Medical professionals and other healthcare professionals utilize the ICD-10-CM (International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification) system to categorize and code all diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures documented in connection with hospital care in the United States.
Describe ICD-10-CM?
The main method for proving medical necessity for paying for healthcare services and procedures is to use ICD-10-CM codes.
Health care data, disease burden, quality outcomes, mortality statistics, and billing are all tracked using ICD-10-CM codes.
The ICD-10-CM index is divided into two main sections: the index for diseases and injuries and the index for external causes of injuries.
There are 68,000 codes in ICD-10-CM.
The ICD-10-CM code for skin eruptions and rashes is R21.
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the pharmacology instructor is describing medications that increase the contractile force of the heart. which term describes this effect?
the pharmacology instructor is describing medications that increase the contractile force of the heart. Positive inotropic is the term that describes this effect
Inotropes are drugs that tell your heart muscles to defeat or contract with more control or less control, depending on whether it’s a positive or negative inotrope. Positive inotropes can offer assistance when your heart can’t get sufficient blood to your body since it is as well frail to pump the sum of blood your body needs. Positive inotropes make your heart muscle compressions stronger, raising your cardiac output to an ordinary level and expanding the sum of blood your heart can pump out. This makes a difference your organs get the blood and oxygen they got to keep working. Most individuals who get positive inotropes are basically sick with congestive heart disappointment and are in the serious care unit (ICU) of a healing center. They get inotropic treatment through the vein tube in an expansive central vein.
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the rubella vaccine has been prescribed for a new mother. which statements should the postpartum nurse make when providing information about the vaccine to the client? select all that apply
The rubella vaccine has been prescribed for a new mother and the statements which the postpartum nurse make when providing information about the vaccine to the client is "You need this vaccine because you are not immune to the rubella virus."
Rubella vaccine is a vaccine accustomed stop German measles. Effectiveness begins concerning time period when one dose and around ninety fifth of individuals become immune. Countries with high rates of protection not see cases of German measles or noninheritable German measles syndrome.
Postpartum nurses are primarily involved with providing quality health care to mothers and newborns. Their specific duties could vary reckoning on their expertise, however a typical postnatal nurse is accountable for: watching the very important signs of mother and baby following a birth.
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when removing a wound dressing, the nurse observes some skin irritation next to the right side of the wound edge where the tape was removed. because the client requires frequent dressing changes, the nurse decides to use montgomery straps to secure the dressing from now on. how will the nurse apply the skin barrier needed before applying the straps?
Use montgomery straps to secure the dressing and the skin barrier needed before applying the straps will be at least 1 inch away from the area of irritation.
Montgomery Straps are hypoallergenic adhesive straps. Supposed uses are that it wont to facilitate frequent dressing changes while not having to get rid of and reapply tape. Helps stop patient skin trauma related to frequent tape recording. It's features are that it's Breathable, strong, and comfy.
Wound dressings ought to offer the foremost optimum conditions for wound healing whereas protective the wound from infection with microorganisms and any trauma. it's vital that the dressings be removed atraumatically, to avoid any harm to the wound surface throughout dressing changes.
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a nurse is caring for a client with postpartum hemorrhage. what should the nurse identify as the significant cause of postpartum hemorrhage?
A nurse is caring for a client with postpartum hemorrhage. Nurse should identify the significant cause of postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony.
What is uterine atony?The main factor for postpartum bleeding is uterine atony. Hemorrhoids discomfort raises the possibility of constipation during the postpartum period. In contrast to iron deficiency, which causes anemia in the puerperal, diuresis causes weight loss during the first postpartum week.
Therefore, an individual is treated by a nurse has postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should recognize that uterine atony is the main factor causing postpartum bleeding.
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the nurse is assessing the adaptation of a client to changes in functional status after a stroke (brain attack). which observation indicates to the nurse that the client is adapting most successfully?
The observation that indicates to the nurse that the client is adapting most successfully is when the patient consistently uses adaptive equipment in dressing self.
What is stroke?Stroke is defined as a neurological disorders that occurs due to hemorrhagic and ischaemic causes which lead to blockage of blood supply to a part of the brain.
The clinical manifestations of stroke include the following:
Difficulty in walking, speaking or talking.Severe headachevision impairment andconfusion.During nursing interventions, the affected client is expected to have changes in their functional status while carrying out their activities of daily living.
The signs that the nurse would observe to would indicate that the client has adapted successful is when the patient consistently uses adaptive equipment in dressing self.
