a client who has a sinus infection is receiving a prescription for amoxicillin/clavulanate potassium (augmentin) 500 mg po q8 hours. the available form is 250 mg amoxicillin/125mg clavulanate tablets. how many tablets should the nurse administer for each dose? (enter numeric value only.)

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Answer 1

The number of tablets the nurse will administer for each dose would be = 1.3 tablets /dose

What is sinus infection?

Sinus infection is defined as the type of infection that occurs when there is inflammation of the nasal cavities due to invasion of dishes causing microorganisms.

The prescription given for amoxicillin/clavulanate potassium (augmentin) = 500mg per 8 hours.

The vehicle/ available form of the drug = 250 mg amoxicillin/125mg clavulanate tablets

That is, the available form of the drug = 250 + 125 = 375mg/tablet.

To calculate for the number of tablets per dose the following is done;

1 tablet = 375mg

X Tablet= 500mg

make X tablet the subject of formula;

X tablet= 500/375

X tablet= 1.3 tablets.

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Answer 2

Amoxicillin, a beta-lactamase inhibitor, clavulanate potassium, and other ingredients make up the oral antibiotic combination known as Augmentin.

Amoxicillin/clavulanate potassium (Augmentin), 500 mg PO every eight hours, is prescribed to a client who has a sinus infection.

Calculate the infusion rate at 15 mg/hour using the following formula: 50 mg: 250 ml = X: 75 ml 250X = 3750. Then, multiply 15 mg/hr by 1 mg/1000 mcg to get 15,000 mcg/hour.

Then, divide that number by 60 minutes to get 250 mcg/minute. The final calculation is 250 mcg/72.4 kg/min = 3.45 = 3.5 mcg/kg/minute.

Amoxicillin, the beta-lactamase inhibitor, and clavulanate potassium make up the oral antibiotic combination known as Augmentin.

Amoxicillin/clavulanate potassium (Augmentin) 500 mg PO every eight hours is the recommended dosage for a sinus infection sufferer.

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Related Questions

when the nurse is describing the events that occur in a newborn when he or she experiences a cold environment, which event would the nurse identify as occurring first?

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Increased release of norepinephrine would the nurse identify as occurring first

What is norepinephrine ?

It has been demonstrated that norepinephrine affects a person's mood and focus. Depression, hypotension, and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) can all result from low norepinephrine levels.

Babies who are too cold won't have the necessary vigour to cry, and they might not be motivated to eat. In an effort to stay warm, they expend a lot of energy. A baby who is dangerously chilled will have chilly hands and feet, and even their chest will be chilly even when they are covered up.

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what are some examples of good food choices for a meal eaten about three hours before a marathon? multiple select question. bagel bacon, lettuce, tomato sandwich on white toast muffin nuts and raisins

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The foods that could be eaten three hours before a marathon are;

bagel baconlettucetomato sandwich muffin nutsWhat food is best eaten before a marathon?

We know that a marathon is a very long race. As such when a person is participating in a marathon, the person is not supposed to eat a food that could be regarded as a heavy food. This is because, the consumption of a heavy food would make the person not to be effective at the Marathon. The marathon is found to be quite exerting and the individual would have to be able to run across a very large thus stamina and the ability to remain on course for long are just absolute requirements.

From what I have been saying, we must then look at the foods that can not be regarded and can be able able to be digested easily and not contain a lot of calories that could make  the athlete weak at the commencement of the race.

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the nurse provides instructions to the adolescent regarding the administration of insulin. the nurse should include which instruction?

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The nurse should include the following instructions to the adolescent regarding the administration of insulin :

Before using insulin, check your blood glucose levels.Withhold the next insulin dosage.Visit the clinic as soon as possible.Encourage your youngster to drink more water.

The INS gene in humans encodes insulin, a peptide hormone generated by beta cells of the pancreatic islets. It is regarded as the body's primary anabolic hormone.

Adolescence is the period of life between childhood and adulthood, lasting from the ages of 10 to 19. It is a distinct period in human development and crucial for setting the groundwork for long-term health.

