A patient who is suffering from nausea and vomiting is not able to tolerate any sort of oral medications and the healthcare provider prescribes acetaminophen. Constipation is the condition by which the nurse will understand that the medication may not be absorbed properly in a patient with which concurrent condition.
The incidence of constipation is high among patients who follow diet which lack fruits and vegetables.
Constipation is a medical condition in which the patient find it hard to empty the bowel as a result of hardened feces.
The condition can be alleviated by drinking much water and by eating fruits and vegetables.
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protein should account for 15% of the calories you eat each day. True or False?
The given statement "protein should account for 15% of the calories you eat each day" is false because it should be 10-35% of the calories you eat each day,
The Recommended Dietary Allowance ( RDA) for protein is0.8 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight per day. still, some athletes and active individualities may need1.2-2.0 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight per day. The quantum of protein you should consume is grounded on your individual requirements and life.
For example if you're an active existent who exercises regularly, you may need to consume further protein than someone who's sedentary. also, people who are pregnant, breastfeeding, or recovering from an illness may need to consume further protein than the general population.
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If a patient has a medical condition that causes his cells to absorb fewer than normal __________ molecules, this patient would likely feel very tired. Responses.
a client who has undergone a lower limb amputation is preparing to be discharged home. what outcome is necessary prior to discharge?
The outcome is the patient can demonstrate safe use of assistive devices.
Amputation is the surgical removal of a limb due to trauma, sickness, or surgery. It is performed as a surgical procedure to manage discomfort or a disease condition in the afflicted limb, such as cancer or gangrene. It is often performed on individuals as a prophylactic surgery for such conditions. A specific instance is congenital amputation, a congenital condition in which embryonic limbs are severed by constrictive bands. Amputation is being used to punish criminals in various nations.
The majority of new amputations in the United States are caused by vascular system (blood vessel) problems, particularly diabetes. In the United States, there were an average of 133,735 hospital discharges for amputation every year between 1988 and 1996.
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a nutrient needed to build, repair, and maintain body tissues.
a client has received thrombolytic treatment for an ischemic stroke. the nurse should notify the health care provider (hcp) if there is a rapid increase in which vital sign?
After receiving thrombolytic treatment for an ischemic stroke, the nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately if there is a rapid increase in blood pressure.
This is because thrombolytic therapy can increase the risk of bleeding, and elevated blood pressure can further increase this risk. Additionally, high blood pressure can exacerbate cerebral edema, which is a potential complication of ischemic stroke. Therefore, it is important to monitor the client's blood pressure frequently and to notify the healthcare provider if there is a sudden and significant increase in blood pressure.
Thrombolytic treatment, also known as thrombolysis, is a medical intervention that involves the use of medications to dissolve blood clots that are obstructing blood flow in the arteries.
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the nurse is auscultating the lungs of a lethargic, irritable 6-year-old boy and hears wheezing. the nurse will most likely include which teaching point if the child is suspected of having asthma?
If a 6-year-old boy is lethargic, irritable, and has wheezing, it may indicate that the child is having an asthma attack.
What teaching points will nurse give to the asthmatic child?In this case, the nurse would likely include the following teaching points:
Teach the child and their family about asthma triggers and how to avoid them. Common triggers include tobacco smoke, dust mites, pet dander, and pollen.Show the child and their family how to use a peak flow meter to monitor the child's lung function. This can help identify asthma flare-ups early and allow for prompt treatment.Explain the proper use of inhalers and nebulizers, including how to inhale the medication correctly and when to use them.Discuss the importance of taking medication as prescribed, even if the child is feeling better. Skipping doses or stopping medication too soon can lead to asthma flare-ups.Develop an asthma action plan with the child and their family. This plan should outline what to do in case of an asthma attack, including when to use rescue medication, when to seek emergency care, and when to follow up with a healthcare provider.Learn more about asthma, here:
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5.What is the main idea of this text?
A.Ben Carson grew up in Detroit, Michigan, and his mother, Sonya Carson,
worked hard to support her children in their academic pursuits by encouraging
them to read often and write book reports for her.
B. As Secretary of Housing and Urban Development under President Trump,
Ben Carson came up with a plan to create EnVision centers across the United
States to provide services to the surrounding community.
C.
Ben Carson is an African-American neurosurgeon and politician who
pioneered important brain surgeries and later served as the Secretary of
Housing and Urban Development.
D.As a neurosurgeon, Ben Carson performed important surgeries that
changed the medical field, including one difficult 22-hour surgery in which he
separated conjoined twins.