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the majority of skin variations are transient and fade or disappear with time. the nurse assesses a permanent skin variation in a newborn and counsels the parents to monitor it because of its link to potential childhood cancer. the nurse implements this counseling based on which finding?
The majority of skin variations are transient and fade or disappear with time. the nurse assesses a permanent skin variation in a newborn and counsels the parents to monitor it because of its link to potential childhood cancer blood sugar.
Even in formative years, most cancers are often related to leukemia, facts from the U.S. Facilities for Disease Management and Prevention (CDC) located that mind cancer is now the deadliest pediatric cancer.
Getting admission to effective prognosis, crucial drugs, pathology, blood merchandise, radiation remedy, era, and psychosocial and supportive care are variable and inequitable around the sector. but, treatment is viable for more than eighty% of youngsters with most cancers in when formative years most cancer services are accessible.
Childhood most cancers charges were growing barely for the past few long time. due to main treatment advances in recent many years, 85% of children with most cancers now live on 5 years or extra. ordinary, this is a large growth for the reason that mid-1970s, whilst the 5-12 months survival fee changed to about fifty eight%.
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a client with acute asthma is prescribed short-term corticosteroid therapy. which is the expected outcome for the use of steroids in clients with asthma?
The expected outcome for the use of steroids in clients with asthma with acute asthma who is prescribed short-term corticosteroid therapy is to have an anti-inflammatory effect (Option c).
What is the relationship between steroids and asthma?The relationship between steroids and asthma is positive the sense that can avoid the progress of inflammatory response and cause an enhancement in the body parts of the patient who is experiencing this health problem.
Moreover, corticosteroids are a type of steroid lipid used to suppress immune responses including inflammatory immune responses.
Therefore, with this data, we can see the relationship between steroids and asthma is positive by avoiding the inflammation of the body part involved (in this case the airways), whereby the individual is able to breathe in normal conditions.
Complete question:
A client with acute asthma is prescribed short-term corticosteroid therapy. Which is the expected outcome for the use of steroids in clients with asthma?
a.) promote bronchodilation
b.) act as an expectorant
c.) have an anti-inflammatory effect
d.) prevent development of respiratory infections
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the team leader orders you to defibrillate the patient per acls guidelines. knowing that this is not the correct choice, how do you address the leader?
As defibrillating the patient per ACLS guidelines is not a correct choice, then, he/she should have a constructive intervention with the team leader.
Constructive interventions are grounded in mutual respect and take it one step further by requiring ACLS participants to take action or intervene for patient safety when they know something is up. that's not ok during coding. It does not matter what role the participant plays in the process; they must intervene if they know a mistake is being made.
This could mean that a new or junior team member begins to question or correct a team leader if they feel an impending action may be inappropriate or incorrect.
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if a pregnant patient is admitted for induction of labor with a medical history of subclinical hypothyroidism, how is the scenario coded?
During pregnancy, hypothyroidism is incidence is more common and impedes the baby's proper growth.
What is hypothyroidism?When TSH is elevated but T4 is normal, subclinical hypothyroidism is present. It is obvious that overt hypothyroidism has to be treated, especially if the mother's condition is discovered while she is pregnant.
A normal free thyroxine level in the context of an increased thyroid-stimulating hormone is what constitutes subclinical hypothyroidism (TSH).
Therefore it is more common during pregnancy to have subclinical hypothyroidism.
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the nurse is preparing to administer warfarin. the patient's current lab values are: pt 12.9 inr 5.9 ptt 39 platelets 175,000 which action should the nurse implement?
The nurse implement is get ready to give aquamephyton.
What is the nursing process called implementation?The treatment plan is implemented when it is put into practice. Typically, any necessary medical interventions are first carried out by the medical staff. The patient then complies with the plan for a speedy recovery. You will be required to keep an eye on the patient's compliance as a nurse as you implement the plan.
What does nursing practise look like in practise?Giving IV fluids to a patient who is dehydrated is an example of a physiological nursing intervention. Actions that keep a patient safe and avoid harm are referred to as safety nursing interventions.
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which client likely has the highest risk of developing an acquired hypocoagulation disorder and vitamin k deficiency?
The question isn't complete, as there are no options that we can choose from. That being said, generally, a client that likely has the highest risk of developing an acquired hypercoagulation disorder and vitamin K deficiency is a client that has a liver failure diagnosis secondary to alcohol abuse.