Teenagers grow quickly in terms of their physical, cognitive, and emotional development. This has an impact on their emotions, thoughts, decisions, and interactions with others and their environment.

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a nurse is caring for a client with chronic bronchiectasis. the nurse should assess the patient for which clinical manifestation?

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The nurse should assess the patient for Purulent cough clinical manifestation.

What is the best treatment for bronchiectasis?

The primary treatment for the recurrent chest infections that bronchiectasis brings on is an antibiotic regimen. These infections are frequently treated with oral antibiotics. Your doctor could recommend intravenous (IV) antibiotics for infections that are difficult to treat. Through an IV line placed in your arm, these medications are administered.

Why does bronchiectasis occur?

Damage from another lung disease frequently contributes to bronchiectasis. Bronchitis may also be brought on by a obstruction of the airway, such as a growth or noncancerous tumour. Despite being the most frequently associated with cystic fibrosis, a number of many other illnesses, including: Immune disorder, can cause bronchiectasis.

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a nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder who has been prescribed divalproex. the nurse knows that the client should have which test completed before initiation of drug therapy?

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Nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder who has been prescribed divalproex. "Some people experience mild confusion after ECT. Generally it clears in a few days, though it may take longer.

Bipolar disorder is widely believed to be the end result of chemical imbalances within the mind. The chemical substances answerable for controlling the mind's features are called neurotransmitters,

People with bipolar experience each episodes of intense depression and episodes of mania – overwhelming joy, exhilaration or happiness, huge power, a discounted need for sleep, and reduced inhibitions. The enjoy of bipolar is uniquely personal. No  humans have precisely the same experience.

Enaline, serotonin and dopamine .Bipolar ailment can motive your mood to swing from an extreme high to an severe low. Manic symptoms can include improved power, exhilaration, impulsive behaviour, and agitation. Depressive signs can encompass loss of energy, feeling nugatory, low and mind.

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a healthcare provider whose native country is india is explaining the treatment plan to a patient. the patient tells the nurse she is having trouble understanding the provider but is embarrassed about asking to repeat the information over and over. the nurse should assess for which results due to this disparity in provider-patient communication? (select all that apply.)

Answers

Nurse should assess patient dissatisfaction and poor adherence due to this disparity in provider-patient communication.

Patient-provider communication is that the shared and reciprocally understood exchange of knowledge between a patient and their supplier. while not this "joint institution of which means," patients are at exaggerated risk for adverse events throughout medical aid.

Patient outcomes depend upon communication to ensure that there is dissatisfaction. The doctor who encourages open communication might get additional complete info, enhance the prospect of a additional correct designation, and facilitate applicable content, therefore probably up adherence to treatment plans that advantages long-run health.

The question is incomplete, find the complete question here

A healthcare provider whose native country is India is explaining the treatment plan to a patient. the patient tells the nurse she is having trouble understanding the provider but is embarrassed about asking to repeat the information over and over. the nurse should assess for which results due to this disparity in provider-patient communication? (select all that apply.)

A. Patient dissatisfaction

B. Optimal health outcome

C. Poor adherence

D. Increased patient confidence

E. Improved communication

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martha has severe cramps in her lower abdominal region and is in a lot of pain. a friend might soften her pain by:

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Cognitive behavioral therapy is one of the main therapies for acrophobia (CBT). Behavioral strategies that expose the patient to the feared situation—in this case, heights and high places—are used in this type of therapy.

Exposure to the dreaded things, actions, or circumstances in a secure setting aids in lowering anxiety and lowering avoidance. Exposure therapy has been scientifically shown to be an effective treatment or component of treatment for a variety of issues, such as: Phobias. Disorder of Panic. Endorphins are substances the body produces to ease stress and pain. They function similarly to an opioid drug class. Opioids can cause euphoria in addition to pain relief. They are occasionally prescribed for post-operative pain relief or for short-term use.

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the nurse is discussing basic cardiac hemodynamics and explains preload to the client. what nursing intervention will decrease preload?