Answer:
The main idea of this text is option C: "Ben Carson is an African-American neurosurgeon and politician who pioneered important brain surgeries and later served as the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development."
Explanation:
The text provides an overview of Ben Carson's background and accomplishments in both the medical field as a neurosurgeon and in politics as a government official.
A _____ is a small pouch, or sac, found in the lining, or wall, of a tubular organ such as the colon.
Answer: A Diverticuli
Explanation: The bags are caused by high pressures in the colon that occur when there is not enough fiber in the stool (feces).
which complication of cardiac catheterization should the nurse monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure?
The nurse should monitor for the following complications of cardiac catheterization within the initial 24 hours after the procedure: cardiac arrhythmias, pericardial effusion or tamponade, cardiac perforation, vascular complications, and allergic reactions.
What is cardiac catheterization?Cardiac catheterization is a medical procedure used to diagnose and treat certain heart conditions. The procedure involves the insertion of a thin, flexible tube called a catheter into a vein or artery in the arm, groin, or neck. This catheter is then guided to the heart, where it is used to measure the pressure in the chambers and take X-rays of the heart. It may also be used to inject contrast dye, allowing doctors to see the coronary arteries and any blockages that may be present.
The nurse should also monitor for signs and symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, and redness or swelling at the catheter insertion site. In addition, the nurse should assess for signs and symptoms of bleeding, such as bruising or bleeding at the insertion site, or shortness of breath.
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when a client with epilepsy presents with a tonic clonic seizure, the nurse should: a. insert an oral airway and suction to ensure airway patency. b. move objects out of the clients way. c. observe and document the characteristics of the seizure. d. anticipate the need to obtain a blood glucose level.
A client is experiencing tonic-clonic seizures. The statements which is correct is option c. which states that move objects out of the clients way. Must Observe and document the characteristics of the seizure and anticipate the need to obtain a blood glucose level. The drug that is considered to be the right choice for this type of seizure is known as carbamazepine (Tegretol).
What are tonic-clonic seizures?
Tonic-clonic seizures or generalized onset motor seizures can be explained in short as a combination of tonic seizures (stiffening of the muscles) and clonic seizures (twitching). There are two stages which are experienced in a tonic-clonic seizures:
The tonic stage is when the patient loses their consciousness completely and their body undergoes stiffness or in some scenarios they may fall to the floor.
The clonic stage is experienced when the patient lose their control over their muscles as their limbs twitch. They may cause them to bite their tongue or inside their cheek, and have difficulty in the process of breathing.
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which type of medication is most commonly used to treat parasitic infections?
Is it normal to feel sharp pains in early pregnancy?
Pregnancy frequently causes stomach (or abdominal) discomfort or cramps. Although they typically aren't a cause for concern, they could occasionally be an indication of something more serious that needs to be examined.
The following conditions may be the cause of harmless stomach pains, which can be intense or dull ligament pain (often referred to as "growing pains" since the ligaments strain to support your developing bump) this can feel like a sharp cramp on one side of your lower abdomen. If the pain is minor and goes away when you move, rest, poop, or breathe, there's usually nothing to worry about. However, if you are concerned and experiencing stomach pain, contact a maternity hospital or your midwife. For first-time mothers in particular, it can be challenging to differentiate between a normal pregnancy and Your body will change significantly during pregnancy as it adjusts to the developing life inside the body.
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a patient's continuous bladder irrigation (cbi) is infusing at 65 ml/hr your entire shift (0700 to 1900). the patient's total urine output for the shift is 2375 ml. how much actual urine output will you document on the intake and output record?
A medical practise called continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) involves flushing the bladder with sterile fluid. It is used by medical professionals to prevent or dissolve blood clots in the urinary tract following surgery. Through a little tube, sterile solution is introduced into the bladder; after that, the fluid is drawn out and collected in a bag. Over a few days, the process takes place.
A sterile liquid is flushed through your bladder as part of a medical procedure called continuous bladder irrigation (CBI). At the same time, it eliminates urine (pee) from your body. It is frequently used by medical professionals to prevent or dissolve blood clots following surgery on the urinary tract. A hospital is where the procedure is performed over a number of days. Filtering trash from your blood is done by your urinary system. It produces faeces.
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the nurse is assessing the degree of pain or discomfort a patient is feeling. the nurse knows that this will be dependent primarily on:
The nurse is assessing the degree of pain or discomfort a patient is feeling. The nurse knows that this will be dependent primarily on the perception of the pain or discomfort.
