a company is selling some equipment for 120,000. the book value is 100,000 and the tax rate is 35%. are the cash flows related to this sale:

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Answer 1

The book value of an asset is the value at which it is carried on the company's balance sheet, based on its original cost minus any accumulated depreciation. In this case, the equipment being sold has a book value of 100,000, which means that it has been depreciated by 20,000 (120,000 - 100,000) over its useful life.

The tax rate refers to the percentage of the sale price that the company will have to pay in taxes. In this case, the tax rate is 35%, which means that the company will have to pay 35% of the sale price of 120,000 in taxes.

Now, let's look at the cash flows related to this sale. When the equipment is sold for 120,000, the company will receive that amount as cash inflow. However, since the book value of the equipment is only 100,000, the company will have to recognize a gain of 20,000 (120,000 - 100,000) on the sale. This gain will be subject to the 35% tax rate, which means that the company will have to pay 7,000 (20,000 x 35%) in taxes on the gain.

So, the cash flows related to this sale can be summarized as follows:

Cash inflow from sale: 120,000
Gain on sale: 20,000
Taxes on gain: 7,000

Therefore, the net cash flow from this sale will be 113,000 (120,000 - 7,000), which is the amount that the company will actually receive after paying taxes on the gain. It is important to note that the cash flows related to this sale will have an impact on the company's financial statements, specifically on its income statement and cash flow statement.

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Related Questions

If, in the aggregate, consumers spend 75 cents of every extra dollar received, then the MPS is 0.75. APC is 0.75. APC is 1.25. O MPC is 0.75.

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Based on the information provided, we can determine the values for Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS), Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC), and Average Propensity to Consume (APC).

1. If consumers spend 75 cents of every extra dollar received, this means they save the remaining portion. Since a dollar has 100 cents, the MPS can be calculated as follows:

MPS = 1 - 0.75 (portion spent)
MPS = 0.25

2. Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is the portion spent, which is given as 75 cents of every extra dollar. Therefore, MPC is:

MPC = 0.75

3. To determine the APC, we need more information about the total income and consumption levels. The values given in the question (1.25 and 0.75) are not enough to determine the correct APC. However, we can conclude the following from the information given:

MPS = 0.25
MPC = 0.75
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once a dissenting shareholder elects appraisal rights, the shareholder loses his or her shareholder status. true false

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False. Electing appraisal rights does not result in the loss of shareholder status.

Shareholders who dissent from a corporate action and demand appraisal of the fair value of their shares are entitled to be paid the appraised value of their shares and retain their shareholder status. The appraisal process typically involves a court proceeding or arbitration to determine the fair value of the shares, which the company is then required to pay to the dissenting shareholders. The purpose of appraisal rights is to protect minority shareholders from being forced to sell their shares in situations where they do not agree with a corporate action that is approved by the majority of shareholders.

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False. Once a dissenting shareholder elects appraisal rights, the shareholder does not lose his or her shareholder status. Electing appraisal rights does not result in the loss of shareholder status.

Appraisal rights are a legal mechanism that allows dissenting shareholders to dissent from certain corporate actions, such as mergers or acquisitions, and seek a fair appraisal of the value of their shares. By exercising appraisal rights, shareholders have the opportunity to have their shares independently valued by the court or an appraiser.

While the dissenting shareholder may have certain rights and remedies related to the appraisal process, such as the right to receive fair value for their shares, they still retain their status as shareholders during this process. They continue to hold their shares and may be entitled to any distributions or dividends associated with their ownership.

It's important to note that the specifics of appraisal rights can vary by jurisdiction and the applicable laws governing shareholder rights. Therefore, it's advisable to consult the relevant legal statutes and seek professional advice in specific cases to understand the precise implications of exercising appraisal rights.

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marketing misnomers occur because many people think of marketing as __________.

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Answer:

Explanation:

Marketing misnomers occur because many people think of marketing as only advertising and promotion.

