Answer:
Parathyroid gland secrets a hormone called parathyroid hormone or parathormone (PTH) which regulates calcium usage in our body.
Hope it helps!
Answer:
parathyroid gland
Explanation:
The parathyroid gland secretes parathyroid hormone (PTH) which is responsible for monitoring blood calcium levels by mobilizing calcium reserves in the bone, increasing intestinal absorption and increasing renal excretion. Another hormone involved in regulated Ca blood levels is calcitonin, secreted by the thyroid gland. It lowers Ca blood levels by increasing its deposition in the bone.
Why do you believe CCOM would provide you with the type of osteopathic medical education you are seeking
It is believed that CCOM would provide you with the type of osteopathic medical education you are looking for because it is one of the most respected medical schools in the US.
What's special about CCOM?Founded in 1900, the Chicago College of Osteopathic Medicine (CCOM) is one of the most respected medical schools in the country. CCOM embraces the osteopathic philosophy of a patient-oriented versus disease-oriented approach to health and prepares students to consider the body as an integrated whole.
With this information, we can conclude that It is believed that CCOM would provide you with the type of osteopathic medical education you are looking for because it is one of the most respected medical schools in the US.
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A 50-year-old male with diabetes has an altered mental status and is unable to tell you when he last ate or took his insulin. Your glucometer keeps malfunctioning and you are unable to determine his BG level. Which of the following clinical signs would MOST likely lead you to the correct diagnosis? A. Restlessness and irritability. B. Hypotension and tachycardia. C. Rapid and weak pulse. D. Deep and rapid breathing.
The clinical signs which would MOST likely lead to the correct diagnosis is Deep and rapid breathing; option D.
What is diabetes?
Diabetes is a disease in which the body is unable to effectively metabolize glucose to produce energy.
Diabetes is associated with high blood glucose levels.
Ketoacidosis is a serious complication of diabetes.
Ketoacidosis in diabetic patients results in Kussmaul breathing is characterized by deep, rapid, and labored breathing.
Therefore, deep and rapid breathing is the clinical signs which would most likely lead one to the correct diagnosis of ketoacidosis.
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For each macronutrient, the _______ provide a range of intake associated with good health and a reduced risk of chronic diseases while providing for recommended intakes of essential nutrients.
The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges provide a range of intake associated with good health and a reduced risk of chronic diseases while providing for recommended intakes of essential nutrients.
What are macronutrients?The macronutrients are those nutrients that the body requires in large quantities. They are very important such that if they are not consumed appreciable, a remarkable deficiency may result.
Hence, For each macronutrient, the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges provide a range of intake associated with good health and a reduced risk of chronic diseases while providing for recommended intakes of essential nutrients.
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Which CMS product describes whether specific medical items, services, treatment procedures or technologies are considered medically necessary under Medicare
The National Coverage Determinations Manual entails whether medical items, services, treatment procedures, or technologies are considered medically necessary under Medicare.
What is National Coverage Determinations Manual?Material that is unsourced may be challenged and removed. A national coverage determination (NCD) is a nationwide determination by Medicare of whether an item or service will be covered.
It is a type of utilization management that serves as a medical treatment guideline.
Thus, the National Coverage Determinations Manual describes whether specific medical items, services, treatment procedures, or technologies are considered medically necessary under Medicare.
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According to the article, how and why dos personality change later in life?
Answer:
Personality, one's characteristic way of feeling, behaving and thinking, is often conceptualized as a person's standing on each Big Five personality trait (extraversion, neuroticism, openness to experience, agreeableness and conscientiousness).
A person's personality profile is thus gauged from their standing on five broad concepts which predict, among other life outcomes, behavior and the quality of interpersonal relationships. Initially, it was believed that one's Big Five profile was static and dichotomous in that one was either at one extreme of each trait or another .For example, people are typically categorized as introverted or extraverted.
Change over a lifetime
There are two very specific types of change that researchers tend to focus on: rank-order change and mean-level change. A rank-order change refers to a change in an individual's personality trait relative to other individuals; such changes do not occur very often. A mean-level change refers to an absolute change in the individual's level of a certain trait over time. Longitudinal research shows that mean-level change does occur.However, some traits tend to change while some traits tend to stay stable.