Pain is an uncomfortable indication that something is wrong. It is a complicated experience that varies considerably from person to person, even among individuals who have had identical traumas or diseases. Pain can be extremely subtle, nearly imperceptible, or explosive. Certain time-honored methods, such as meditation and yoga, as well as modern varieties, may help minimize your need for pain medication. According to research, because pain affects both the mind and the body, mind-body treatments may be able to decrease pain by altering how you experience it.
In most industrialized nations, the most common cause for consulting a physician is pain. In various arguments about physician-assisted self harm or euthanasia, pain has been invoked as a reason to allow terminally ill patients to terminate their lives.
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if you were trying to increase fiber in your diet and wanted to include at least 4-5 grams of fiber per meal, how many servings would you have to consume of this product? group of answer choices 1 serving 2 servings 3 servings
if you were trying to increase fibre in your diet and wanted to include at least 4-5 grams of fibre per meal, Option B: 2 servings you would have to consume of this product.
Colon cancer, diverticular disease, heart disease, diabetes, etc. are a few of the conditions that a high-fiber diet appears to make you less likely to conquer with. Fiber is essential for lowering cholesterol and preserving gut health. If 4-5 grams of fiber has to be included in each meal, then 2 servings would be consumed.
It has been demonstrated that soluble fiber lowers overall blood cholesterol levels and may help diabetics with their blood sugar levels.
Oats, dry beans, as well as various fruits and vegetables, are the richest sources of soluble fiber. Insoluble and soluble fiber do not have dietary reference intakes, however many experts advise consuming 25 to 30 grams of dietary fiber day, with 6 to 8 grams of that amount coming from soluble fiber. Here are a few foods with 3–4 grams of fiber each:
Apple
Orange
Tangerine
Pear
Blueberries, 1 cup
strawberries, 1 cup
Raspberries are rich in fiber, with 8 grams per cup.
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the nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who is from a different culture. the nurse notes that the client will look away from the nurse and does not maintain eye contact. what would be the most appropriate action by the nurse, with regard to culturally competent care?
The most appropriate action by the nurse, about culturally competent care, is to utilize key informants and continue teaching, verifying client understanding through open-ended questions.
Nurses describe cultural content as the ability to understand cultural differences to provide quality care to patients with a variety of cultural diversity.
The standard needs of culture-based nurses are social justice, critical thinking, cross-cultural knowledge, cross-cultural practices, health systems, patient advocacy, training and education, cross-cultural communication, and leadership.
Through open-ended questions and understanding the patient's culture is culturally competent.
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why does further weight loss come slowly following a rapid loss during the initial three weeks of a rigorous diet? a. the number of fat cells makes further weight loss impossible.
The body reacts as if it's being starved and metabolic rates drop, that is why further weight loss comes slowly following a rapid loss during the initial three weeks of a rigorous diet.
The normal outcome of obesity therapies is an early period of fast weight reduction, followed by a weight plateau and gradual rebound. The present state of our knowledge on the biological, behavioral, and environmental variables influencing this almost universal body weight trajectory is discussed in this review along with the implications for long-term weight management.
To encourage long-lasting healthy habits and constructive weight control, the treatment of obesity necessitates continual professional attention and counseling tailored to weight maintenance. The body begins to burn other fats to use them as fuel when it feels starving and empty.
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The complete question is:
Why does weight loss come slowly following a rapid loss during the initial three weeks of a rigorous diet?
(a) The number of fat cells makes further weight loss impossible.
(b) When a person's hunger increases, metabolism increases.
(c) When an obese person's set point has been reached, weight loss increases dramatically.
(d) The body reacts as if it's being starved and metabolic rates drop.
(e) An obese person cannot maintain a rigorous weight loss diet.
13. What is 90 mL =
OZ
the nurse is discussing ways to promote discipline with parents who are becoming increasingly frustrated with their adolescent. what would the nurse suggest to the parents?
When discussing ways to promote discipline with parents who are becoming increasingly frustrated with their adolescent, the nurse could suggest: Set clear expectations, positive reinforcement, communication, good role model, and Seek outside help.
Set clear expectations and consequences: It's important for parents to set clear expectations for their adolescent's behavior and to communicate the consequences of breaking those expectations.
Use positive reinforcement: Instead of only punishing negative behavior, parents can use positive reinforcement to reward good behavior. This can be as simple as verbal praise, extra privileges, or small rewards like a favorite treat.
Encourage open communication: Adolescents often have strong opinions and ideas about what they want, and parents should encourage open communication to better understand their adolescent's perspective.
