Risk for toxic level of benzodiazepines assessment finding should the nurse prioritize.
What is a benzodiazepine used for?A class of drug known as a sedative is benzodiazepines. They thereby slow down bodily and mental processes. They can be used to treat insomnia and anxiety (difficult getting to sleep or staying asleep).
Who should not take benzodiazepines?When treating patients with such a history of drug dependence, avoid using benzodiazepines. Alprazolam, zopiclone, diazepam, and lorazepam are typical benzodiazepines used to treat GAD. For patients with GAD who did not respond to at least two trials of SSRIs or SNRIs, midodrine (Remeron) and buspirone are also effective treatments.
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the client with dysphagia has a regular meal tray delivered at breakfast. which is the best action for the nurse to take?
The nurse's best course of action is to review the client's prescribed diet in the medical file.
How is dysphagia treated?Consider taking shorter, more frequent meals. Eat more slowly, properly chew your food, and cut it up into tiny pieces. There are products on the market to thickening liquids if you're having difficulty swallowing drinks. experimenting with various food textures to find which ones make you feel more uncomfortable.
Can dysphagia be reversed?Dysphagia cases can frequently be improved with treatment, while a cure isn't always possible. One of the therapies for dysphagia involves learning new swallowing techniques through speech and language therapy. The consistency of food and drinks is altered to make them simpler to swallow.
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jenny presents with complaints of lower abdominal pain, generalized malaise, swollen glands, and body aches. what might the nurse anticipate as a diagnosis?
The nursing diagnosis that could be given in Jenny's case would be acute pain related to compression of nerve endings by swollen organs evidence by patients vernalization of having lower abdominal pains.
What is nursing diagnosis?Nursing diagnosis is defined as the diagnosis made by a nurse which is based on the visible signs and symptoms observed on a client.
Jenny presented with the following complaints such as:
lower abdominal pain, generalized malaise, swollen glands, and body aches.Pain is first considered as diagnosis is made based on priority. Pain is usually felt with nerve ending are being affected.
Therefore the nursing diagnosis that can be put up concerning the complaints of Jenny is that there is acute pain related to compression of nerve endings by swollen organs evidence by patients vernalization of having lower abdominal pains.
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which is a pharmacy only nonprescription drug according to canadian food and drugs act and regulations
According to the Canadian Drug and Food Act and regulations, diphenhydramine is only available without a prescription in pharmacies.
What risks does diphenhydramine pose?Overdosing can have serious consequences, so stick to the recommended dose alone. Get medical help right away if someone has taken too much diphenhydramine and yet is experiencing hallucinations, is unable to be awakened, is having a seizure, is having difficulty breathing, or has collapsed.
What affects the brain does diphenhydramine have?Diphenhydramine rapidly crosses the blood-brain barrier and also exhibits affinity for muscarinic nor adrenergic receptors. So it's usual to experience side effects including tiredness, grogginess, and memory loss. Diphenhydramine is also prescribed to Parkinson's disease patients for motion sickness & extrapyramidal symptoms.
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the nurse is administering a sedative drug to a client before the magnetic resonance imaging (mri) procedure. what are the possible reasons for which the nurse had to sedate the client? select all that apply.
a patient, group ab, d-positive, has a bleeding aortic aneurysm. a massive transfusion is undertaken for lifesaving measures. what abo phenotype is recommended for transfusion to this patient?
Group ABO phenotype is recommended for transfusion to the patient with group ab, d-positive, who has a bleeding aortic aneurysm
O, A, B, and AB are the four fundamental ABO phenotypes. The blood group A was split into two phenotypes, A1 and A2, after it was discovered that blood group A RBCs responded differentially to a specific antibody (later known as anti-A1).
An aortic aneurysm is a balloon-like thickening in the aorta, the large artery that connects the heart to the chest and torso. The force of blood pumping can split the layers of the artery wall, allowing blood to leak in between them, causing aortic aneurysms to dissect or rupture.
