a nurse in a healthcare provider's office teaches a client how to apply plastic film as an occlusive dressing to cover a medicated ointment applied to the arm. what important teaching point would be included by the nurse?

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Answer 1

In the Emergency Management of Severe Burns course, household plastic wrap has been suggested as a suitable acute burn wound treatment.

What is dressing for occlusive film?

A non-permeable dressing, such as an occlusive dressing, prevents air or moisture from entering or leaving the wound.

A semi-occlusive (semi-permeable, translucent) dressing shields the wound from external liquids while allowing the wound to "breathe" (air can penetrate in and out).

Occlusive or semi-occlusive interactive synthetic polymer dressings operate as a barrier to prevent bacterial entry of the wound.

Gauze and tulle are two examples of these passive synthetic polymers.

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Related Questions

Can nystatin neomycin sulfate thiostrepton triamcinolone acetonide be used for dogs and cats?

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Yes, nystatin neomycin sulfate thiostrepton triamcinolone acetonide can be used for dogs and cats. Because the drug is specifically for skin diseases in dogs or cats.

Nystatin neomycin sulfate thiostrepton triamcinolone acetone Cream combines nystatin, neomycin sulfate, thiostrepton, and triamcinolone acetonide.

Based on its four active ingredients, Nystatin Neomycin Sulfate Thiostrepton Triamcinolone Acetone Cream provides four basic therapeutic actions: anti-inflammatory, antipruritic, antifungal, and antibacterial.

Nystatin Neomycin Sulfate Thiostrepton Triamcinolone Acetone Cream is indicated for the treatment of skin diseases in dogs and cats, characterized by inflammation and dry or exudative rashes, especially complicated or threatened by bacterial or Candida (Candida albicans) infections. It is also useful for treating eczema; Contact dermatitis and seborrheic dermatitis and as an adjunct in the treatment of parasitic eczema.

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the nurse in the neurologic icu is caring for a client who sustained a severe brain injury. which nursing measures will the nurse implement to help control intracranial pressure (icp)?

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The nurse in the neurologic ICU is caring for a client who sustained a severe brain injury. The nursing measures will the nurse implement to help control intracranial pressure is Maintain cerebral perfusion pressure from 50 to 70 mm Hg.

What is cerebral perfusion pressure?The net pressure gradient that causes the supply of oxygen to cerebral tissue is called cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP). It is the difference in millimetres of mercury between mean arterial pressure (MAP) and intracranial pressure (ICP), both of which are measured in millimeters (mm Hg). Mean artery pressure (MAP) and internal cerebral pressure (ICP) are two measurements used to determine cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP). Brain blood flow is referred to as cerebral perfusion pressure. The cerebral perfusion pressure is influenced by intracranial pressure and blood pressure. The blood supply to the brain may be restricted by low blood pressure and/or high intracranial pressure. As a result, the cerebral perfusion pressure declines.For enhanced ICP control, the nurse should maintain cerebral perfusion pressure between 50 and 70 mm Hg. The use of stool softeners, maintaining body temperature within normal ranges, administering oxygen to keep PaO2 above 90 mm Hg, maintaining fluid balance with regular saline solution, and avoiding noxious stimuli (such as excessive suctioning or uncomfortable procedures) are additional precautions.

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which of the following is prohibited in a licensed establishment? (a) using invasive skin-removal techniques, products, and practices. (b) neck dusters. (c) nail dusters. (d) all of the above

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Using invasive skin-removal techniques, products, and practices, neck dusters and nail dusters are  prohibited in a licensed establishment.

hence the answer is All of the above (d)

What prohibition Act?The phrase "prohibition" refers to the act or practise of restricting anything by law; more specifically, it describes the prohibition of alcoholic beverage production, storage (whether in barrels or bottles), transportation, sale, possession, and consumption.The act of prohibiting anything, such as when my mother forbade viewing television during dinner, is known as prohibition (causing everyone to skip dinner). The ban of alcoholic beverages from 1920 to 1933 is one of the most well-known examples of prohibition in American history.