There is an increase in consistency of a trait as age increases. However, personality does not stop changing at a specific age. Biological and social transitions in life may also be a factor for change. Biological transitions are stages like puberty or first childbirth. Social transitions might be changes in social roles like becoming a parent or working at a first job. These life transitions do not necessarily cause change, but they may be reasons for change.
One theory says that whether or not these life transitions cause personality change is based on whether the transition was expected based on age or was unforeseen.The events that are expected will cause personality change because those events have common scripts. However, events that are unexpected will give prominence to the traits that already exist for the individual.Historical context also affects personality change. Major life events can lead to changes in personality that can persist for more than a decade.
Stressful life events
Negative life events,long-term difficulties,and deteriorated life quality, all predict small but persistent increases in neuroticism, while positive life events, and improved life quality, predict small but persistent decreases in neuroticism. There appears to be no point during the lifespan that neuroticism is immutable,which is known as the plasticity principle.
Mechanisms of change
There are multiple ways for an individual's personality to change. Individuals will change their behavior based on the ideas in their environment that emit rewards and punishments. Some of these ideas might be implicit, like social roles.
The individual changes his or her personality to fit into a social role if it is favorable. An individual may decide to actively try to change his or her own behavior/ personality after thinking about his or her own actions.
Personality change also occurs when individuals observe the actions of others. Individuals may mimic the behaviors of others and then internalize those behaviors. Once the individual internalizes those behaviors they are said to be a part of that person's personality.
Individuals also receive feedback from other individuals or groups about their own personality. This is a driving force of change because the individual has social motivations to change his or her personality. It has also been shown that major positive and negative life events can predict changes in personality.
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The ________ rate is the percentage of women who experience unintended pregnancy within the first year of using a particular contraceptive.
The failure rate is the percentage of women who experience unintended pregnancy within the first year of using a particular contraceptive.
What are contraceptives?The term contraceptives refers to the drugs or pills that are taken by individuals to prevent pregnancy. In the United States, the contraceptive market is very huge but not all the contraceptives are adjudged to be effective.
The failure rate is the percentage of women who experience unintended pregnancy within the first year of using a particular contraceptive.
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Which statement is true regarding the gray matter of the brain?
Answer:
The correct answer is (a): It makes up the outer tissue layer in the brain. Gray matter consists of cell bodies and unmyelinated neural processes,...
What signs of complications and their probable causes may occur when administering an IV solution to a client
Which nursing action is most important to decrease the risk of postoperative complications in a child with sickle cell anemia
The recommended amount of vegetables in the Healthy U.S.-Style Eating Pattern at the 2,000-calorie level is _____ cup-equivalents of vegetables per day.
The recommended amount of vegetables in the Healthy U.S.-Style Eating Pattern at the 2,000-calorie level is 2.5 cup-equivalents of vegetables per day.
What are vegetables?Vegetables are a class of food that is widely consumed for the fact that they are a good source of vitamins and minerals. Vegetables are highly recommended especially for pregnant women.
The recommended amount of vegetables in the Healthy U.S.-Style Eating Pattern at the 2,000-calorie level is 2.5 cup-equivalents of vegetables per day.
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A patient has gone into cardiac arrest. Prior to the arrest, a 12-lead ECG showed flat T waves, prominent U waves and prolonged QT intervals. What underlying cause should you suspect
The underlying cause you should suspect during the 12-lead ECG test on the patient is Hypokalemia.
What is Hypokalemia?
Hypokalemia is a medical disorder that results from low levels of potassium in the blood.
During 12-lead ECG test, hypokalemia can cause dynamic changes in T-wave morphology and prolonged QT intervals.
Thus, the underlying cause you should suspect during the 12-lead ECG test on the patient is Hypokalemia.
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What information must be given to the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) when an Institutional Review Board (IRB) is renewing registration
The information that must be given to the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) when an Institutional Review Board (IRB) is renewing registration include full name, email address, and phone number.
What is Institutional Review Board (IRB)?It should be noted that Institutional Review Board (IRB) means a board that is established to protect the rights and welfare of the research subjects.
In this case, during registration, one is expected to provide full name, email address, and phone number.
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The nurse is reviewing lifestyle changes with a client who is attempting to reduce the risk for colon and prostate cancer. Which statement by the client requires further follow-up by the nurse
The statement by the client that requires further follow-up by the nurse when reviewing lifestyle changes with a client who is attempting to reduce the risk for colon and prostrate cancer is "I will stay at home to ensure that I can remain close to the toilet."