Answers

Application of anti-embolytic stockings nursing intervention will decrease preload.

What is cardiac haemodynamic?

The research of how blood moves through the circulatory system is known as cardiovascular hemodynamics. Blood pressure and flow resistance are two physical variables that affect blood flow. Blood viscosity, capillary length and radius, and the configuration of these vessels all affect resistance.

Which elements influence cardiac hemodynamics?

Vascular size and resistance, respiration, blood viscosity, and circulating fluid volume are only a few of the many variables that affect hemodynamics. Physiological changes, such as food, exercise, illness, use of drugs or alcohol, obesity, and excess weight, may have an impact on each of these in turn.

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29. the graduate nurse is assessing her newly admitted client's abdomen and notes a bruit upon auscultation. which assessment technique by this nurse should be questioned in this client?

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The client's abdomen and notes a bruit upon auscultation, so the assessment technique by this nurse should be questioned in this client is palpate and document if artery is found to have doubled in size.

A bruit is a sonic tube sound related to turbulent blood flow. though typically detected with the medical instrument, such sounds might often even be palpated as a thrill.

Palpation is at the anterior carpus simply proximal to the bottom of the thumb. The brachial artery is usually the positioning of analysis throughout cardiopulmonary resuscitation of infants. It's palpated proximal to the elbow between the medial outgrowth of the arm bone and also the distal striated muscle connective tissue, tendon.

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your daughter probably has strep throat caused by streptococcus pyogenes. the traditional method of diagnosis involves culturing on blood agar, but this process is time consuming. your doctor wants a more rapid identification of the infectious agent using a specimen directly obtained from the patient's throat. he would prefer to use a test that can be read in his office without having to culture and isolate the organism. h would likelv choose the

Answers

The doctor chose the Immunochromatographic test since he wanted to employ a test that could read in his clinic without having to grow and isolate the organism.

What are the types of diagnosis?

clinical evaluation. a diagnosis given without the use of diagnostics and relies instead on symptoms and clinical signs. diagnostic testing at a lab. a diagnosis made mostly using laboratory or test data rather than the patient's physical examination.

What is the difference between diagnosis and diagnoses?

Diagnoses, which is spelled [dahy-uhg-noh-seez], is the plural form. Diagnose is the verb form. A diagnose is really to give a diagnostic of what specific problem is impacting the patient; phrase phrase "diagnosis a patient" can also be used to refer to an illness.

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you are working the morning shift at Bayview walk-in clinic

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There is no question so no one is able to solve it.

which of the following is false regarding antifungal vaccines? group of answer choices attenuated vaccines are safe for patients with immune suppression. the majority of fungal infections are caused by true pathogens from the environment. pharmaceutical companies are interested in developing antifungal vaccines. there are several safe vaccines against fungal diseases in development. cell-mediated immunity is effective against fungus.

Answers

Patients with immunosuppressive vaccines can get attenuated vaccinations without risk.

How do vaccines function?

Your immune system reacts to a vaccination in the same manner that it would to a genuine pathogen when you receive one. It: Identifies the vaccine's microorganism as being foreign. similarly to how it does for the natural germ, reacts by producing antibodies against the germ as in vaccination.

What makes immunizations so crucial?

Before being exposed to potentially deadly diseases as hcv Infection, measles, mumps, polio, and others, vaccines help youngsters develop immunity. The CDC has performed thorough testing on each vaccination before approving it for use.

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an athlete has sustained a grade 1 concussion. if this injury is the athletes first concussion, when should this athlete be allowed to return to practice?

Answers

BACK PRACTICE FOR GRADE 1 CONCUSSION ATHLETE

Return-to-play guide for grade 1 concussion for an athlete:

Athletes may return to competition once the physical ailment has healed. After one to three days of recuperation, the athlete can resume routine activities gradually. Monitoring symptoms while performing everyday tasks. If symptoms do not worsen with daily activities such as school, work, walking, or driving, patients progress to a progressive exercise program.