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Using invasive skin-removal techniques, products, and practices, neck dusters and nail dusters are  Prohibition Act in a licensed establishment. The answer is option (d). All of the above.

What Prohibition Act?The term "prohibition" relates to the act or practise of limiting anything by law; more particularly, it refers to the ban on the production, storing, transport, distribution, ownership, & drinking of alcoholic beverages (whether in barrel or bottles).The act of restricting anything, like when my mother outlawed watching television during dinner (leading to everyone skipping meals), is referred to as prohibition. One of the most well-known instances of prohibition in American history is the prohibition on alcoholic beverages from 1920 to 1933.

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the nurse would implement which actions in the care of a child who is having a seizure? select all that apply.

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Using fewer ladders and making one's home fall-proof are two additional potential elements.

When instituting seizure precautions which of the following is included?

Maintain a flat, supine posture; turn your head to the side while having a seizure; remove any clothing that is tight around your chest, abdomen, or neck; suction as necessary; and monitor the use of supplemental oxygen or bag ventilation as post-ictally indicated.

Take a shower instead of a bath and cook on the stove's rear burner as examples of seizure prevention measures that involve heat and water safety. Reduced ladder use and fall-proofing of one's home are further potential components.

To relieve pressure on the spinal sac, position the infant on its side. Giving a patient the greatest amount of independence and the best possible quality of life is the fundamental long-term goal of treating cerebral palsy.

Remove anything sharp or hard from the area around the person to avoid injuries. Place a folded jacket or other soft, flat object under the person's head as you lower him to the ground. Remove eyeglasses and untie any ties or other anything around the neck that could restrict breathing. Use your watch to time the seizure.

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a client with an acute episode of ulcerative colitis is admitted to the hospital. blood studies reveal that the chloride level is low. which would the nurse be prepared to administer to the client?

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The intravenous therapy ensures a well-controlled methodology for electrolyte (chloride) replacement, and the nurse anticipates that the electrolyte deficiency will be remedied by this method.

What reported clinical symptoms would a client with ulcerative colitis exhibit, in the nurse's opinion?Diarrhea, loss of appetite, cramping in the abdomen, anemia, and bowel movements with blood or pus are a few of them. Inflammatory bowel disease cannot be cured.Clinically, ulcerative colitis is typically marked by gastrointestinal bleeding, whereas Crohn's disease is more frequently characterized by stomach pain and perianal disease.The intravenous therapy ensures a well-controlled methodology for electrolyte (chloride) replacement, and the nurse anticipates that the electrolyte deficiency will be remedied by this method.Clinically, ulcerative colitis is typically marked by gastrointestinal bleeding, whereas Crohn's disease is more frequently characterized by stomach pain and perianal disease.      

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a 32-year-old female patient is referred to ultrasound for a breast examination. ultrasound demonstrates 3 small simple cysts at 3:00 in her right breast. what is the most probable treatment?

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The intermediate category of the breast imaging reporting and data system is called BI-RADS 3.

What does a breast ultrasound Category 3 mean?The intermediate category of the breast imaging reporting and data system is called BI-RADS 3. A discovery that falls within this group is thought to be most likely benign, with a malignancy risk of between > 0% and 2%.With cystic dilatation of individual acini, clustered microcysts indicate the terminal duct lobular unit or a piece of it (1–3). Among the benign fibrocystic changes of the breast, which also include simple cysts, fibrosis, and adenosis, clustered microcysts are one kind (1). They often seem smooth, rounded, and black on ultrasonography. Cysts can occasionally lack these distinguishing characteristics, making it challenging to tell them apart from solid (non-fluid) lesions just by looking.

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the current recommendation to maintain your body weight is 2000 calories daily. if you are told that you should not consume any more than 52 % of your calories from carbohydrates, how many grams of carbohydrates should you eat in a day?

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If we should not consume more than 52% of our calories from carbohydrates, we should eat 260 grams of carbs per day.