While advertising and promotion are important components of marketing, they are just a small part of a broader set of activities that comprise marketing. Marketing involves identifying and understanding customer needs and wants, developing products and services that meet those needs, pricing and distributing products and services effectively, and communicating with customers to build relationships and create value.

Marketing also includes activities such as market research, product development, branding, distribution, pricing, and customer relationship management. Effective marketing requires a strategic approach that considers the entire customer experience and involves ongoing monitoring and evaluation of marketing performance.

Unfortunately, many people have a narrow or limited view of marketing that focuses only on advertising and promotion, leading to marketing misnomers and misunderstandings. It is important to recognize the full scope of marketing and to approach marketing activities in a strategic and comprehensive way to achieve business goals and create customer value.

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According to Prahalad and Hamel, a core competence has all of the following characteristics except:
A) potential access to a wide variety of markets.
B) a significant contribution to perceived customer benefits.
C) it is easy for competitors to imitate.
D) benefits to customers.
E) it is difficult for competitors to imitate.

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According to Prahalad and Hamel, a core competence has all of the following characteristics except C) it is easy for competitors to imitate. Prahalad and Hamel defined core competencies as the unique strengths and abilities of an organization that allow it to outperform its competitors, and they identified three key characteristics of core competencies:

A) potential access to a wide variety of markets,

B) a significant contribution to perceived customer benefits, and

E) it is difficult for competitors to imitate.

Core competencies provide a competitive advantage by enabling a company to create and deliver unique value to its customers, which cannot be easily replicated by competitors. However, if a core competence is easy for competitors to imitate, it would not provide a sustainable competitive advantage. Therefore, the lack of difficulty in imitation is not a characteristic of a core competence, as per Prahalad and Hamel.

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Which of the following has a restriction on the number of owners, members, orstockholders? a.S-corporation b. Not-for-profitcorporation c. Open corporation.

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S-corporation has a restriction on the number of owners, members, or stockholders. S-corporations are a type of corporation that elects to pass corporate income, losses, deductions, and credits through to their shareholders for federal tax purposes.

To qualify as an S-corporation, a corporation must meet several requirements, including the restriction on the number of shareholders.

According to the Internal Revenue Service (IRS), S-corporations are limited to 100 shareholders and can have only one class of stock. This restriction is designed to prevent large, publicly-traded companies from using the S-corporation structure to avoid paying taxes.

By limiting the number of shareholders, S-corporations can maintain a more closely-held ownership structure and still receive the tax benefits of pass-through taxation.

In contrast, not-for-profit corporations and open corporations do not have restrictions on the number of owners, members, or stockholders. Not-for-profit corporations are typically formed for charitable, educational, or religious purposes and are exempt from federal income taxes. Open corporations, also known as publicly-traded corporations, can issue and trade shares of stock on public exchanges and have no restrictions on the number of shareholders.

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what agency can help you when you have been "riped off" as a consumer?
A: IRS
B:DOE
C:FTC
D:FBI​

Answers

Answer: FTC

Explanation:

Federal Trade Commission(FTC):

The FTC enforces federal consumer protection laws that prevent fraud, deception and unfair business practices. The Commission also enforces federal antitrust laws that prohibit anticompetitive mergers and other business practices that could lead to higher prices, fewer choices, or less innovation.

you put money into an account and earn a real interest rate of 5 percent. inflation is 2 percent, and your marginal tax rate is 35 percent. what is your after-tax real rate of interest?

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The after-tax real rate of interest is 2.25 percent.

First, we need to find the after-tax nominal rate of interest. The nominal interest rate is 5 percent, and your marginal tax rate is 35 percent.

So, the after-tax nominal interest rate is 5% * (1 - 0.35) = 3.25 percent.
Next, we need to account for inflation, which is 2 percent.

To find the after-tax real rate of interest, we use the formula: (1 + after-tax nominal rate) / (1 + inflation rate) - 1 = (1 + 0.0325) / (1 + 0.02) - 1 = 0.0225 or 2.25 percent.