Rest is the foundation of concussion treatment. Cognitive and physical rest are necessary for brain recovery. After sustaining a concussion, athletes should not engage in any activities that increase the metabolic demands on the brain or cause the brain to work hard.

The more grade (grade 2 and more), athletes can return to play once when they are asymptomatic and have completed an activity return-to-play program. Health practitioners also suggest that athletes, if needed, receive neuropsychological testing following injury. Once post-injury neurocognitive test findings are favorable relative to baseline and the athlete's symptoms have subsided, he or she can return to play.

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for the patient who sustained head trauma, which type of seizure might he or she experience while on a ventilator and receiving sedation medications in the intensive care unit?

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For the patient who sustained head trauma, which type of seizure might he or she experience while on a ventilator and receiving sedation medications in the intensive care unit Phenytoin.

A head harm is any trauma to the scalp, skull, or brain. Head damage can be both closed or open (penetrating). A closed head harm way you acquired a difficult blow to the pinnacle from putting an item, however the item did now not spoil the skull.

Head injuries are one of the most commonplace reasons of incapacity and dying in adults. The damage may be as slight as a bump, bruise (contusion), or cut on the pinnacle, or may be slight to intense in nature because of a concussion, deep reduce or open wound, fractured cranium bone(s), or from internal bleeding and damage to the brain.

Even after a minor head injury, brain feature can be briefly impaired and that is from time to time known as concussion. this will lead to difficulties along with headaches, dizziness, fatigue, despair, irritability and reminiscence issues.

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he patient presents with a l head tilt, a r lateral flexion restriction and edema below the occipital rim. what is the level of the subluxation? what move do you do to test it? what side do you move the head to?

Answers

The mobility test used to investigate is called the cervical flexor rotation test. The head will turn to the left and to the right.

What bodily part is the occipital?

The occipital bone is the largest bone in the occiput as well as the backbone of the skull. It is thought of as a flat bone, like all other cranial bones, and as such, its primary function is either to provide insulation or a wide surface for attachment of muscles. The scalp, that has five layers, covers the bone.

The occipital portion of the skull is located where?

The occipital bone, a cranial dermal bone, is the main bone of the occiput. It has a trapezoidal design and resembles a shallow dish.

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marcus lifts weights every day. he takes nutritional supplements and steroids, but he never seems satisfied with his muscular progress. marcus is displaying signs of what disorder?

Answers

Marcus is displaying signs of muscle dysmorphia.

What is muscle dysmorphia?

Muscle dysmorphia is a psychological disorder that makes a person addicted to building muscles and doing bodybuilding exercises. Even though the body is formed and the muscles are enlarged, people with muscle dysmorphic disorder will continue to try to make their bodies more muscular and muscular.

The following are the characteristics of people with muscle dysmorphic disorder.

All-out workout to increase muscle mass.Panic and stress if you can't or don't have time to exercise.Continue to exercise even if you are sick or injured.Eating disorders, usually consuming excessive amounts of proteinSteroids addiction.Too often look in the mirror and check the shape of the body.Comparing his body with other bodybuilders.Not confident with body shape and self-image.

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a nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with pneumonia, has a history of falls, and has skin lesions resulting from scratching. the priority nursing diagnosis for this client should be

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The correct option is regarding pneumonia diagnosis is Option A : Ineffective Airway clearance

Why is ineffective airway clearance a priority ?

The primary nursing diagnosis for this client is inadequate airway clearance.

Pneumonia causes an increase in respiratory tract secretions, which prevents air from reaching the capillary bed.

Tachypnea, bradypnea, or Cheyne-Stokes respirations are ineffective respiratory patterns that may not be present in a patient with pneumonia. Falls risk and compromised tissue integrity are not this client's top diagnoses.

What is ineffective airway clearance ?

Due to bypassed and compromised natural mucociliary transport pathways, the use of an artificial airway results in ineffective airway clearing. The key to keeping the patient's airway open while using an artificial airway is nursing assessment and intervention.