The current recommendation for calorie intake to maintain body weight is 2000 calories per day. If the recommendation is to consume no more than 52% of those calories from carbohydrates, that translates to 52/100 x 2000 = 1040 calories from carbohydrates.

Since there are 4 calories in each gram of carbohydrates, to determine the number of grams of carbohydrates you should eat in a day, divide the number of calories from carbohydrates by the number of calories per gram.

Therefore, 1040 calories/4 calories/gram equal 260 grams of carbohydrates per day, which is the recommended amount.

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chief complaint of ear sudden onset of pain, popping noises, and muffled hearing. during the ear exam the np notices that the tm has ruptured. the first line treatment for bryce would be:

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Antibiotic drops should be administered to Bryce as the first course of treatment.Within a few weeks, the majority of perforated or ruptured eardrums recover on their own.

Following an eardrum rupture, is hearing possible?Acutely ruptured eardrums typically cause temporary hearing loss. After the eardrum heals, normal hearing normally returns. The possibility of ongoing hearing loss exists when a perforated tympanic membrane does not mend.Within a few weeks, the majority of perforated or ruptured eardrums recover on their own. In the event that an infection is present, your doctor might recommend antibiotic drops. Procedures to close the rip or hole in the eardrum will likely be necessary as part of treatment if it doesn't heal on its own.Antibiotic drops should be administered to Bryce as the first course of treatment.      

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unlike other teratogens, alcohol exposure during pregnancy (fetal alcohol spectrum disorders) can have what harmful effect on the fetus?

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Unlike other teratogens, alcohol exposure during pregnancy (fetal alcohol spectrum disorders) can have harmful effect on the fetus like permanant damage of brain.

Any substance that exposes a foetus to an abnormality while the mother is pregnant is considered a teratogen. Teratogens are typically identified following an increase in the prevalence of a specific birth abnormality.

Anything known to cause foetal defects that is exposed to or consumed by a pregnant person is known as a teratogen. Teratogens can potentially raise the chance of stillbirth, premature labour, or abortion. The embryonic period of pregnancy is the time when teratogenesis is most vulnerable and a deformity is most likely to result from contact to a teratogenic substance.

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which is a true statement regarding the monitoring, testing, and verification of conductivity prior to each patient treatment for all fresenius machine models and the b braun system? davita

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The NxStage HHD machine can also be used with bagged dialysate – a practical option for situations when clean water supply is not available, and during travel.

what is braun system?

BRAUN – Speed Monitoring and Protection Systems for Rotating Equipment. BRAUN Industrial Electronics develops, produces, and supplies “Rotating Equipment” protection systems for industrial applications worldwide, focusing on overspeed protection.Our A5S speed sensors are based on the proven Differential-Hall-Effect principle. Their low end of 0 Hz allows monitoring the machine down to zero speed. In addition, they are contact-free, wear-free, and maintenance-free. Furthermore, they are unsusceptible versus external magnetic stray fields and machine vibration.After testing and analyzing the bicycle speed and distance measuring system using the Hall Effect sensor, we can conclude that The speed and distance of a bicycle can be measured by the hall effect sensor with the number of rotations that the Hall Effect sensor can detect up to 542 revolutions/minute.

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the client is undergoing a surgical procedure that is expected to last several hours. which nursing diagnosis is most related to the duration of the procedure?

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During the client's surgery, the anesthesiologist administered mild (conscious) sedation.

What exactly is local anesthesia?A anesthesia is a drug that blocks the perception of pain.Throughout the process, the client will be expected to speak back to the circulating nurse.The vital bodily processes of the patient, like as respiration, blood pressure, body temperature, and fluid balance, are closely watched and managed by anesthesiologists.Anesthesiologists manage the patient's discomfort and level of awareness to provide the ideal conditions for a safe and successful operation.Moderate Sedation/Analgesia, often known as "Conscious Sedation," is a drug-induced state of consciousness during which patients consciously respond to verbal directions from me or from being monitored via light tactile stimulation.To maintain a patent airway, no treatments are necessary, and spontaneous flow of air is sufficient.