Blood transfusion is the process of donating blood to someone in need. Blood from the donor and blood from the recipient are coagulated prior to transfusion to cross-check factors such as antigen and Rh. When a person with the A blood group receives blood from people who have the A antigen but no antigen, all other blood groups cause agglutination. All blood groups are compatible with the AB+ blood group, including A+, B+, AB+, and O+, as well as A-, B-, AB-, and O-. As a result, they are known as the universal recipient.
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if an infant is born with congenital cataracts, but the cataracts are not removed until the child is older, what sort of visual perception will the child have?
Congenital cataracts are present in newborns, clouding the lens of one or both eyes and causing early problems with vision.
A child's brain will learn to disregard blurry images sent by one of their poorly focused eyes in favor of those from the other, better-seeing eye if the youngster has a cataract in that eye. This hinders the cataract-affected eye's visual system from growing properly. Amblyopia is the term for this. As the visual system has not yet matured, amblyopia may result in permanently decreased vision, especially if the brain is not given the chance to view clear images during the first few months of life. The brain typically relies on the eye without a cataract in unilateral congenital cataract and turns off the eye with the cataract and decreased vision.
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what is the primary purpose for administering a standardized occupational performance survey to clients who are participating in an inpatient hand rehabilitation group activity?
The primary purpose for administering a standardized occupational performance survey to clients who are participating in an inpatient hand rehabilitation group activity would be this sort of survey focuses on the respondents' perceptions of their ability to engage in meaningful and purposeful activity.
A valid and trustworthy method for assessing the occupational performance of daily living chores is the Performance Assessment of Self-Care Skills (PASS). The PASS is a client-centered, performance-based, criterion-referenced, observational tool that helps occupational therapy professionals in a variety of settings objectively document occupational performance and plan occupation-based interventions for populations of adolescents, adults, and older adults.
The client's occupational profile and the occupational therapist's appraisal of the client's occupational performance are carefully reviewed and synthesized before the development of the occupational therapy intervention plan.
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excessive bleeding caused by congenital lack of factor viii or ix: a.polycythemia vera b.hemophilia c.granulocytosis d.autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura e.erythremia
Excessive bleeding caused by congenital lack of factor viii or ix is Hemophilia
What is Hemophilia ?Blood does not clot properly in people with hemophilia, which is typically an inherited bleeding disorder. Both spontaneous bleeding and bleeding after injuries or surgery may result from this. Blood has a large number of clotting proteins that can stop bleeding.
Hemophilia has three main subtypes: A, B, and C, which is a third, less common subtype. In particular, haemophilia A is a factor VIII deficiency, haemophilia B is a factor IX deficiency, and haemophilia C is a factor XI deficiency. Each type is consequently linked to a particular factor.Learn more about Hemophilia here:
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the patient is getting hemodialysis for the second time when he complains of a headache and nausea and, a little later, of becoming confused. the nurse realizes these are symptoms of
Hemodialysis for the second time when he complained of headaches and nausea, and moments later became confused are the symptoms of low blood pressure.
Hemodialysis is the process of separating (filtering) metabolic wastes through a semi-permeable membrane in the dialyzer of a dialysis machine. Dialysis is done as a kidney replacement therapy, which means treatment that replaces kidney function. Dialysis is performed on patients with kidney failure, both acute kidney failure, and chronic kidney failure.
Low blood pressure or hypotension is one of the most common risks of dialysis. This is because, during the hemodialysis procedure, you will temporarily lose fluids, which can cause your blood pressure to drop.
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many childhood diseases caused by viral infections of the upper respiratory tract can usually be diagnosed by
The involved viruses may be respiratory adenoviruses, parainfluenza viruses, respiratory syncytial viruses, or influenza viruses.
What upper respiratory condition is frequently observed in kids?The common cold, also known as an upper respiratory infection, is one of the most prevalent diseases in kids. Compared to other illnesses, it causes more doctor visits and absences from work and school each year. Each year, millions of people in the United States contract a cold.
The rhinovirus is the most typical virus. Other viruses include the respiratory syncytial virus, adenovirus, enterovirus, and influenza virus. In about 15% of cases of sudden onset pharyngitis, bacteria may be the culprit.