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the nurse is caring for a patient with a recent history of deep vein thrombosis (dvt) who is scheduled for an emergency appendectomy. vitamin k is ordered for immediate administration. the international normalized ratio (inr) value is 1.0. which nursing action is most appropriate?

Answers

It has been ordered to administer vitamin K right now. Take a note of the drug in the electronic health record.

Which nation compensates nurses the best?

$91,000 Luxembourg (USD) This tiny nation in Europe pays its nursing exceptionally highly, now topping the list of nurse pay countries worldwide. Finding a job as an nurse is very challenging due to the small size of the nation and its tax dodge regulations.

What ten roles do nurses play?

Nurses perform a variety of tasks including wound care, medication administration, routine physical exams, thorough medical history gathering, blood pressure or heart rate monitoring, diagnostic test execution, use of medical equipment, blood sample collection, and patient admission and discharge in accordance with physician directives.

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a client has experienced a gradual flattening of affect, confusion, and withdrawal and has been diagnosed with alzheimer's disease. which additional findings would the nurse most likely assess?

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A client has experienced a gradual flattening of affect, confusion, and withdrawal and has been diagnosed with alzheimer's disease therefore the additional findings which the nurse would most likely assess are personality changes, wandering etc.

Who is a Nurse?

This is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved in other to prevent complications.

Alzheimer's disease is characterized by the destruction of memory and other mental functions and the person or client is most likely going to wander about and also change in personality which is what the nurse should assess.

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to confirm that a client is experiencing a manic episode, the nurse must eliminate the possibility that the client's symptoms are related to which problem?

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to confirm that a client is experiencing a manic episode, the nurse must eliminate the possibility that the client's symptoms are related to substance use.

What is manic episode ?

Manic episode is a part of bipolar disorder which involves a shift between extreme highs and low of person’s mental and emotional condition.

It can shift  drastically by  affecting the functioning, impacting a person’s relationships and causing them to struggle at work, and school. Mania is with bipolar disorder, specifically bipolar I.

The symptoms are mood or euphoria, racing thoughts, pressured speech, increased risk-taking, and decreased sleep which can persist for at least one week .

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one large egg (with the yolk) provides about 1.5 grams of saturated fat. for a person who consumes 2000 kcal per day, the daily value (the recommended limit) for saturated fat is 20 grams per day. is one egg a high source of saturated fat?

Answers

One large egg (with the yolk) provides about 1.5 grams of saturated fat. for a person who consumes 2000 kcal per day, the daily value (the recommended limit) for saturated fat is 20 grams per day Beef, Ground, Patty, 23% Fat, Raw (8 ounces).

Consuming an excessive amount of saturated fats in your food plan can raise "terrible" LDL LDL cholesterol in your blood, which may increase the threat of heart disorder and stroke. "good" HDL LDL cholesterol has a tremendous impact by way of taking cholesterol from components of the body in which there may be too much of it to the liver, wherein it is disposed of.

Maximum comes from animal products, like dairy, meat, and rooster. To limit the quantity of saturated fat you consume, pick lower-fat and lean options of dairy, meat, and fowl — like skim milk, lean pork, and grilled bird breast without the pores and skin. consuming too many meals high in saturated fats may be awful for your fitness.

The quantity of time that fats take to digest varies from man or woman to man or woman and between ladies and men. In the 1980s, Mayo health facility researchers observed that the average transit time from consumption to the removal of stool changed to about forty hours. total transit time averaged 33 hours in men and forty-seven hours in ladies.

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a psychiatric-mental health nurse is preparing a review class for a group of nurses at the community mental health center. the topic is mood-stabilizing drugs. after teaching the class about the different drugs that may be prescribed, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which drug as being prescribed most often?

Answers

After teaching the class about the different mood-stabilizing drugs that may be prescribed, the teaching was successful when the group identifies lithium as being prescribed most often drug.