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a pregnant woman is concerned about the recent onset of a midline swelling that is soft and nontender. the nurse should point out this is most likely related to which condition?

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A pregnant woman is concerned about the recent onset of a midline swelling that is soft and nontender. The nurse should point out this is most likely related to Diastasis recti.

What is Diastasis recti?In women who are pregnant or just gave birth, diastasis recti is a prevalent problem. When the rectus abdominis muscles (also known as the six-pack ab muscles) are stretched during pregnancy, it happens. A person's tummy may stick out or enlarge due to the separation months or years after giving birth. a condition where the powerful abdominal muscles split.Women over the age of 35, mothers of multiples, and mothers of babies with high birth weights are more likely to develop diastasis recti. Right after delivery is typically when it is most obvious. Abdominal obesity also occurs in middle-aged and older males.In the middle of the stomach, there might be a protrusion. It might only be perceptible when the abdominal muscles are tensed, like while coughing.The rectus abdominis muscles may separate more easily in later stages of pregnancy because of the decreased muscular tone. Normal symptoms are not typically brought on by this benign abnormality. Through this entrance, the nurse can palpate the foetus with ease. The linea nigra is a midline hyperpigmentation. The bluish tint to the cervix and vaginal walls that is detected early in pregnancy is known as the Chadwick sign, and round ligament discomfort develops as the uterus grows. The right side is typically more affected than the left by this soreness.

The complete question is,
A pregnant woman is concerned about the recent onset of a midline swelling that is soft and nontender. The nurse should point out this is most likely related to which condition?

Linea nigra Chadwick sign Round ligament pain Diastasis recti

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a man has been taking care of his wife, who is in a vegetative state, for three years after she suffered severe brain damage due to cardiac arrest. she can breathe on her own but that is the extent of her abilities. he requests that her feeding tube be removed. what should you do as her physician?

Answers

When cardiac arrest occurs, circulation to the brain ceases and consciousness is lost within seconds.

Can brain damage be reversed after cardiac arrest?

If unattended, irreparable brain damage and eventual death will occur. The longer someone is in cardiac arrest, the quicker their chances of surviving and having a good neurological result are to diminish. Both a primary and secondary damage result from cardiac arrest.

The secondary injury follows ROSC and subsequent cerebral reperfusion and is perhaps reversible, whereas the main harm occurs at the time of arrest and is irreversible. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) must begin within two minutes of a cardiac arrest.

When effective CPR is performed right after after an observed arrest, good things can happen. By nine minutes, brain damage that is severe and irreversible is likely. There is little likelihood of life after 10 minutes. You undoubtedly know this for sure after suffering a heart attack:

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the nurse is reviewing the health record of a patient with a 20-year history of rheumatoid arthritis. based on the information in the record, which parameter would the nurse plan to assess?

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The nurse would plan to assess the patient's current level of pain and joint function.

Which joints are affected by the patient's rheumatoid arthritis? Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an autoimmune disease that affects the joints throughout the body. Commonly affected joints include those found in the hands, wrists, elbows, shoulders, neck, hips, knees, ankles, and feet. Additionally, the sacroiliac joints in the lower back, the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) in the jaw, and the cervical spine can also become affected. The body’s immune system attacks its own healthy joint tissue, which can cause inflammation, swelling, and pain. This damage can lead to erosion of the joint cartilage and bone, as well as changes in the joint’s shape and alignment. Over time, this can lead to deformity and impaired movement of the affected joints. RA can also cause inflammation in other parts of the body, such as the lungs, heart, and eyes. Symptoms may include fatigue, fever, weight loss, and stiffness in the joints, especially in the morning. Diagnosis of RA is made based on medical history, physical examination, and blood tests. Treatment typically includes medications, physical and occupational therapy, and lifestyle changes.

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Dentist is performing a root canal on maxillary 1st molar. During filing the canal, file broke on apical 1/3 and below the broken file, pulp still vital. What is the initial best treatment for this patient

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Endodontic micro forceps were used including a screw wedge that works by clamping the file fragments through a mechanical lock and pulling them to the coronal. It is possible to successfully remove broken files from the root canal using ultrasonic instruments and endodontic micro forceps.