Coughs, sneezes, and direct contact all contribute to the spread of URIs. The most typical URI is the common cold.
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during preoperative teaching for a client who will undergo subtotal thyroidectomy, the nurse should include which statement?
Eat or drink nothing after midnight the evening before is a statement by the nurse before your surgery. Most routine medications can be taken with a sip of water.
What is a subtotal thyroidectomy?
Subtotal thyroidectomy is a surgical procedure wherein the surgeon leaves a small thyroid remnant in place to preserve thyroid function, avoiding the need for lifetime thyroid hormone supplementation therapy.
To avoid complications, thyroidectomy necessitates meticulous postoperative nursing care. Nursing priorities will include preoperative hyperthyroidism management, pain relief, information about the surgical operation, prognosis, treatment plan, and prevent disease.
Therefore, the pre-operative visit with the nurse will include a discussion of medication guidelines.
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The world health organization has said that _______________ is single greatest biggest health threat facing humanity.
The world health organization has said that climate change is single greatest biggest health threat facing humanity.
The WHO is a specialized employer of the United countries responsible for worldwide public fitness. The WHO constitution states its most important goal as the attainment with the aid of all peoples of the highest possible level of fitness.
WHO works international to sell health, hold the sector secure, and serve the vulnerable. Our goal is to make certain that a thousand million more human beings have conventional fitness insurance, to shield one billion extra people from fitness emergencies, and provide a similarly billion people with higher fitness and nicely-being.
The WHO sets requirements for disease manage, fitness care, and medicines; conducts schooling and studies programs; and publishes scientific papers and reports. A major aim is to enhance get right of entry to to fitness care for people in growing nations and in groups who do now not get appropriate fitness care.
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which response would be nurse report immedietly if it occured in association with nasotracheal suctioning
Answer: After the oxygen delivery device has been reapplied on completion of the procedure, the patient's pulse oximetry falls to 88%.
Explanation:
Rationale: This decline in peripheral blood oxygen saturation must be reported. It represents a decline in the patient's condition following a procedure that should have improved his or her SpO2 reading. Discomfort need not be reported. Symptoms of coughing and sore throat do not require immediate reporting. This change in heart rate is anticipated with the procedure. Taken by itself, it does not require reporting.
a client has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. the nurse anticipates which class of pharmacologic agents will likely be a part of the client's treatment regimen?
The client would be given instructions by the nurse to assist prevent the disease’s devastating effects. The goal of The goal of rheumatoid arthritis treatment is to minimise joint deterioration, regulate symptoms, and improve your quality of life and functional capacity.
Treatment aims to minimise joint deterioration, manage symptoms, and improve your quality of life and functional capacity.The nurse encourages and assists the patient in establishing healthy behaviours and activities that promote rest and excessive, reduce, and encourage stress. The nurse helps the patient reach the ultimate goal of remission or low disease activity based on the patient’s individual needs.A variety of comfort measures should be offered, including the application of heat or cold, messages, position modifications, etc.That give slow-acting, analgesic, non-inflammatory Given what we know about rheumatoid arthritis, we can affirm that the client's remark that "Rheumatoid arthritis includes joint involvement that is frequently symmetric and polyarticular" indicates that the training is effective.One of the many autoimmune illnesses is arthritis.
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a client has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of preeclampsia with severe features. which nursing intervention is the priority?
A patient with severe preeclampsia symptoms has been admitted to the hospital. Confining the client to bed rest in a darkened room is the nursing intervention that should be given the highest priority.
When a woman has severe preeclampsia, she is typically hospitalised so that bed rest can be required, and she can be monitored more carefully than she could at home. Because a bright light can also provoke seizures, the nurse should dim the environment if at all possible. High blood pressure is the defining feature of the potentially deadly pregnancy condition known as preeclampsia. After 20 weeks of pregnancy, pre-eclampsia typically develops in a woman whose blood pressure had previously been normal. For both mother and child, it may result in significant, even deadly, consequences.