Summary: Considering the given real interest rate, inflation, and marginal tax rate, your after-tax real rate of interest is 2.25 percent.

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50.0% complete question which of the following likely has the highest credit score? a.sally has 5 credit cards, credit utilization of 40% and a perfect payment history for 5 years. b.ralph has 3 credit cards, credit utilization of 20%, an installment loan, a mortgage, and a perfect payment history for 3 years. c.jack's only debt is 2 credit cards totaling $50,000 limit. d.francine has a 30-year mortgage in the 10th year with a perfect payment history. this is her only debt

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Among the given options, Ralph (option B) likely has the highest credit score.


Ralph has a diverse mix of credit (credit cards, installment loan, and mortgage), a lower credit utilization of 20%, and a perfect payment history for 3 years.

Although Sally has a longer payment history, her credit utilization is higher at 40%. Jack's only debt is the high credit card limit, and Francine has a single type of credit (mortgage) in her profile.


Summary: Considering credit utilization, payment history, and credit mix, Ralph is the most likely to have the highest credit score.

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godzilla corp. has the following account balances on december 31st: sales revenues (100% on credit) $3,450,000 sales discounts $44,000 sales returns and allowances 110,000 accounts receivable 300,000 allowance for doubtful accounts (credit balance before adjustment) 5,000 godzilla estimates that their bad debt expense will be 2% of net credit sales. what is the net realizable value of account receivable on the december 31st balance sheet?

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The net realizable value of accounts receivable on the December 31st balance sheet is $290,000.

To calculate this, we first need to calculate the net credit sales, which is the total sales revenue ($3,450,000) minus the sales discounts ($44,000) and sales returns and allowances ($110,000), which comes out to be $3,296,000. Next, we need to estimate the amount of bad debt expense, which is 2% of the net credit sales, or $65,920. This amount needs to be added to the allowance for doubtful accounts to arrive at the new credit balance, which is $70,920. To calculate the net realizable value of accounts receivable, we need to subtract the allowance for doubtful accounts ($70,920) from the accounts receivable balance ($300,000), which gives us a net realizable value of $229,080. Therefore, the net realizable value of accounts receivable on the December 31st balance sheet is $290,000 ($229,080 + $70,920).

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What are TWO types of errors which would not be disclosed by a trial balance?​

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Answer:

Let me explain

Explanation:

A trial balance is a statement that lists all the accounts in the general ledger along with their debit or credit balances. It is used to ensure that the total debits equal the total credits and to detect any errors in the accounting records. However, there are certain types of errors that may not be disclosed by a trial balance. Two examples of such errors are:

1. Error of Omission: This type of error occurs when a transaction is completely left out of the accounting records. For example, if a payment is made to a supplier but is not recorded in the accounts payable ledger, the trial balance will still balance because the payment is recorded in the cash account. However, the accounts payable balance will be understated, and the financial statements will be incorrect.

2. Error of Commission: This type of error occurs when a transaction is recorded incorrectly. For example, if a payment of $1,000 is recorded as $100 in the accounts payable ledger, the trial balance will not balance because the total debits will not equal the total credits. However, the error will not be immediately obvious, and it may be difficult to locate and correct.

In summary, a trial balance may not detect errors of omission, where transactions are completely left out of the accounting records, and errors of commission, where transactions are recorded incorrectly.

When equipment that is to be used by the General Fund is received, what debit should be recorded? Expenditures Equipment Appropriations Encumbrances

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When equipment that is to be used by the General Fund is received, the debit that should be recorded is for the Equipment account.

What is this used for?

This account is used to track all equipment that is owned by the organization and is used to produce goods or services.

The expenditure is not recorded at this point because the equipment has not yet been put into use. However, an encumbrance may be recorded if a purchase order has been issued but the equipment has not yet been received.

Appropriations are used to allocate funds for a specific purpose, and would not be relevant in this situation unless the equipment was specifically funded through an appropriation.

Overall, the Equipment account is the primary account that should be debited when equipment is received for use by the General Fund.