Mood stabilizing drugs are medications utilized in the treatment of major affective disorder, wherever somebody's mood changes from a depressed feeling to a high “manic” feeling or contrariwise. These medication will facilitate cut back mood swings and forestall frenzied and depressive episodes.

The most wide used mood helpful drug is lithium. The clinical effects of lithium were discovered within the 1940s, and it's since become a wide used medication. The clinical properties of different mood stabilizers (carbamazepine, valproic acid) were discovered within the Seventies and Nineteen Eighties.

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unlike penicillin, most cephalosporins can be taken with food to prevent gastric upset. which is the only cephalosporin that the nurse would advise not to take with food?

Answers

Ceftibuten is the only cephalosporin that the nurse would advise not to take with food.

What is gastric upset ?

A group of digestive conditions known as gastric distress are characterized by lingering constipation, bloating, reflux, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and cramping. These gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms can be brought on by autoimmune diseases, food allergies, intolerances, or infections.

Indigestion is a gnawing or burning pain in the upper abdomen that may get better or worse with food. Nausea. Vomiting. after eating, an upper abdominal feeling of fullness.

What causes gastric upset?

Indignation in the stomach is frequently brought on by overeating or eating too rapidly. oily, fatty, or spicy foods. excessive intake of caffeine, alcohol, chocolate, or carbonated drinks.

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carriers multiple choice may have a persistent infection. may be a source of infection. usually show symptoms of the disease. have been cured of the infection. may have a persistent infection and may be a source of infection.

Answers

could be an infection source It is well recognized that carriers can cause a number of outbreaks. Typhoid Mary, for instance.

Can carriers have an infection that lingers?

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), a member of the herpes virus family, is one of the persistent viruses that many carriers carry. Approximately 95% of individuals, according to studies, have antibodies against EBV, indicating that they have had the disease at some point in their lives.

What exactly are disease carriers?

A carrier is a person who, as was mentioned previously, has an undetectable infection yet is nonetheless able to spread the pathogen to others. Those who are sick yet do not exhibit any symptoms are known as asymptomatic, passive, or healthy carriers.

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an 80-year-old woman describes having to go to the bathroom several times during the night. the nurse interprets this assessment data to be symptoms of:

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An 80-year-old woman describes having to go to the bathroom several times during the night and the nurse interprets this assessment data to be symptoms of fluid overload.

Fluid overload means your body has an excessive amount of water. the additional fluid in your body will raise your pressure level and force your heart to figure tougher. It can even create it exhausting for you to breathe. this could overwork the guts and cause failure.

The symptoms of fluid overload include rapid weight gain, swelling in your abdomen, shortness of breath, heart problems, including congestive heart failure, noticeable swelling (edema) in your arms, legs and face, high blood pressure, cramping, headache, and stomach bloating.

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what is a general guideline for fluid intake during exercise to prevent fluid loss greater than or equal to 2% of body weight? multiple choice question.

Answers

The general guideline for fluid intake during exercise to prevent fluid loss greater than or equal to 2% of body weight as to maintain ideal fluid balance in the body, fluid intake should equal fluid loss.

Which factor is responsible for ideal fluid balance?

The factor homeostasis has been responsible for or it ensures ideal fluid balance in the body when fluid intake is equal to fluid loss and the term homeostasis has been defined as to the constant internal environment of the body which is maintained by the various organs and tissues of the body was well as by behavoiral changes in the organisms.

In order to maintain ideal fluid balance in the body, fluid intake should equal fluid loss and this will help to maintain the level of water in the body and keeps the body hydrated.

Therefore, the general guideline for fluid intake during exercise to prevent fluid loss greater than or equal to 2% of body weight as to maintain ideal fluid balance in the body, fluid intake should equal fluid loss.

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the nurse is documenting assessment of infant reflexes. she strokes the side of the infant's face, and the baby turns toward the stroke. what reflex has the nurse elicited?

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The typical rooting reflex is this.Normal newborn babies that experience the rooting response will naturally turn their mouths toward the finger stated above or another touch stimulation on the cheeks or lips, sucking motions.