There could be no signs at all. The two main symptoms are high blood pressure and protein in the urine. Water retention and leg swelling are additional potential symptoms; however these might be difficult to identify from a typical pregnancy. Pre-eclampsia is frequently treatable with oral or intravenous medicine until the baby is old enough to be delivered. The dangers of an early delivery must frequently be compared to the hazards of persistent pre-eclampsia symptoms.
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which type of question is appropriate to include during the assessment of the adolescent patient that reports thoughts about death, apathy, isolation, and self- mutilation in the form of cutting?
The adolescent's family medical history, his or her own physical, behavioral, or mental health, developmental history, immunization history, a review of past and present eating habits or nutrition issues, and a thorough review of the adolescent's body systems are all included in an initial health assessment.
During this period, adolescents are also going through social and emotional development. The pursuit of identity is adolescence's most significant endeavor. (This is frequently a lifetime journey that begins in adolescence.) The battle for independence goes hand in hand with the search for identity. Let the teen know that all of the inquiries are intended to assist them in bettering their health.
Thus, it is often advisable to start this conversation by asking the person about their beliefs and sentiments toward life.
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the nurse is planning the care of a client who has been diagnosed with hypertension, but who otherwise enjoys good health, when assessing modifiable changes to the patient's lifestyle what should be considered
140/90 or less in mm Hg, The target blood pressure for antihypertensive medication therapy is 140/90 mm Hg or less. The ideal blood pressure for people with diabetes and chronic renal disease is 130/80 mm Hg.
Can kidney disease be cured?Although there is no known treatment for chronic kidney disease (CKD), it is possible to manage symptoms and stop the condition from getting worse with treatment. Your treatment plan will be determined by your CKD stage. The most effective treatments for maintaining your health involve alterations to your way of living.
Why do kidney diseases occur?Diabetes and high blood pressure are the two most common causes of renal disease (CKD). Your doctor will review your medical history & possibly order certain tests to identify the cause for your kidney condition.
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the charge nurse has received word that a mass casualty has occurred and beds are needed in the hospital. this will require discharging some current clients. which client would be appropriate to seek permission from the healthcare provider to be discharged?
The client was admitted with hemothorax however no chest tube drainage in closing 14 hours.
A client underwent a laminectomy for spinal stenosis 12 hours earlier.
Those clients are those that could be taken into consideration the most solid and consequently, could be effectively discharged. The client who had the hemothorax and has now not had any drainage for 14 hours indicates that the hemothorax has resolved. The chest tube might be appropriately eliminated for the purchaser to be discharged. clients who have laminectomies frequently are released domestic the equal day as the surgical procedure, if there are not any headaches and the situation is stable. this could appear early to discharge a purchaser who had again surgical operation, however the customers who want to be admitted would be taken into consideration volatile and would be a priority over this consumer.
The nurse ought to prioritize the evaluation of any patron with DVT who is experiencing breathing symptoms and signs and symptoms and/or chest pain due to capability improvement of PE. - The nurse need to verify this consumer after the patron with DVT and administer any antihypertensives wished.
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a client with acute myocardial infarction is admitted to the coronary care unit. which medication should the nurse administer to lessen the workload of the heart by decreasing the cardiac preload and afterload?
The medication which the nurse should administer to lessen the workload of the heart by decreasing the cardiac preload and afterload falls under the class nitrates and is referred to as nitroglycerin.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional which specializes in taking are of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved in other to prevent complications.
The medication which is used to lessen the workload of the heart by decreasing the cardiac preload and afterload thereby resulting in the reduction of myocardial oxygen demand are basically nitrate compounds.
An example is nitroglycerin and it is commonly used in emergency coronary unit of most hospitals thereby making it the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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which set of results below would indicate that a mls student entering their hospital practicum training had been previously vaccinated against hepatitis b and is not infected with hepatitis b?
The set of results which indicate the given conditions regarding hepatitis B are :
Previously vaccinated anti-HBS
Natural infection IgG anti-HBC
What is hepatitis B ?The hepatitis B virus is what causes hepatitis B infection (HBV).