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.A company can improve its return on equity (ROE) by changing its capital structure.
True/False?

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True. A company's return on equity (ROE) can be improved by changing its capital structure. ROE is a financial metric that measures a company's profitability by showing how much profit it generates with the shareholders' equity. A higher ROE indicates that a company is effectively using its shareholders' equity to generate profits. Changing the capital structure can have a significant impact on a company's ROE. For instance, if a company raises more debt and uses it to repurchase shares, its ROE will increase. This is because debt is cheaper than equity, and repurchasing shares reduces the equity base, which in turn increases the ROE. However, changing the capital structure can also increase the financial risk of a company, which could have negative consequences if the company experiences financial difficulties.

.A company can improve its return on equity (ROE) by changing its capital structure. True.

Return on equity (ROE) is a measure of a company's profitability that reflects how much profit it generates with the shareholder's equity invested in the business. By changing its capital structure, a company can alter the amount of debt and equity financing it uses to fund its operations. The use of debt financing, in particular, can boost ROE by reducing the amount of equity required to fund the company's operations.

This is because debt financing is typically cheaper than equity financing, and so a higher proportion of debt in the capital structure can lead to lower overall financing costs, which can increase profitability and, in turn, ROE. However, increasing leverage also increases financial risk, so companies must carefully balance the benefits of leverage with the risks of potential financial distress.

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h dies in 2022 with a gross estate of $13 million. h leaves $6,000,000 to a grandchild, $1,000,000 outright to w, and $6,000,000 in a qtip trust with remainder to a grandchild. h's executor makes a qtip election for the trust. what is the amount of the marital deduction? group of answer choices $0

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The marital deduction is a tax deduction that allows an individual to transfer an unlimited amount of assets to their spouse upon their death without incurring any federal estate or gift tax. However, in this scenario, h did not leave any assets directly to their spouse, w. Instead, they left $6,000,000 in a qtip trust with remainder to a grandchild.

A Qualified Terminable Interest Property (QTIP) trust allows an individual to provide for their surviving spouse while maintaining control over how their assets are distributed after their spouse's death. In this case, h's executor made a qtip election for the trust, which means that the trust assets will be eligible for the marital deduction.

The amount of the marital deduction is equal to the value of the property that passes to the surviving spouse. Since no assets were directly left to the surviving spouse, the marital deduction would be $0. However, the $6,000,000 in the qtip trust will be eligible for the marital deduction upon the death of the surviving spouse, assuming they are a US citizen.

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which of the following assets is deducted from common equity tier i capital? a. bank premises. b. trademarks. c. goodwill. d. patents.

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 The correct answer to your question is c. Goodwill. Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital is a measure of a bank's financial strength, which is important for maintaining stability in the banking system. When calculating CET1 capital, certain assets are deducted to better assess the bank's true financial position.

Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital is a regulatory measure of a bank's financial strength and ability to withstand losses. It comprises mainly common stock and retained earnings. When calculating CET1 capital, certain assets are deducted to account for their illiquid nature or potential volatility in value. Out of the options given, goodwill is typically deducted from CET1 capital as it represents the excess amount paid for an acquisition beyond the net asset value. Patents and trademarks are considered intangible assets that may or may not be deducted depending on their level of liquidity and marketability. Bank premises, on the other hand, are not typically deducted from CET1 capital but are subject to specific risk weightings. Overall, it's important to understand how different assets are treated under CET1 capital rules to assess a bank's capital adequacy.

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Silo Corp. was organized on March 1, 2019, and began doing business on September 1, 2019, and elected to file its income tax return on a calendar-year basis. The following qualifying organizational expenditures were incurred in organizing the corporation:
July 1, 2019 $3,000
September 3, 2019 5,600
The maximum allowable deduction for organizational expenditures for 2019 is
A. $ 600.
B. $3,000.
C. $5,000.
D. $5,080.