Be a good role model: Adolescents are influenced by the behavior of their parents, so it's important for parents to be a good role model. By modeling positive behavior and communication, parents can teach their adolescent how to handle difficult situations.
Seek outside help: If the parents are struggling to handle their adolescent's behavior, the nurse could suggest seeking outside help from a therapist or counselor.
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you are called for a patient who is complaining of being weak and dizzy. he reports that he does not have enough money to pay for his medications so he has not gotten them refilled. your service has an automatic blood pressure machine and you use it to measure the patient's blood pressure while you count his respirations. the blood pressure machine reports a blood pressure of 280/140. what should you do next? question 14 options: a) begin transport immediately b) call immediately for als response c) continue with vital sign assessment d) take a manual blood pressure
Answer to this question is (d) take a manual blood pressure
The manual recording of blood pressure is widely accepted to be more accurate than the recording of blood pressure using an automated device.
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the nurse is evaluating the lifestyle modifications a client has made to prevent gastroesophageal reflux. which statement indicates that the client understands how to prevent reflux?
Patient admitting "I try to eat smaller amounts of food more often throughout the day", it shows the patient how to prevent GERD reflux, the correct option is C.
When stomach acid continually rushes back into the tube between your mouth and stomach, it causes gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Your esophageal lining may become irritated by this backwash or acid reflux.
Many people occasionally have acid reflux. But, if it happens frequently over time, persistent acid reflux may eventually cause GERD. The majority of individuals may control their GERD symptoms by making lifestyle modifications and using medicines. Even though it's rare, some people may require surgery to relieve their symptoms.
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The complete question is:
The nurse is evaluating the lifestyle modifications a client has made to prevent gastroesophageal reflux. Which statement indicates that the client understands how to prevent reflux?
A. "Three meals per day is the best regimen to avoid GERD symptoms."
B. "I can reduce my GERD symptoms through a high-carbohydrate, low-fat diet."
C. "I try to eat smaller amounts of food more often throughout the day."
D. "A snack at bedtime will help reduce the acidity of my stomach during the night."
Which are included in learning domains? Select all that apply. a) Cognitive b) Conditional c) Attitude d) Behavioral e) Psychomotor f) Knowledge g) Skills h) Affective
The three learning domains are the cognitive, affective, and psychomotor domains. Option A, C and E is correct.
Cognitive: Knowledge, skills, and abilities related to intellectual or mental processes, including memory, analysis, and problem-solving.
Affective: Attitudes, values, and beliefs related to feelings, emotions, and motivation, including empathy, self-awareness, and social responsibility.
Psychomotor: Physical or motor skills related to movement and coordination, including fine and gross motor skills, manual dexterity, and physical fitness.
Conditional is not typically considered one of the learning domains, and Behavioral is often used interchangeably with psychomotor or cognitive skills, rather than being considered its own separate domain. Knowledge and Skills are components of the cognitive domain, while Affective refers to the affective domain.
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nursing students are discussing the requirement that they carry personal professional liability insurance as students. the nurse instructor should offer additional information when which statements are made? select all that apply.
The nurse instructor should offer additional information when which statements are made A. "I'm worried about the cost." and B. "What does it cover?"
What is nurse instructor?A nurse instructor is a registered nurse with advanced education and experience in the nursing field who provides clinical instruction and mentoring to nursing students. They use their expertise and knowledge to teach nursing theory, clinical practice, and other nursing-related topics. Nurse instructors are responsible for creating a learning environment in the classroom and clinical setting that fosters student success and provides an atmosphere of inquiry and critical thinking.
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Complete Question:
nursing students are discussing the requirement that they carry personal professional liability insurance as students. the nurse instructor should offer additional information when which statements are made? select all that apply.
A. "I'm worried about the cost."
B. "What does it cover?"
C. "I don't think I need it."
D. "I understand why it's important."
according to education law, article 130, section 6508, a board for each profession shall be appointed by the board of regents. the purpose of the state board for nursing is to:
The State Board for Nursing is a board appointed by the Board of Regents to regulate and oversee the practice of nursing in the state.
The board is assigned with the responsibility of guarding the public by setting norms and regulations for nursers, approving nursing education programs, and assessing the qualification of aspirants. The board also reviews and investigates complaints, takes correctional action when necessary, and provides guidance and advice to the public and
nursing professionals. Eventually, the board works to insure that nursers maintain their professional faculty, cleave to ethical norms, and give safe and effective nursing care to their cases.