What is the usefulness of follow up on the client?Follow up help the nurse to know how the treatment of the illness is effecting on the client and this can help to know the next move.
Therefore, for colon and prostrate cancer, when the client says he will stay at home to ensure that I can remain close to the toilet means the treatment is not effecting yet.
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The membrane lining the wall of the abdominal cavity is the
Answer:
The peritoneum
Explanation:
The peritoneum
Mr. Singh would like drug coverage but does not want to be enrolled in a medicare advantage plan. What should you tell him?.
Mr. Singh can enroll in a stand-alone prescription drug plan while maintaining Part A and Part B coverage through Original Fee-for-Service Medicare. The correct option is c.
What is drug coverage?Health insurance or a plan that assists in the payment of prescription drugs and medications. Prescription drugs are covered by all Marketplace plans.
The missing options are:
a. Part D prescription drug coverage can only be obtained by enrollment into a Medicare Health Plan that also covers Part A and Part B services.b. Mr. Singh must leave Original Medicare to receive drug coverage.c. Mr. Singh can enroll in a stand-alone prescription drug plan and continue to be covered for Part A and Part B services through Original Fee-for-Service Medicare.d. Mr. Singh will have to enroll in Medicaid if he wishes to obtain prescription drug coverage through some means other than a Medicare Health Plan.Mr. Singh can enroll in a stand-alone prescription drug plan while maintaining Part A and Part B coverage through Original Fee-for-Service Medicare.
Thus, the correct option is c.
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A client with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis has frequent reports of joint pain. The plan of care should be based on the understanding that chronic pain is most effectively relieved when analgesics are administered in which way
The plan of care should be based on the understanding that chronic pain is most effectively relieved when analgesics are administered at regularly scheduled intervals.
What is Rheumatoid arthritis?Rheumatoid arthritis may be defined as an autoimmune and inflammatory disease that is responsible for attacking the healthy cells of the immune system of your body by mistakes.
During the treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis, various drugs, as well as analgesics, are effectively delivered to the patient's body to relieve that chronic pain in joints.
Such analgesics are required to be delivered or provided at regularly scheduled intervals specifically. This activity assists the patients with a lack of chronic pain and partial movements of joints.
Therefore, it is well described above.
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Josephine, a pregnant friend of yours, comes to you to ask about what could happen if she takes drugs while her baby is still developing. What should you tell her
Answer:It could lead to a stillborn birth. It could lead to the baby being underweight or premature. It could lead to a higher risk of birth defects.
Explanation:
Mark Novak is an ambulatory inpatient who needs to urinate while in the imaging department. His chart states that a urine specimen is needed. You should:
In this situation, the best is to provide the patients with appropriate supplies and clear instructions to obtain the sample required.
What should be prioritize?In this situation, both the need of the patient to urinate and the need to collect the sample are important.
What shoul be done?Based on the priorities, you should let the patient go to a restroom but also provide him with appropriate supplies and instructions to collect the urine sample.
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Medical term for shingles?
Answer:
Shingles is medically known as "herpes zoster", which comes from the varicella zoster virus.
Explanation:
Answer:
Herpes Zoster
which situation would be an indication toward the use of diathermy for its heating effects in wound healing
We have to resort to diathermy for its heating effects in wound healing when there is need for the heating of deep joints.
What is diathermy ?The term diathermy has to do with the use of electric current to produce heat in the body. This heat could be helpful in soothing an inflammation and aiding wound healing.
We have to resort to diathermy for its heating effects in wound healing when there is need for the heating of deep joints.
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Experts recommend that people increase their level of physical activity Multiple Choice gradually, with moderate-intensity exercise at random times. by starting with vigorous exercise on a regular schedule. gradually, with moderate-intensity exercise on a regular schedule. by starting with vigorous exercise at random times.
Experts recommend that people increase their level of physical activity gradually, with moderate-intensity exercise on a regular schedule.
What are training programs?In physical exercise, training programs are regular schedules aimed at improving muscle coordination and function.
Physical activities can be regularly improved with exercises that do not suppose excessive demand on the body.
In conclusion, experts recommend that people increase their level of physical activity gradually, with moderate-intensity exercise on a regular schedule.
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What bedside monitoring parameters are used to assess for adequacy of oxygenation and effectiveness of ventilation?