What is meant by ultrasonic?

Ultrasound is simply sound that has a frequency that is higher than 20 kHz and cannot be heard by the human ear.Ultrasound is employed at frequencies up to several GHz at the high end of the spectrum.Distance measurements and object detection are both done with ultrasonic equipment. In medicine, sonography and ultrasound imaging are frequently employed.Ultrasound is used to find hidden faults in products and structures during nondestructive testing.Ultrasonic sensors operate by discharging sound waves at a frequency that is inaudible to humans.The distance is then calculated based on the amount of time needed to wait for the sound to be reflected back.

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The initial best treatment for this patient is to perform an apicoectomy. An apicoectomy is a surgical procedure to remove the end of the root of the tooth and any infected tissue, which may be present due to the broken file.

What is apicoectomy?

An apicoectomy, or root-end resection, is a procedure that is used to save a tooth that has been damaged by infection. The procedure involves the removal of the infected tissue, the root-end, and the cleaning of the root canal. The root canal is then filled with a material such as gutta-percha, and the area is sealed with a filling material.

The procedure is usually performed under local anesthesia and involves removing the broken file, re-shaping the root canal and sealing it with a filling material. The goal of the apicoectomy is to eliminate any infection and prevent further damage to the surrounding tissue. After the apicoectomy, the patient may be prescribed antibiotics to reduce the risk of infection.

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which assessment parameter is used to determine the severity of blood loss in a client with | an upper gastrointestinal (ugi) bleed? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses

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To assess the level of blood loss in a patient with upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding, a complete blood cell (CBC) count with platelet count and differential is required (UGIB).

What is upper gastrointestinal bleeding? Upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage seems to be a medical condition in which there is excessive bleeding in the upper parts of the digestive tract, such as the esophagus (the tube that connects the mouth to the stomach), the stomach, or the small intestine. This is frequently a medical emergency.The goal of medical therapy in upper GI bleeding (UGIB) is to correct shock and coagulation abnormalities and stabilize the patient so that further evaluation and treatment can begin. Patients may require packed red blood cells transfusion in addition to intravenous (IV) fluids.An endoscopy procedure may assist your doctor in determining whether or not you have GI bleeding and the cause of the bleeding. Upper GI endoscopy and colonoscopy are the most commonly used tests for acute GI bleeding in the upper and lower GI tracts.

The complete question:

"Which assessment parameter is used to determine the severity of blood loss in a client with | an upper gastrointestinal (ugi) bleed? select all that apply. Hemocrat, hemoglobin, platelet count, oxygen saturation, and blood, urea and nitrogen (BUN)."

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Answer:

hematocrit, hemoglobin, platelet count, oxygen saturation, and BUN

Explanation:

A decrease in the hematocrit and hemoglobin will occur within 4 to 6 hours. The platelet count would rise in response to the bleed. Oxygen saturation levels would decrease if patient lost a large amount of blood. BUN levels would be elevated in a gi bleed.

which motivation factors would the nurse describe as part of the two-factor theory of leadership? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

The nurse would define achievement and recognition as the two components of the two-factor theory of leadership.

What variables would a nurse leader take into account when putting the two-factor theory to use?

The two-factor theory employs motivational and hygienic variables to prevent and encourage work enrichment. According to expectation theory, there is a chance that a specific requirement will be met based on past performance. The added responsibility of nurse navigator is given to a nurse leader.

Which variables that motivate employees to do well at work fit the two-factor theory?

Transformational leaders employ motivational elements like success and recognition to encourage high levels of work performance. The two-factor approach states that in order to attract and keep employees, firms require both motivational and hygiene aspects.

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suppose that rigorous scientific research demonstrated that physicians who use a clinically-based model provide better care and have better patient outcomes than those who use an evidence-based model. how would this finding affect passage claims?

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It would challenge the views of the economists and health experts, as represented in the passage.