Through blood, semen, or other bodily fluids, the virus is transferred from one person to another.
The hepatitis B vaccine can guard against the disease.
Hepatitis B is a liver condition that can result in a short-lived, mild illness or a severe, chronic condition.
Hepatitis B vaccine is produced using the antigen HBsAg. Anti-HBs, or hepatitis B surface antibody: Anti-HBs are typically taken as a sign of immunity and recovery from hepatitis B virus infection.
A person who has received a successful hepatitis B vaccination also develops anti-HBs.
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in nursing theory, one theorist developed the idea of new nurses progressing to experienced nurses and playing an important role in patient care in all stages. the new nurses follow their role and progress through stages to advanced nurse. who was this theorist?
Theorist Dorothea Orem created the notion that new nurses advance to experienced nurses and play a crucial role in patient care at all stages.
What is nursing theory?"A creative and rigorous structure of ideas that project a tentative, deliberate, and systematic understanding of phenomena" is how nursing theory is described. Nurses are able to acquire knowledge relevant to enhancing patient care through methodical inquiry, whether in nursing research or practise. The scope of nursing practise is essentially defined by organized, knowledge-based concepts known as nursing theories. This would cover what constitutes nursing, the typical tasks assigned to nurses, and the justifications for these assignments.
What is a popular nursing theory and why it is important?This nursing approach contends that people want to take care of themselves and that nurses may improve patient care by letting patients take care of themselves to the extent that they are able.
Nursing theory helps differentiate nursing from medicine and related fields while also assisting nurses in understanding their patients and their needs. The idea offers various models to assist nurses in providing compassionate care that enhances patient outcomes.
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the nurse educator is teaching the nursing staff about a new computerized documentation system that is recently implemented. what information is the best indication that the education is effective? a decrease in number of calls to the technology department. less time for nursing staff to complete the daily charting. an increase in staff acceptance of computerized charting. an improvement from pretest scores of the training session.
The information that is the best indication that the education received by the nursing staff is effective is less time for nursing staff to complete the daily charting. That is option B.
Who is a nurse educator?A nurse educator is an individual that has been licensed to teach nursing students and staff who are interested to further their education in nursing sciences.
A computerized documentation is a type of documentation whereby by there is introduction of computer softwares in the recording of health database.
The computer documentation is made up of the following:
end-user manuals, product specifications, algorithms,diagrams, product answer booksbug lists, and electronic machine readable versions of such manuals.The importance of computerized documentation in health sector include the following:
Improves health provider and patient's communication,It enhance privacy and security of patient.Provides faster services towards patients.Since the computerized documentation help's the in providing faster services towards patients, the teachings on technology towards the staff nurses where effective.
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dietitians and coaches working with strict vegetarian athletes should help these athletes assess their dietary intake of which particular nutrients?
Working with strict vegetarian athletes, dietitians and coaches should assist these athletes in determining their nutritional intake of iron, calcium, and zinc.
Athletes who adopt a mostly or entirely plant-based diet might benefit from the assistance of dietitians in achieving required nutrient intakes and ensuring nutritional adequacy. To begin working with such clients, a full nutrition evaluation must be completed in order to give an effective, tailored nutrition intervention that enhances an athlete's health and performance.
The type of athlete should also be taken into account when assessing their nutritional needs, as their priorities for strength, speed, and endurance may vary depending on their chosen sport and level of participation.
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geneva is 8 months pregnant when she finds out that she has acquired the herpes simplex 2 virus. she is looking forward to having the baby and plans a natural childbirth at a nearby birthing facility. what is the greatest danger with this plan?
The baby could become infected with the virus through natural childbirth, which could have deadly consequences.
Herpes: What does that mean?A herpes virus is what causes the infection known as herpes (HSV). Cold sores all around mouth or face are brought on by oral herpes. Herpes genital is is a transmittable illness (STD).
Is herpes a severe condition?Herpes is incurable; those who have it will always have it. Although the virus rarely poses a life-threatening hazard to the majority of those infected, it poses a serious risk to expectant mothers. A virus flare-up throughout childbirth raises the mother's chance of early labor, and an unborn child could contract a fatal illness while still inside the mother.