Answers

The maximum allowable deduction for organizational expenditures for 2019 is $5,000. This is because the total qualifying organizational expenditures incurred in organizing the corporation is $8,600 ($3,000 + $5,600), which exceeds the maximum deduction limit of $5,000.

However, the portion of the organizational expenditures that exceed the limit can be amortized over a period of 180 months (15 years), starting from the month that the corporation begins business.

In this case, Silo Corp. began doing business on September 1, 2019, so any portion of the organizational expenditures that exceed the $5,000 limit can be amortized starting from September 2019 over the next 180 months.

Therefore, the deduction for 2019 will be limited to $5,000.

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In determining the cost of bank financing, which is the important factor? A. Prime rate B. Nominal rate C. Effective rate D. Discount rate.

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In determining the cost of bank financing, the important factor to consider is the effective rate. While all the other factors, such as prime rate, nominal rate, and discount rate, play a role in determining the cost of bank financing, the effective rate.

The effective rate is the actual interest rate that the borrower will pay over the life of the loan, including any fees, charges, or points associated with the loan.

This is different from the nominal rate, which is the stated interest rate on the loan, and the prime rate, which is the interest rate that banks charge their most creditworthy customers. The discount rate, on the other hand, is the interest rate that the Federal Reserve charges banks for short-term loans. While these factors can all impact the cost of bank financing, the effective rate provides a more accurate picture of the total cost of the loan, making it the most important factor to consider when determining the cost of bank financing. Therefore, it is important for borrowers to carefully review the terms and conditions of any loan they are considering, including the effective rate, in order to make an informed decision.

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What was the relationship between unemployment and immigration during the Great Recession?
A. Anxiety over illegal immigration rose
B. Jobless Americans easily migrated to other countries for work
C. Unemployed workers got work in immigration welcome centers

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is: A. Anxiety over illegal immigration rose

Explanation:

During the Great Recession, the unemployment rate in the United States rose to 10%. This led to increased anxiety over illegal immigration, as many Americans believed that undocumented immigrants were taking jobs away from citizens. This anxiety was compounded by the fact that many undocumented immigrants were working in low-wage jobs that were particularly vulnerable to economic downturns.

The other options are incorrect. Jobless Americans did not easily migrate to other countries for work, as most countries were also experiencing economic downturns. Unemployed workers did not get work in immigration welcome centers, as these centers were primarily focused on providing services to new immigrants.

The Great Recession had a significant impact on immigration to the United States. The number of immigrants coming to the United States declined sharply, and the number of undocumented immigrants in the country decreased. The recession also led to increased anxiety over illegal immigration, as many Americans believed that undocumented immigrants were taking jobs away from citizens.

An ambidextrous organization allows research and development to explore innovation while also
Multiple choice question.
- implementing clear rules for R&D.
- removing the focus on quality culture.
- continually improving operating processes.
- tightening the budget.

Answers

An ambidextrous organization allows research and development to explore innovation while also continually improving operating processes.

An ambidextrous organization allows research and development to explore innovation while also continually improving operating processes.

This means that the organization is able to balance the exploration of new ideas and technologies with the optimization of existing processes, ensuring both growth and efficiency.

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korie wants to start her own business making custom furniture. she can purchase a factory that costs $400,000. korie currently has $500,000 in the bank earning 3 percent interest per year. refer to scenario 13-1. if korie purchases the factory with her own money, what is the annual implicit opportunity cost of purchasing the factory? a. $3,000 b. $12,000 c. $0 d. $15,000

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annual implicit opportunity cost of purchasing the factory is $12,000 (option b).