Hypercoagulation disorder, also called hypercoagulability, is a condition where the body is more likely to make blood clots than normal. Normally, coagulation is important to stop bleeding and start the healing process. However, too much clotting can be dangerous. People with hypercoagulation disorder have a higher risk for:
StrokeHeart attackSevere leg painLoss of limbsThis disorder is usually inherited from parents or acquired from trauma, surgery, medication, or medical conditions.
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a client tells the nurse that he is concerned about developing hepatitis after being exposed to contaminated feces, saliva, and food. the client is at risk for which infection?
This client most certainly has type Hepatitis A, which is the form that is most commonly spread by contaminated food.
What is Hepatitis A?The Hepatitis A virus, which causes Hepatitis A, is a highly infectious liver ailment.
Getting vaccinated, practicing good hygiene, and avoiding contact with sick people are the best strategies to prevent Hepatitis A.
Fatigue, nausea, stomach discomfort, lack of appetite, and low-grade fever are some of the symptoms of hepatitis A, which is spread by contaminated food, drink, or contact with an infected person.
Therefore, Hepatitis A is most likely the infection caused by tainted food.
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a nurse on a solid organ transplant unit is planning the care of a client who will soon be admitted upon immediate recovery following liver transplantation. what aspect of nursing care is the nurse's priority?
Answer:
Implementation of infection-control measures
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during a family meeting, the nurse is discussing the progress that a client with bipolar disorder and alcohol use has made in the treatment program and the plan of care for discharge. which information about the occurrence of relapse will the nurse include in the pre-discharge discussion with the client and the family?
The client must acknowledge bipolar symptoms when they appear and seek medical attention.
What is the definition of fair treatment?In a formal setting, you might use the word egalitarian to express something that is just because everyone gets the same opportunity and treatment. We want to establish an egalitarian society. In formal contexts, a system can also be said to as equitable when everybody is treated equally and it is fair.
Why is medical care crucial?For the purpose of furthering and maintaining health, controlling disease, preventing needless disability and untimely death, and attaining population health for all Americans, access to comprehensive, high-quality healthcare is crucial.
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which is not a benefit of genetic counseling? select one: a. aids in planning for the future b. helps inform decisions about managing healthcare c. offers information for family members d. fixes all medical problems of the patient e. provides an explanation and relief from uncertainty f. assists in getting services covered
Genetic counseling is all about the fact that the various types of genetic analysis can be done and these assists in getting services covered is the wrong option. Option f is the correct answer.
What another aspect is about genetic counseling ?Pedigree analysis is the aspect of genetic counseling where the various traits along with the genetic disorders can be determined.
Genetic counseling can help in the following options :
1. can help you better understand your test results and treatment options
2. help you deal with emotional concerns
3. refer you to other healthcare providers and advocacy
4. support groups.
Looking up at a family tree and looking up at the various aspects that will help to get to get the more of knowledge about the family history.
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when ebola patients are quarantined for 3 weeks to ensure that they do not expose others, this would be an example of which type of intervention?
When ebola sufferers are quarantined for three weeks to make certain that they do now no longer divulge others, this will be an example of tertiary intervention - obligation.
Tertiary interventions encompass tries to reduce poor results, save you similarly disorder or ailment associated with complications, save you relapse, and repair the very best bodily or mental functioning possible. Examples encompass: cardiac or stroke rehabilitation programs, persistent disorder control programs (e.g. for diabetes, arthritis, depression, etc.)
While secondary prevention seeks to save you the onset of illness, tertiary prevention objectives to lessen the results of the disorder as soon as installed in an individual. Forms of tertiary prevention are usually rehabilitation efforts. Tertiary prevention makes a speciality of restoring the patient's fitness to the maximum ultimate degree that may be achieved.
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the client tells the nurse that they frequently experiences nausea and vomiting after receiving radiation and chemotherapy. the nurse adapts the plan of care to include antiemetics. what is the most appropriate time for the administration of the medication?
The most appropriate time for the administration of the medication who frequently experiences the nausea and the vomiting after they receiving the radiation and the chemotherapy is after the Thirty minutes before the therapy begins
Chemotherapy is a drug treatment that uses powerful chemicals to kill rapidly growing cells in the body. Chemotherapy is maximum normally used to deal with most cancers due to the fact most cancers cells develop and multiply lots quicker than maximum cells within side the body. Many extraordinary chemotherapy tablets are available. Chemotherapy is a kind of most cancers remedy that makes use of one or greater anticancer tablets as a part of a standardized chemotherapy regimen. Chemotherapy may be the given to cure, or to also prolong life or the relieve symptoms.