EBP is a problem-solving approach to clinical decision-making inside a health care organisation. It combines the most recent scientific evidence with the most recent experience (patient and practitioner) evidence. EBP is the combination of existing knowledge, clinical experience, and patient preferences to personalise treatment and improve effective care decision-making.

Clinical research is medical study that involves humans. There are two kinds of research: observational studies and clinical trials. Observational studies look at people in everyday situations. Researchers collect data, categorise participants based on broad traits, then analyse changes across time. A long-term research project that includes psychological testing or brain scans. A genetic investigation that includes blood testing but no drug modifications.

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a patient comes to the clinic and asks the nurse why the skin of the forehead, palms, and soles has a yellow-orange tint. there is no yellowing of the sclera or mucous membranes. what should the nurse question the patient regarding?

Answers

The patient is suffering from Carotenemia.

The nurse may ask the following question to the patient ;

Have you been out in sun a lot ?Have you been consuming a lot of foods high in beta-carotene?Have you been given an Addison's disease diagnosis?Have you been drinking excessive amounts of alcohol?Have you been consuming a lot of foods high in beta-carotene?

Skin darkening brought on by excessive quantities of carotene in body is known as carotenemia.

A pigment called beta-carotene can be found in a variety of fruits and vegetables. Carotene is a pigment that can cause the skin's natural yellow and occasionally slightly orange color to change.

It is a generally benign disorder that gets better with the proper dietary adjustments.

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a client has presented with signs and symptoms that are characteristic of acute kidney injury, but preliminary assessment reveals no obvious risk factors for this health problem. the nurse should recognize the need to interview the client about what priority topic?

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Acute kidney injury is usually remarkable for hypotension, edema of the lower extremities, maculopapular rash and rales on chest auscultation.

What is acute kidney injury and symptoms of that?

Your kidneys can abruptly cease functioning normally, which is known as acute kidney damage (AKI). It might result in anything from a slight decline in kidney function to total renal failure. AKI typically develops as a side effect of another major illness. Contrary to what the name might imply, it is not the result of a physical injury to the kidneys.

When your kidneys are suddenly unable to filter waste from your blood, you experience acute renal failure. Dangerous levels of wastes may build up when your kidneys lose their filtering capacity, and your blood's chemical composition may go out of balance.

Symptoms:

decreased urine production, despite the fact that it can occasionally be normal.Your feet, ankles, and legs may enlarge as a result of fluid retention.respiration difficulty.abnormal heartbeatWeakness.

Treatments to balance the amount of can help prevent issues by:

Treatments to balance the amount of fluids in your blood. Medications to restore blood calcium levels.Medications to control blood potassium. Dialysis to remove toxins from your blood.

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immediately following cataract repair, the client's affected conjunctiva and eyelids are edematous. which statement by the nurse accurately characterizes these findings for the client?

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The statement by the nurse accurately characterizes these findings for the client is  "The edema is normal and should subside within 3 days."

What is cataract repair?The clouded lens is removed during cataract surgery, and it is then swapped out for a new, clear artificial lens. The synthetic lens, also known as an intraocular lens, is placed in the same location as your natural lens. It will always be a part of your eye. Other eye issues for certain people make the use of an artificial lens impossible. Surgery for a cataract is a simple process that typically lasts 30 to 45 minutes. You should be able to return home the same day because it's frequently performed as day surgery under local anaesthesia. Due to the natural ageing process, most cataract surgeries are often performed beyond the age of 60, while some people may start to experience cataract development as early as age 50.

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ibuprofen can be found in 400 mg doses in over-the-counter analgesics, such as advil and motrin. how many grams of iburofen does such a tablet contain?

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A 200 mg, 400 mg, or 600 mg dose of ibuprofen is contained in each tablet or capsule.