The annual implicit opportunity cost of purchasing the factory with Korie's own money is the amount of interest she could have earned on her $400,000 if she did not use it to buy the factory. At 3 percent interest per year, Korie would earn $12,000 in interest on $400,000.
Therefore, the answer is (b) $12,000.
If Korie purchases the factory with her own money, the annual implicit opportunity cost of purchasing the factory is the foregone interest that she could have earned on her bank account.
Korie has $500,000 in the bank, earning 3 percent interest per year. If she uses $400,000 to purchase the factory, she will lose out on the interest that the $400,000 could have earned.
To calculate the opportunity cost, we can use the formula:
Opportunity cost = (Amount used for investment) x (Interest rate)
Opportunity cost = ($400,000) x (3%)
Opportunity cost = $12,000
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hoosier manufacturing operates a production shop that is designed to have the lowest unit production cost at an output rate of 100 units per hour. in the month of july, the company operated the production line for a total of 175 hours and produced 16,900 units of output. a. what was its capacity utilization rate for the month? b. now the production shop will produce a new product and need to order the new part. demand for an item is 1,000 units per year. each order placed costs $10; the annual cost to carry items in inventory is $2 each. in what quantities should the item be ordered?

Answers

The item should be ordered in quantities of 100 units.

To calculate the capacity utilization rate, we first need to determine the maximum possible output for the production line for the given time period. Maximum possible output = 100 units/hour x 175 hours = 17,500 units Actual output produced = 16,900 units Capacity utilization rate = Actual output produced / Maximum possible output x 100 Capacity utilization rate = 16,900 / 17,500 x 100 = 96.57% Therefore, the capacity utilization rate for the month of July was 96.57%.  

To determine the order quantity for the new part, we can use the economic order quantity (EOQ) formula: EOQ = √(2SD/H) Where: S = Annual demand for the item (1,000 units per year) D = Cost to place an order ($10) H = Annual cost to carry one unit in inventory ($2) Plugging in the values: EOQ = √(2 x 1,000 x 10 / 2) EOQ = √(10,000) EOQ = 100 Therefore, the item should be ordered in quantities of 100 units.

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in the united states, the loss in economic efficiency due to market power is

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In the United States, market power refers to the ability of a firm or group of firms to exert control over the prices and quantities of goods and services in a particular market. When a firm has significant market power, it can charge higher prices and reduce output levels, leading to a loss in economic efficiency.

This loss in efficiency occurs because the market power restricts the competition, which reduces the incentives for firms to innovate, produce high-quality goods, and reduce costs. The result is that consumers end up paying more for the same goods and services, and the economy produces fewer goods and services than it would in a perfectly competitive market. According to the Department of Justice, market power can lead to a loss of economic efficiency of up to 10% of GDP, or more than $1.5 trillion per year. Therefore, it is essential for regulators to monitor and address market power to ensure that competition thrives and that the economy operates efficiently.

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what percent of california public employees stay in california after they retire and spend their retirement checks here in california to keep the economy going?

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About 75% California public employees stay in California after they retire and spend their retirement checks here in California to keep the economy going.

In California, the annual average retirement pension for public employees is $24,000. Currently, 75% of pensioners make less than $30,000 annually. It is true that firemen retiring today (or in the years to come) will probably receive more in retirement since they made more money while they were employed, contributed more to the system, and bargained for more retirement benefits rather than cash out front.

The rates must adapt to our members' shifting demographics as the fund ages and the number of retirees rises. For California state and municipal governments across the country, the rising expense of public pensions is a major concern since guaranteed payments to retired employees have sometimes required reductions in expenditure on public services.

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which occurred in the united states in the decades after world war ii? responses high unemployment high unemployment the rise of fascism the rise of fascism economic depression economic depression the civil rights movement the civil rights movement

Answers

In the decades after World War II, the United States experienced the rise of the civil rights movement and economic prosperity.

The 1950s and 1960s saw significant progress in the civil rights movement, with landmark Supreme Court decisions such as Brown v. Board of Education and the Montgomery Bus Boycott leading to the desegregation of schools and public spaces. This era also saw the rise of prominent civil rights leaders like Martin Luther King Jr. and Malcolm X, who advocated for equal rights and nonviolent protest.
Economically, the post-war period was marked by a period of sustained growth and prosperity. The GI Bill provided educational and employment opportunities for returning veterans, while new technologies and innovations fueled economic growth. However, this period of growth was not without its challenges, as income inequality and racial disparities persisted.
Overall, the decades following World War II were characterized by significant social and economic change in the United States.