As they search for breasts to suckle, this reaction is crucial to effective . The rooting response is what happens when you stroke a baby's cheek and they turn to face the stimulator and start sucking. One of a baby's instinctive actions that aids in finding a breast or bottle to start feeding is the rooting reflex. It happens when a baby's lips touches skin and turns their heads as a result. For the first few months of a baby's existence, this reaction is usual.The rooting reflex is a set of uncontrollable movements and activities that occurs naturally in infants and aids in guiding the baby to the breast or bottle for eating.When a newborn’s cheek is caressed, they will immediately feel the touch; this automatic response, which is present at birth and develops in the womb, disappears by 4 months.

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the nurse is caring for two clients on the same unit. one client states that cold temperatures and loud noises are stressors. the other client says the temperature is fine and the noises do not bother him. what is the difference between the two clients related to these stressors?

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The distinction between the two clients with regard to these stressors is that the perception and consequences of stressors are very individualized.

Which query would be useful for gathering information regarding the impacts of stress across a health history?

Which query would be useful for gathering information regarding the impacts of stress across a health history? A nurse instructs a client in deep breathing techniques to help him manage his anxiety.

Which of the following claims made by a senior who has attended a session on stress management would suggest to the nurse the need for additional training?

Which comment from a senior who has taken a stress-reduction class would signal to the nurse the need for further instruction.

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a client with hypertension comes to the outpatient department for a routine checkup. because hypertension is a risk factor for cerebral hemorrhage, the nurse questions the client closely about warning signs and symptoms of hemorrhage. which complaint is a possible indicator of cerebral hemorrhage in this client? vertigo generalized seizures nausea tinnitus

Answers

Tinnitus complaint is a possible indicator of cerebral hemorrhage in this client.

What does hypertension currently mean?

A systolic bp of more than 130 mg or a diastolic pressure of more than 80 mmHg, or taking medication to treat hypertension, characterizes fully half all adults in the US (47%, or 116 million).

What, for instance, is hypertension?

When either of your vitals are frequently greater than 130/80 mm Hg, you have high blood pressure (hypertension). High blood pressure is present when the top normal blood pressure between 120 - 130 mm Hg and the bottom reading is less than 90 mm Hg.

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a client with rheumatoid arthritis is concerned because the appearance of the hands is changing. which hand deformities will the nurse expect to assess in this client?

Answers

The hand deformities the nurse expect to assess in this client will be

(a) Ulnar Deviation

(b) Swan neck deformity

What is rheumatoid arthritis ?

The hands, wrists, and knees are frequently affected by RA. When RA affects a joint, the joint's lining becomes inflamed, harming the joint tissue. Unsteadiness (lack of balance), chronic or long-lasting pain, and deformity can all result from this tissue damage.

Bilateral upper and lower extremity small joints frequently develop RA. Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints, especially the second and third MCP and PIP joints, are the joints most frequently affected in the hands.

As an autoimmune disorder, rheumatoid arthritis is brought on by the immune system attacking healthy body tissue. But the cause of this is still unknown. Your immune system typically produces antibodies that fight viruses and bacteria, aiding in the prevention of infection.