How many grams of ibuprofen are present in such a tablet? A 200 mg, 400 mg, or 600 mg dose of ibuprofen is contained in each tablet or capsule.There are 200 mg, 300 mg, or 800 mg of ibuprofen in slow-release tablets and capsules.Ibuprofen 600 milligrams per sachet of granules.Ibuprofen 400 mg has been demonstrated to be superior to aspirin or paracetamol in more sensitive models of pain, such as dental pain, but equally beneficial to aspirin or paracetamol in models of moderate pain, including those including 600 or 900 mg/day.As opposed to 4-6 hours for ibuprofen 200 mg or paracetamol, ibuprofen 400 mg has an at least 6-hour duration of effect.Ibuprofen 200mg pills (200mg to 400mg) can be taken by adults one to two times daily, three to four times a day if necessary.Ibuprofen must only be used every four to six hours.

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in order to make providing care more efficient, the health care industry group people according to which of the following criteria? a their ages b all of the above c their special health care needs d their illnesses or medical conditions

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The healthcare industry categorizes patients for more efficient care based on:

Their ages.Their special health care needs.Their illness or medical condition.

The correct answer is all of the above.

Patient classification is a method of grouping patients according to the number of complexities of nursing needs.

The classification of patients is divided into three categories: self-care, intermediate care, and total care. By classifying patients, we can determine the number and type of staff needed and determine productivity values ​​to balance the number of nurses and patient needs.

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a client is being discharged with halo traction. what should the nurse teach about home care of this traction?

Answers

Never tug on the halo traction in any way. The traction may be harmed or loosened by it. To avoid infection, pins are cared for.

How should the nurse position the client who has just had a craniotomy and the client's intracranial pressure is high and is becoming more lethargic?

Never tug on the halo traction in any way. The traction may be harmed or loosened by it. To avoid infection, pins are cared for. Use a sterile q-tip applicator to clean around pins at least twice each day. To prevent contamination from one pin site to another, use a fresh, sterile q-tip for every pin site. Except when prescribed, avoid using ointments or antiseptics.

The client who has elevated intracranial pressure should have their head held in a neutral midline posture. The client's neck should not be bent or extended, nor should the client's head be turned side to side by the nurse. The angle of the bed's head should be between 30 and 45 degrees.

When necessary, administer the prescribed analgesic.evaluation of the state of the nervous system.Make sure the halo vest fits properly.Wash the customer's back and chest.appraisal of the respiratory system.Check for redness at pin locations.

For patients who have had supratentorial surgery, the head of the bed should be elevated by 30 degrees to encourage venous drainage from the head. The client is positioned to prevent excessive hip flexion or neck flexion, and the midline neutral position of the head is preserved.

The complete question is:

A client is being discharged with halo traction. What should the nurse teach about home care of this traction?

You answered this question Correctly

1. Showering is permitted.

2. Apply baby powder under the halo vest to prevent irritation.

3. Never pull on any part of the halo traction.

4. Clean around pins at least twice a day using sterile technique.

5. Driving is allowed after discharge.

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which statement by a client diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis indicates to the nurse that education has been successful?

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I will not let others drink from my glass is the statement by a client diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis indicates to the nurse that education has been successful.

Infectious mononucleosis, usually known as "mono," is a communicable illness. The most prevalent cause of infectious mononucleosis is Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), however other viruses can also cause it. It is quite frequent in adolescents and young adults, particularly college students. Infectious mononucleosis affects at least one out of every four teens and young adults who become infected with EBV.

Typical symptoms for infectious mononucleosis emerge four to six weeks after EBV infection. Symptoms may appear gradually and not all at the same time. Although EBV is the most prevalent cause of infectious mononucleosis, other viruses can also cause it. These viruses often transmit by body fluids, particularly saliva. These viruses, however, can transmit by blood and sperm during sexual intercourse, blood transfusions, and organ transplants.

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reddish/purple raised patches all over my skin. on physical exam the np notes that the lesions are erythematous with discrete borders that are irregular, oval or round. the most likely diagnosis based on the physical exam is:

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Based on the description provided, the most likely diagnosis for the reddish/purple raised patches on the skin with irregular, oval or round borders that are erythematous (red and inflamed) is a rash or skin condition known as purpura.