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this year andrews achieved an roe of 23.8%. suppose management takes measures that increase asset turnover (sales/total assets) next year. assuming sales, profits, and financial leverage remain the same, what effect would you expect this action to have on andrews's roe?

Answers

Increasing asset turnover will lead to an increase in Andrews's ROE, assuming sales, profits, and financial leverage remain constant.

Return on Equity (ROE) is a financial ratio that measures a company's profitability in relation to its equity. It is calculated by dividing net income by shareholders' equity. The DuPont analysis breaks down ROE into three components: net profit margin, asset turnover, and financial leverage. In this case, Andrews has achieved an ROE of 23.8%.

If management takes measures to increase asset turnover (sales/total assets) next year, while sales, profits, and financial leverage remain the same, the effect on Andrews's ROE will be positive. This is because a higher asset turnover indicates that the company is using its assets more efficiently to generate sales, which in turn leads to a higher ROE, reflecting improved overall performance and financial health.

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when price is active in the positioning, it is: select one: a. always lower than the competition. b. always changing. c. always higher than the competition. d. a very visible part of the promotion.

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When price is used as a key factor in positioning, it is not necessarily always lower than the competition.

It could be higher or in line with the competition, depending on the brand's overall strategy. However, the price should always be set at a level that provides value to the target market while also meeting the brand's profitability goals. It is not always changing either, as brands may choose to maintain a consistent pricing strategy over a long period of time. However, they may adjust prices in response to market conditions, changes in the cost of goods, or other factors. While price can be a visible part of the promotion, it is just one element of the marketing mix, alongside product, place, and promotion.

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if consumers pay 100 percent of a commodity tax, what could one conclude?

Answers

If consumers pay 100 percent of a commodity tax, it can be concluded that the tax burden falls entirely on the consumers. This means that the suppliers or producers of the commodity are able to pass on the full amount of the tax to the consumers in the form of higher prices.

This conclusion is based on the economic theory of tax incidence, which refers to the way in which the burden of a tax is distributed among different groups in an economy. The theory suggests that the ultimate incidence of a tax depends on the relative price elasticities of supply and demand for the commodity in question.If demand for the commodity is relatively inelastic, meaning that consumers are willing to pay a higher price for the commodity even if the tax is imposed, then the suppliers can pass on the full amount of the tax to the consumers. This is because the consumers have limited alternatives to the commodity and are not able to reduce their consumption in response to the higher price.On the other hand, if demand for the commodity is relatively elastic, meaning that consumers are more sensitive to changes in price and are likely to reduce their consumption if the price increases, then the suppliers may not be able to pass on the full amount of the tax to the consumers. In this case, the suppliers may have to absorb some of the tax themselves in order to maintain their sales volume.

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nadal athletic has the following transactions related to its inventory for the month of august 2022: date transactions units cost per unit total cost aug. 1 beginning inventory 7 $130 $910 aug. 4 sale ($150 each) 5 aug. 11 purchase 9 120 1,080 aug. 13 sale ($160 each) 7 aug. 20 purchase 12 110 1,320 aug. 26 sale ($170 each) 10 aug. 29 purchase 12 100 1,200 $4,510 required: what was the amount of total available inventory for august?

Answers

Nadal Athletic had a number of transactions related to its inventory during the month of August 2022. The table provided shows the date, transactions, units, cost per unit, and total cost. To determine the total available inventory for the month of August, we need to take into account the beginning inventory, purchases, and sales.

Beginning Inventory:
The beginning inventory on August 1 was 7 units with a cost of $130 per unit, for a total cost of $910.

Purchases:
There were three purchases made during the month of August. The first purchase was made on August 11 for 9 units with a cost of $120 per unit, for a total cost of $1,080. The second purchase was made on August 20 for 12 units with a cost of $110 per unit, for a total cost of $1,320. The third purchase was made on August 29 for 12 units with a cost of $100 per unit, for a total cost of $1,200.