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the major reason for a loss of anaerobic performance in older adults is a loss of lung capacity.
a. true
b. false
The statement the major reason for a loss of anaerobic performance in older adults is a loss of lung capacity is False (Option b).
What is the anaerobic performance?The expression of anaerobic performance makes reference to the metabolic pathways such as fermentation associated with the generation of ATP (the energy coin of the cells) in absence of oxygen, which is independent of the lungs.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that anaerobic performance in older adults is associated with the fermentation pathway and this process is not related to the respiration process.
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a 26-year-old client has an absolute neutrophil count of less than 500 cells/mm3 (0.50 x 109/l) which interpretation of this lab value is accurate?
Severe neutropenia is one of the lab interpretations of the neutrophil count which should be accurate.
The normal range for neutrophils in healthy adults is 2,500 to 7,000 neutrophils per microliter of blood. Numbers above 7,000 or below 2,500 put you at risk for neutrophilic disease.
Neutropenia occurs when the level of neutrophils, a type of white blood cell, is low. All white blood cells help the body fight infections, but neutrophils are important in fighting certain infections, especially those caused by bacteria. A low cell count does not necessarily indicate neutropenia. These values vary from day to day. Therefore, if a blood test shows neutropenia, it should be repeated for confirmation.
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a nurse is caring for a client who's ordered continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (capd). which finding should lead the nurse to question the client's suitability for capd?
Non-stop ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) includes performing the PD exchanges manually whereas, automatic PD (APD) is a wide time period this is used to refer to all styles of PD using a mechanical tool to help the shipping and drainage of dialysate.
Gravity movements the fluid via the catheter and into and out of your abdomen. With CAPD : you can need 3 to five exchanges during the day and one with an extended reside time even as you sleep. you can do the exchanges at domestic, work or any smooth vicinity.
One of the fundamental disadvantages of peritoneal dialysis is that it desires to be executed each day, which you may find disruptive. you could also find it upsetting to have a thin tube (catheter) left completely to your abdomen (tummy), despite the fact that it can frequently be hid underneath garb.
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saem a 22 year old running back is struck from behind by a 300-pound lineman. the blow occurs below the knee as his foot is firmly planted and two other lineman are holding his upper body. he presents to the emergency department with gross anterior dislocation of the tibia on the femur. his foot is cool and palee, and dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are not detected by doppler ultrasound. what is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Immediate reduction at the emergency room while being sedated consciously without X-rays
The popliteal artery is frequently damaged after a knee dislocation, endangering the limb's survival. Without waiting for orthopedics, the ED doctor should attempt an immediate reduction for the dislocation in an effort to try to restore flow via the artery. Transport to the operating room would be a waste of time, and while arteriography would be recommended, improving blood flow should be given top priority.
What is arteriography?
An arteriogram is used to visualize how blood flows through the arteries. It is additionally utilized to look for arteries that are clogged or damaged. It can be utilized to spot a bleeding source or see malignancies clearly. An arteriogram is frequently carried out concurrently with therapy.
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a patient with acute decompensated heart failure (adhf) is admitted to the unit. about which orders should the nurse ask for clarification?
Regular diet, normal saline IV bolus, and vital signs every four hours are the orders, should the nurse require clarification.
What is the reason behind ADHF?Fluid volume overload that develops suddenly is referred to as acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF). However, acute coronary syndrome, arrhythmias, uncontrolled hypertension, and infections like endocarditis may also cause acute decompensated heart failure. The most frequent causes are medication and dietary noncompliance.
Acute decompensated heart failure is characterized by the sudden or gradual onset of heart failure signs or symptoms that necessitate unforeseen office visits, ER visits, or hospitalization.
Most patients admitted with ADHF receive intravenous loop diuretics as their main treatment, which, as was already mentioned, primarily reduces venous congestion and volume overload to alleviate symptoms.
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If a clinician administers a test to a client on day 1 and scores it and then scores the same test again on day 3, what is this testing?.
Answer:
Intra-rater reliability
Explanation:
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a client diagnosed with acute-onset pulmonary edema has not experienced a response to digitalization. the nurse should expect what drug to be prescribed for this client?
The nurse should expect milrinone drug to be prescribed for this client
What is pulmonary edema ?The abnormal buildup of fluid in the lungs is known as pulmonary edema. Breathlessness results from this fluid accumulation. Too much fluid in the lungs can result in the condition known as pulmonary edema. The numerous air sacs in the lungs become clogged with this fluid, making breathing difficult.