Purpura is a condition characterized by red or purple discolorations on the skin, which are caused by bleeding under the skin. The discolorations can range in size from small pinpoint spots to large patches, and they can occur on any part of the body. They are caused by a variety of underlying conditions such as thrombocytopenia, vasculitis, or certain medications. A more specific diagnosis would require additional information and further examination, including a complete medical history, blood tests, and a biopsy of the affected skin. It's important to consult a dermatologist or a specialist in order to determine the underlying cause and the appropriate treatment.

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the nurse is caring for a client who reports sweating, tachycardia, and tremors. the laboratory report of the client reveals serum cortisol less than normal and a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. which medication would be administered to this client?

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Medication of glucagon will be administered to the client having serum cortisol less than normal and a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl.

Glucagon is a catabolic hormone released by the alpha-cells of the pancreas. The function of the hormone is to increase the blood glucose concentration if it falls below and also maintain it. Glucagon also increases the amount of fatty acids in the body.

Cortisol is the stress hormone of the body. Chemically it is steroid in nature. In medication it is used in the form of hydrocortisone. The function of the cortisol is to increase blood glucose and ensure the availability of substances that aid is tissue repair.

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after weeks of witnessing a hospice client's deterioration and subsequent death from liver failure, his family disagrees about performing an autopsy. which criterion does the nurse use to determine if the autopsy can proceed?

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The criteria nurses use to determine whether an autopsy can proceed is the client's son's decision.

What are the three levels of autopsy?

An autopsy, also called a postmortem examination, is a specialized surgical procedure used to determine the cause and manner of death. The cause of death is the medical reason that explains why the patient died. The way of death is the circumstances of death.

There are 3 levels of autopsies: An autopsy usually includes testing for infections (microbiology), changes in body tissues and organs (anatomical histology), and testing for chemicals such as: Drugs, Drugs or Poisons (Toxicology and Pharmacology).

What is the autopsy for?

The purpose of the autopsy has two: 1) to thoroughly assess the presence and extent of human disease in patients, and 2) to evaluate the effectiveness of therapeutic procedures for the benefit of the patient's family, staff, and future medical practice.

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a pregnant patient complains of having to go to the bathroom frequently and sometimes even has stress incontinence. which instruction can the nurse provide to the patient to increase the tone of the perineal muscles?

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Exercise your Kegels. A pregnant patient complains of frequent toilet visits and, on sometimes, stress incontinence. The nurse can provide guidance.a pregnant patient.

stress incontinence offer to the patient in order to enhance perineal muscle tone Stress incontinence occurs when physical movement or activity, such as coughing, laughing, sneezing, running, or heavy lifting, exerts pressure (stress) on your bladder, causing you to leak pee. Stress incontinence is unrelated to psychological stress. The respiratory system includes the nose, sinuses, throat, and larynx. Cauda equina syndrome occurs when the nerve roots of the lumbar spine are crushed, cutting off feeling and movement. Nerve roots that control function A small amount of pee leaks from your bladder when you cough, sneeze, or exercise.

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a client with a history of pancreatitis is scheduled for surgery to excise a pseudocyst of the pancreas. the client asks, 'what is a pseudocyst?' which information would the nurse include in a response to this question>

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The information the nurse would include in a response to this question is Dilated space of necrotic tissue and blood.

A pseudocyst is an accumulation of pancreatic secretions near the pancreas. It is more prevalent after an incident of chronic pancreatitis and less common after an episode of acute pancreatitis. Gallstones, alcohol abuse, and abdominal injuries are all common risk factors. Percutaneous catheter drainage is the preferred method of treating infected pseudocysts since it allows for quick cyst draining and detection of any pathogenic entity.

Pseudocysts arise when pancreatic cells become inflamed or damaged, causing pancreatic enzymes to leak. The pancreatic tissue is harmed by enzyme leakage. Pancreatic pseudocysts can develop following an incident of abrupt (acute) pancreatitis. Pseudocysts can form in people who have chronic pancreatitis.

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