Sales:
There were three sales made during the month of August. The first sale was made on August 4 for 5 units at a price of $150 each, for a total revenue of $750. The second sale was made on August 13 for 7 units at a price of $160 each, for a total revenue of $1,120. The third sale was made on August 26 for 10 units at a price of $170 each, for a total revenue of $1,700.

Total Available Inventory:
To determine the total available inventory for August, we need to add the beginning inventory to the total purchases and then subtract the total sales.

Beginning inventory: 7 units at a cost of $130 per unit, for a total cost of $910
Total purchases: 9 units + 12 units + 12 units = 33 units at a cost of $120 per unit, $110 per unit, and $100 per unit, respectively, for a total cost of $3,600
Total sales: 5 units + 7 units + 10 units = 22 units at a price of $150 per unit, $160 per unit, and $170 per unit, respectively, for a total revenue of $3,570

Therefore, the total available inventory for August is:
(7 + 33) - 22 = 18 units
$910 + $3,600 - $3,570 = $940

Nadal Athletic had a total of 18 units of inventory available for the month of August, with a total cost of $940.

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Which of the following can be used as a punishment for suppliers that perform poorly?
a. Billback penalty
b. Downgrade the supplier's status
c. Elimination of future business with the focal firm
d. All of these choices are correct.

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When suppliers perform poorly, there are several ways to address the issue. The correct answer is d. All of these choices are correct.

One option is to implement a billback penalty, which is a deduction from the supplier's payment for any costs incurred by the focal firm as a result of the supplier's poor performance.

Another option is to downgrade the supplier's status, which may mean reducing the volume of business given to the supplier or placing the supplier on probationary status. Lastly, elimination of future business with the focal firm is also an option, which may involve terminating the supplier relationship altogether. The choice of punishment will depend on the severity of the supplier's poor performance and the focal firm's overall relationship with the supplier. It is important to consider the potential consequences of each option, including the impact on the focal firm's reputation, relationships with other suppliers, and financial performance. Ultimately, the goal of any punishment should be to encourage improved performance and ensure that the focal firm receives the goods and services it needs to operate effectively.

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an example of ""deindustrialization"" in the united states economy is apparent in this area:

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One example of deindustrialization in the United States economy is the Rust Belt region. This area, located in the Midwest and Northeast regions of the country, was once a hub of industrial activity, particularly in the manufacturing of steel and automobiles.

However, over the past few decades, many factories and industries have closed or moved overseas, resulting in high unemployment rates and a decline in the local economy. This has led to the term "Rust Belt" due to the abandoned factories and empty warehouses that have rusted over time. The effects of deindustrialization have been felt in many other parts of the United States as well, as the economy has shifted away from manufacturing and towards service industries.

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which receivables accounting and reporting issue is essentially the same for ifrs and gaap?

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The accounting and reporting issue that is essentially the same for IFRS (International Financial Reporting Standards) and GAAP (Generally Accepted Accounting Principles) with respect to receivables is the recognition of revenue.

Both IFRS and GAAP require that revenue from the sale of goods or services be recognized when the seller transfers control of the goods or services to the buyer, and the amount of revenue recognized should reflect the consideration that the seller expects to receive in exchange for the goods or services. This is known as the revenue recognition principle.Under both IFRS and GAAP, the seller must also consider any variable consideration, such as discounts, rebates, or returns, when determining the amount of revenue to recognize. If the seller cannot reasonably estimate the amount of variable consideration, then revenue should be recognized only to the extent that it is probable that a significant reversal of revenue will not occur when the uncertainty is resolved.In addition, both IFRS and GAAP require that receivables be initially recorded at their fair value, which is the present value of the expected future cash flows. This involves estimating the amount and timing of the cash flows, and discounting them to their present value using an appropriate discount rate. Any discounts or premiums should be amortized over the life of the receivable using the effective interest method.

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