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the nurse is inspecting the scrotum and testes of a 43-year-old man. which finding would require additional follow-up and evaluation?
Skin on the scrotum is taut finding would require additional follow-up and evaluation.
How does scrotum look like?The perineal experienced by people, which appears as a line running down the centre of the scrotum, divides the scrotum, a sack of skin, into two sections. The internal septum and scrotum are connected by the raphe. The scrotal sac is divided into two anatomically comparable portions by the septum.
What transpires when the scrotum is erect?Due to vasocongestion, which is the buildup of blood inside the pelvis during arousal, the testicles also enlarge during arousal. At the peak of arousal, the testicles often grow by 50% in size and the membrane of the scrotum thickens.
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oral rehydration solutions that contain both salt and glucose are highly effective in treating severe dehydration caused by diarrhea and vomiting. however, glucose or salt alone are not effective. why?
. based upon the blood work results and other symptoms, belinda is in what stage of iron-deficiency?
Based upon the blood work results and other symptoms Belinda is in Stage 2 of iron-deficiency.
What causes an iron deficiency?A diet lacking enough iron Your body regularly receives iron from your diet. If you consume insufficient amounts of iron, your system may ultimately become iron deficient. Foods levels of iron include meat, egg, green vegetables, and meals with fortified iron, to name a few.
How bad is an iron deficiency?Iron-deficiency anemia can have major side effects, including fatigue, headache, restless legs disorder, heart issues, problems during pregnancy, and delays in a child's development. Furthermore, iron deficiency anemia can worsen other chronic illnesses or render their therapies ineffective.
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a physician orders regular insulin 10 units i.v. along with 50 ml of dextrose 50% for a client with acute renal failure. what electrolyte imbalance is this client most likely experiencing?
A physician orders regular insulin 10 units I.V. along with 50 ml of dextrose 50% for a client with acute renal failure, so the electrolyte imbalance which this client most likely experiencing is hyperkalemia.
Acute renal failure happens once your kidneys suddenly become unable to filter waste product from your blood. Once your kidneys lose their filtering ability, dangerous levels of wastes might accumulate, and your blood's chemical makeup might get out of balance.
Hyperkalemia is outlined as a blood serum or plasma metallic element level higher than the higher limits of traditional, typically bigger than 5.0 mEq/L to 5.5 mEq/L. Whereas delicate symptom is sometimes symptomless, high metallic element levels might cause grievous internal organ arrhythmias, muscle weakness, or palsy.
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a client with hiv will be started on a medication regimen of three medications. what class of drugs will the nurse instruct the client about?
A client with lupus has had antineoplastic drugs prescribed. The physician prescribe antineoplastic drugs for an autoimmune disorder is Benzodiazepines.
What is Benzodiazepines?Benzodiazepines are drugs that are used as tranquilizers and that help to treat conditions like insomnia, seizures and anxiety. This drug can induce sleep and has sedative properties.
According to this, the class of drugs that is frequently prescribed for a client with bipolar disorder to induce sedation is Benzodiazepines. A client with lupus has had antineoplastic drugs prescribed.
Therefore, A client with lupus has had antineoplastic drugs prescribed. The physician prescribe antineoplastic drugs for an autoimmune disorder is Benzodiazepines.
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allan has had several family members die of cancer. he is aware that his new dietary and lifestyle changes should incorporate choices that lower his risk of cancer. allan has already stopped smoking, but what dietary recommendation is the best for cancer prevention?
The following are the dietary recommendation is the best for cancer prevention:-
Limit alcohol consumption.Eat a diet rich in whole grains, vegetables, fruit, and beans.Limit sugar-sweetened drinks.Limit red and processed meat.Limit fast foods.There are many different foods you can eat to kill cancer cells; here are some of the most effective are legumes, flaxseeds, tea, garlic, whole grains, and more.
The dormant cancer cells can take up mitochondrial DNA that comes from other types of cells. They use this DNA to wake up and restore their ability to grow.
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