Answer:
Pulse oximetry and capnography are used to ensure that appropriate oxygenation and ventilation are achieved and maintained. Assessments of driving pressure, transpulmonary pressure, and the pressure-volume loop are performed to ensure that adequate PEEP is applied and excess distending pressure is minimized.
Explanation:
what validated abbreviated out of hospital neurologic evaluation tool
The abbreviated out-of-hospital neurological assessment tool is performed by minimal procedures for the assessment of the face, upper limbs and lower limbs without the use of equipment.
How should the neurological assessment be performed?The exam basically consists of anamnesis and physical assessment. The idea is that, at the end of the evaluation, it will be possible to describe a comprehensive neurological physical examination and identify abnormalities that signal neurological impairment.
With this information, we can conclude that the abbreviated out-of-hospital neurological assessment tool is performed by minimal procedures for the assessment of the face, upper limbs and lower limbs without the use of equipment.
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which of the following techniques should be avoided when massaging appendages presenting with signs of overuse such as varicose veins
"The technique which should be avoided among the answer choices is; Choice D; Deep effleurage proximal to distal, medial to lateral.
Which of the techniques in the task content should be avoided?It follows from the task content that while massaging appendages with signs of overuse, it is important to avoid effleurage distal to proximal, lateral and medial as such technique has negative impact on the appendages.
Remarks;
a. Deep effleurage proximal to distal, medial to lateral.
b. Petrissage, to mimic the contractions used in exercise.
c. ""Toward the heart"" where strokes move in the direction of the venous return.
d. Deep effleurage distal to proximal, lateral to medial.
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The community health nurse is planning an education program for adolescents about skin care for acne vulgaris. Which of the following should the nurse implement?
The nurse should implement products containing benzoyl peroxide in education program for adolescents about skin care for acne vulgaris.
What is acne vulgaris?Acne vulgaris is a skin condition in teenagers and adolescents which usually occurs when the hair follicles plug with oil and dead skin cells.So therefore, the nurse should implement products containing benzoyl peroxide in education program for adolescents about skin care for acne vulgaris
Therefore, the nurse should implement products containing benzoyl peroxide in education program for adolescents.
Complete question:
A) Avoid playing contact sports during the acute phase of the illness.
B) Client will verbalize a decrease in lesions by next visit.
C) Expose the feet to air whenever possible.
D) implement products containing benzoyl peroxide in education program
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Barbiturates and benzodiazepines are included in which category of drugs?.
Answer:
sedative-hypnotic drugs and central nervous depressants
Explanation:
Why cant you have grapefruit with certain medications.
Answer:
Many drugs are broken down (metabolized) with the help of a vital enzyme called CYP3A4 in the small intestine. Grapefruit juice can block the action of intestinal CYP3A4, so instead of being metabolized, more of the drug enters the blood and stays in the body longer. The result: too much drug in your body
Explanation:
According to the World Health Organization, a BMI lower than ____ is an indication of malnourishment.
According to the World Health Organization, a BMI lower than 25.9 to 29.1 BMI s an indication of malnourishment.
What is the BMI range?According to the National Institutes of Health (NIH) and the World Health Organization (WHO), BMI range between 18.5 and 24.9 is considered as healthy.
Also, World Health Organization (WHO) has defined the category as Overweight in a BMI range of 25.0 to 29.9, obesity in a BMI range of over 30.0 and lastly severe obesity for BMI greater than or equal to 35.
Thus, this could be the answer.
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What is the status in DAX Studio after you add a patient's name to a note?
REMOVED
ACTIVE
In Progress
Available
The status in DAX Studio after you add a patient's name to a note is ACTIVE, thus having this status given by that application.
ACTIVE
What is DAX Studio?
DAX (Data Analysis Expressions) is a formula expression language used in
Analysis ServicesPower BIand Power Pivot in Excel.DAX formulas include functions, operators, and values to perform advanced calculations and queries on data in related tables and columns in tabular data models.
With this information, we can conclude that the status in DAX Studio after you add a patient's name to a note is ACTIVE, thus having this status given by that application.
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What impact, if any, have recent regulatory changes had upon Medigap plans?
The Part B deductible will no longer be covered for individuals newly eligible for Medicare starting January 1, 2020.
What is MACRA?It has an impact of Medigap plan also, which are provided to cover the cost which are not provided in the original medicare, and the coverage of this is affected by MACRA. Through this some extra health care cost which were not paid by share of medicare.
Thus this could be the answer.
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