danger to herself or others.
when less restricting options have been tried and failed. A protective restraint is any tool used for medical purposes, such as a wristlet, anklet, vest, mitt, straight jacket, body/limb holder, or other form of strap.
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a contraction stress test is scheduled for the client. the woman asks the nurse about the test. which response describes the most accurate description of the test?
The uterus is stimulated to contract by either small amounts of oxytocin (Pitocin) or by nipple stimulation.
Define nipple?Nipples: The areola's nipple is located in the middle. There are around nine milk ducts and nerves in each nipple. Areolae: The region of skin that is black in color and encircles the nipple is known as an areola. Montgomery's glands, which are found on areolae, release a lubricating oil. Its origins can be traced back to the words neble, nib(b)le, and nepil. It might be connected to the word nib, which means "a point." The center of a breast or mammary gland is called the nipple. Infants suck on the nipple, which is the extremity of the mammary gland in female mammals, to take milk.The primary factor affecting the areola's size, shape, and color is genetics.To learn more about nipple refer to:
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a client has a spinal cord injury. the home health nurse is making an initial visit to the client at home and plans on reinforcing teaching on autonomic dysreflexia. what symptom would the nurse stress to the client and his family?
Cushing's triad refers to a set of signs that are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), or increased pressure in the brain.
What is the spinal cord's primary purpose?
The spinal cord, a crucial component of the central nervous system, is located within the spinal column (CNS). The spinal cord's three main functions are to coordinate reflexes, transmit sensory data from the body to the brain, and transmit motor commands from the brain to the body.
What are the 31 spinal cord pairs?
There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves overall, which are organized geographically by spinal region. There are eight pairs of cervical nerves (C1-C8), twelve pairs of thoracic nerves (T1-T12), five pairs of lumbar nerves (L1-L5), five pairs of sacral (S1-S5), and one pair of coccygeal nerves.
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a client develops an infection with a resistant organism while hospitalized for surgery. after treatment, there are no obvious signs of infection, but a culture shows that the organism is present. which term describes the client's status?
A client develops an infection with a resistant organism while hospitalized for surgery. After treatment, there are no obvious signs of infection, but a culture shows that the organism is present therefore the term which describes the client's status is he/she has a chronic disease.
What is a Chronic disease?This is referred to as a human health condition or disease that is persistent or otherwise long-lasting in its effects.
Chronic disease is a long-term, continuous process and in the preclinical stage of a disease, a client may show no symptoms but will progress to clinical disease which is overtly present and is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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a patient reports using artificial tears for comfort because of burning and itching in both eyes but reports worsening symptoms. the provider notes redness and discharge along the eyelid margins with clear conjunctivae. what is the recommended treatment?
Your doctor may prescribe an antibiotic, usually given topically as eye drops or ointment, for bacterial conjunctivitis.
What is the best treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis?Antibiotics may shorten the duration of an infection, lessen consequences, and stop the transmission of the infection to other people. The following circumstances may call for the use of antibiotics: Rubella and rubeola (measles), viral rash infections that are typically accompanied by rash, fever, and cough, can cause conjunctivitis with discharge (pus). The majority of instances of common conjunctivitis, including those brought on by S aureus, group A streptococci, H influenzae, and P aeruginosa, respond favourably to this treatment. Erythromycin ointment, sulfacetamide eye drops, and polymyxin/trimethoprim eye drops are first-line broad-spectrum topical antibiotics for acute conjunctivitis.The therapeutic class of ophthalmic antibiotics from the PDL has been included for your convenience.To learn more about bacterial conjunctivitis refer to:
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why is it important to be an informed consumer with health, fitness, and wellness products? what is an example of health and fitness quackery you seen before?
It's conceivable that whatever you purchase won't work properly or might even harm you when you can not do your homework before making the purchase. List a few instances of typical misconceptions regarding exercise and health.
What kind of fitness and health quackery is this?Advertising that makes inflated claims about a product is health quackery.Examples include claims that a product may heal acne, smooth out wrinkles, promote hair growth, or eliminate cellulite (fat tissue). It's common to refer to fat that causes the skin to seem undulating or bumpy as "cellulite."What are fitness and health?Any activity that engages the brain's systems and maintains them in a certain state qualifies as fitness. On the other side, health covers every system of the body and is only possible when one leads a healthy lifestyle.Physical activity and exercise can improve your health and reduce your risk of developing a variety of illnesses, including as diabetes type 2 cancer, and heart disease.Your health may be improved both now and in the future through exercise and physical activity. Most importantly, regular exercise may improve your quality of life.Learn more about health and fitness refer to :
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which condition is the nurse concerned about for a patient with laennec cirrhosis who has an increased abdominal girth of 12 cm over the measured abdominal girth from a previous admission?
The nurse may be concerned about ascites, a condition in which fluid accumulates in the abdominal cavity due to the impaired function of the liver in patients with Laennec cirrhosis.
What other symptoms has the patient been experiencing that may be related to the increased abdominal girth? The patient may be experiencing a variety of symptoms related to their increased abdominal girth, such as difficulty breathing, abdominal pain or cramping, nausea, vomiting, and/or constipation. Additionally, the patient may be experiencing an inability to exercise, fatigue, and poor sleep. Other symptoms may include a feeling of fullness after eating small amounts of food, loss of appetite, and unintentional weight gain. In some cases, the patient may experience an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdomen (ascites), which can cause a rapid increase in abdominal girth. In some cases, the patient may also experience changes in urination, such as an increased frequency or difficulty starting or stopping the flow of urine. Finally, the patient may also experience abdominal bloating and swelling, which can be accompanied by pain or discomfort.To learn more about laennec cirrhosis refer to:
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