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Question 19 of 20:Select the best answer for the question.19. Why did industrialization help trigger abolitionist movements that sought to end slavery?O A. Industrialization spurred on ideas about freedom and equality that were important to the abolitionist movement.O B. As people moved across the world to find factory jobs, they observed slavery and were outraged.C. Industrialization brought wages down and brought free workers and factory owners into competition with enslaved workers and plantation owners.D. Industrialization incorporated machines, which made slavery less profitable and desirable.Mark for review (Will be highlighted on the review page)> What is an example of prior restraint ?. if monopolists are able to produce fewer goods and sell them at a higher price than they could under perfect competition, the result will be Slavery and its legitimacy first became a major issue in the united states following which event?. A recipe calls for 6 ounces of raisins. How many milligrams of raisins is this? (1 ounce = 28.35 grams and 1 gram = 1,000 milligrams) 170.1 milligrams 1,701 milligrams 17,010 milligrams 170,100 milligrams In the _____ phase of the decision making process, managers set criteria for the evaluation of alternative potential solutions. aidan, age 6, holds a pencil with his thumb, index finger, and middle finger, with his closer to the tip than to the end. aidan is using a(n) . By devaluating the bolivar, the president of Venezuela has? What would happen to the gravitational force felt between two objects if the radius between them were doubled?. A cell has a mutation that results in higher levels of phosphorylated proteins than normal cells without the mutation. What kind of mutation could have occurred and what reasoning leads to this claim?. Write a prose paraphrase of the poem "The Unknown Citizen." This paraphrase should be detailed enough to make the poem's content clear and be at least 250 words in length.The Unknown CitizenW. H. Auden - 1907-1973(To JS/07 M 378This Marble Monument Is Erected by the State)He was found by the Bureau of Statistics to beOne against whom there was no official complaint,And all the reports on his conduct agreeThat, in the modern sense of an old-fashioned word, he was a saint,For in everything he did he served the Greater Community.Except for the War till the day he retiredHe worked in a factory and never got fired,But satisfied his employers, Fudge Motors Inc.Yet he wasn't a scab or odd in his views,For his Union reports that he paid his dues,(Our report on his Union shows it was sound)And our Social Psychology workers foundThat he was popular with his mates and liked a drink.The Press are convinced that he bought a paper every dayAnd that his reactions to advertisements were normal in every way.Policies taken out in his name prove that he was fully insured,And his Health-card shows he was once in hospital but left it cured.Both Producers Research and High-Grade Living declareHe was fully sensible to the advantages of the Instalment PlanAnd had everything necessary to the Modern Man,A phonograph, a radio, a car and a frigidaire.Our researchers into Public Opinion are contentThat he held the proper opinions for the time of year;When there was peace, he was for peace: when there was war, he went.He was married and added five children to the population,Which our Eugenist says was the right number for a parent of his generation.And our teachers report that he never interfered with their education.Was he free? Was he happy? The question is absurd:Had anything been wrong, we should certainly have heard. a prologue of a book is an example of a _____ message . Is Montresor an unreliable narrator? Do any of thedetails suggest that he may have imagined the whole story?Can you find evidence in the story to support Montresor'sclaim of insult to him? A robot spacecraft returned samples from the planetesimal 98765 aleks, located in the outer solar system. Mass-spectroscopic analysis produced the following data on the isotopes of ruthenium in these samples: isotope mass (amu) relative abundance use these measurements to complete the entry for ruthenium in the periodic table that would be used on 98765 aleks. Round your entry for the atomic mass to significant digits. Caution: your correct answer will have the same format but not necessarily the same numbers as the entry for ruthenium in the periodic table we use here on earth. if any given voter has a chance of being in a survey, the sample is best described as a sample. A big storage tank contains 1680 gallons of gasoline. 25 cars filled their tanks with 24 gallons of gas each. 35 trucks put 30 gallons of gas in each of their tanks. How many gallons of gas are left in the big storage tank?A) 90 gallons of gasB) 60 gallons of gasC) 30 gallons of gasD) No gas is left in the big tank There are about 30.5 centimeters in a foot. There are 3 feet in a yard. About how many centimeters are in a yard? Which has a higher melting tempera-ture, magnesium-rich pyroxene or iron-richpyroxene? Explain your reasoning. Could Nozick's argument be used to support reparations for descendants of African American slaves? Two different mixtures that are dissolving sugar and salt are described below:Mixture 1: Large chunks of sugar and salt are put into a pot of water and slowly stirred.Mixture 2: Small grains of sugar and salt are stirred into a hot pot of water.Which statement is true about dissolving? (2 points)Group of answer choicesThe two mixtures will dissolve the sugar and salt at the same rate.Mixture 1 will dissolve the sugar and salt at a faster rate.Mixture 2 will dissolve the sugar and salt at a faster rate.Mixture 2 will not dissolve the sugar and salt at all.