Your prognosis will depend on what caused your pulmonary edema, which is a life-threatening condition. A 50% survival rate for cardiac edoema is achieved one year after hospital discharge. Cardiogenic pulmonary edoema is frequently brought on by heart failure, which is a chronic condition that can be treated.Learn more about Pulmonary edema here:
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the determination of whether an athlete has an open airway, is breathing, and has blood circulating throughout the body is part of the:
An athlete has an open airway, is breathing, and has blood circulating throughout the body is part of the primary survey of an injured athlete.
What is the importance of breathing?By supplying the oxygen required for metabolism and eliminating the waste product of the these reactions, carbon dioxide, breathing maintains life. Additionally, it regulates the autonomic nervous, the circulatory system, and the metabolism in addition to being one of the primary pH regulators in the body.
Which breathing position is best?Lay on you side with such a cushion between your knees and pillows supporting your head. Maintain a straight back. Place a pillow beneath your legs and lie on your stomach with you head raised and your knees bent.
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which interventions should the nurse include when creating a care plan for a child with hepatitis? select all that apply.
If a child develops hepatitis as a result of an infection, the nurse's treatment is generally supportive: rest, drinking lots of water, and supporting their immune function so they can recover from the virus.
What should a hepatitis patient avoid?
Limit your intake of saturated fats, which include fatty cuts of meat and foods that have been oil-fried. Avoid eating raw or undercooked shellfish (e.g., clams, mussels, oysters, steamed shrimp) because they may be contaminated with Mycobacterium vulnificus, a bacteria that is exceedingly toxic to the liver and can cause severe damage.
Hepatitis is primarily transmitted through the feces, and infection control measures are known as "Enteric Precautions," or blood and body fluid precautions. These include using latex gloves when handling feces, urine, saliva, and blood. Handwashing seems to be essential.
Therefore, the nurse should advise the child on taking a vaccination to prevent hepatitis in the future.
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the mother of a 3-year-old asks a clinic nurse about appropriate and safe toys for the child. the nurse should tell the mother that the most appropriate toy for a 3-year-old is which?
The most appropriate toy for a 3 year old is a wagon.
A toy wagon is a four-wheeled toy such as a prime frame segment and a steerage handle. It is produced through a semi-non-stop method, which entails making, painting, and assembling the diverse parts. First delivered as a toy withinside the 1880s, the fundamental wagon layout has modified little over the years.
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which clinical symptoms in a postoperative patient indicate early sepsis with an excellent recovery rate if treated?
Clinical symptoms in postoperative patients showing early sepsis are postoperative wounds that dry for a long time. Treatment of sepsis can be done by administering antibiotics which is one of the main therapies that must be given in cases of bacterial infections.
Surgical wound infection is an infection that occurs in surgical incision wounds. This condition generally appears within the first 30 days after surgery, with symptoms of pain, redness, smelly discharge, and a burning sensation on the scar. Surgical wound infections are generally caused by bacteria, such as Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Pseudomonas.
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the nurse provides care to individuals who have been sexually assaulted during their childhood. which characteristic is most commonly noted by the nurse during an assessment of such clients?
The nurse provides care to individuals who have been sexually assaulted during their childhood and characteristics of such clients are they must be experiencing PTSD, anxiety and depression.
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental state condition that is triggered by a alarming event — either experiencing it or witnessing it. Symptoms could embody flashbacks, nightmares and severe anxiety, further as uncontrollable thoughts concerning the event.
Anxiety is a feeling of concern, dread, and uneasiness. it'd cause you to sweat, feel restless and tense, and have a fast heartbeat. It are often a traditional reaction to fret. for instance, you may feel anxious once visaged with a troublesome downside at work, before taking a take a look at, or before creating a crucial call.
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which information should the nurse include in a postoperative teaching plan for a client with a laryngectomy? reassure the client that normal eating will be possible after healing has occurred. instruct the client to avoid coughing until the sutures are removed. tell the client to speak by covering the stoma with a sterile gauze pad. instruct the client to control oral secretions by swabbing them with tissues or by expectorating into an emesis basin.
The nurse should advise a client who has had a laryngectomy to limit their daily fluid intake in the postoperatively education program.
Can you talk after a laryngectomy?Since you won't have sound if your larynx has been removed completely (total laryngectomy), you won't be able to speak normally. You can regain communication in a variety of methods, albeit it may take months or weeks to master them.
Can you eat with a laryngectomy tube?If the patient consumes food orally, it is advised that suction the tracheostomy tube first. This frequently eliminates the need for suctioning, which can cause diarrhea and severe coughing during or after meals.
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