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42) a client is admitted to the neurological floor with a diagnosis of guillain-barre syndrome. the nurse inquires during the admission interview if the client has history of: a. seizures or trauma to the brain. b. meningitis during the last 5 years c. respiratory infection in the last month d. back injury or spinal trauma
The patient is questioned by the nurse about past back or spinal trauma during the Guillain-Barré admission interview. So, option D is correct.
When the body's nerves are damaged by the immune system of the person, Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) results. Weakening of the muscles and, on rare occasions, paralysis are the effects of this damage. Guillain-Barré syndrome's precise cause is uncertain. A respiratory infection or gastrointestinal illness is frequently followed by days or weeks of the disease's onset. Recent surgery or vaccinations can infrequently cause Guillain-Barre syndrome. Following Zika virus infection, there have been cases that have been recorded. It is less likely to have issues if treatment is received quickly. Fewer than 1% of people with Guillain-Barre syndrome experience complications, and even fewer people die from the condition. After Guillain-Barre syndrome goes into remission, life expectancy does not seem to be affected.
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can nurse practitioners prescribe controlled substances
Yes, nurse practitioners can prescribe controlled substances if they have a federal DEA number.
Nurse practitioners, like psychiatrists, can analyze their patients' symptoms, diagnose diseases, prescribe medication, and occasionally provide talk therapy. They have the authority to prescribe drugs. A federal DEA number is required for the nurse practitioner to prescribe restricted medications.
Nurse Independent Prescribers can prescribe, administer, and provide administration instructions for Schedule 2, 3, 4, and 5 Controlled Drugs. This includes diamorphine hydrochloride, dipipanone, and cocaine when used to treat organic sickness or damage, but not when used to treat addiction. Opioids, stimulants, depressants, hallucinogens, and anabolic steroids are examples of controlled drugs. One of the most often prescribed opioid medicines. It is at the heart of the opioid addiction crisis in the United States, hence it is heavily controlled. Its primary symptoms are discomfort and cough.
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a patient is admitted to the critical care unit with an anion gap of 24 meq/l. this laboratory finding is characteristic of which condition?
A patient is admitted to the critical care unit with an anion gap of 24 mEq/L. This laboratory finding is characteristic of DKA condition. Option A is correct.
An anion gap of less than 16 mEq/L is considered typical. An high anion gap may be associated with a metabolic acidosis condition such as DKA. Ketosis is not linked to HHS. The anion gap is a metric that may be determined. It is calculated using a formula that takes into account the results of multiple independent lab tests, each of which evaluates the concentration of a different anion or cation.
The anion gap is the amount differential in serum, plasma, or urine between cations and anions. To detect metabolic acidosis, the amount of this discrepancy (i.e., "gap") in serum is determined. High anion gap metabolic acidosis is detected when the gap is larger than normal.
The complete question is:
A patient is admitted to the critical care unit with an anion gap of 24 mEq/L. This laboratory finding is characteristic of which condition?
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a nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding. in which order will the nurse implement the steps, starting with the first one? 1. elevate head of bed to at least 30 degrees. 2. check for gastric residual volume. 3. flush tubing with 30 ml of water. 4. verify tube placement. 5. initiate feeding.
A nurse who is preparing to administer an enteral feeding, they will implement all the steps in the following order.
The steps in the order are:
(1) Elevate head of bed to at least 30 degrees.
(2) Verify tube placement.
(3) Check for gastric residual volume.
(4) Flush tubing with 30 mL of water.
(5) Initiate feeding.
If the absorption of the last feeding is low you might suspect an obstruction in the process. Checking gastric residual is also important because feeding with nasogastric tube has a risk to overfeed and might induce nausea and cause the patient to throw up.
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what is the purpose of a differential white blood cell count?
The purpose of a differential white blood cell count is to identify and quantify the different types of white blood cells (also known as leukocytes) present in a blood sample.
What is WBC?
WBC stands for "White Blood Cells," which are also known as leukocytes. White blood cells are an essential part of the body's immune system, responsible for defending against infections, diseases, and other harmful invaders. They are produced in the bone marrow and circulate in the blood, lymphatic system, and other body tissues.
The purpose of a differential white blood cell count is to identify and quantify the different types of white blood cells (also known as leukocytes) present in a blood sample. White blood cells play a critical role in the body's immune response, defending against infections and diseases. By analyzing the types and numbers of different white blood cells, healthcare professionals can gain valuable insights into a patient's immune system and diagnose a range of medical conditions, including infections, autoimmune disorders, and cancers.
A differential white blood cell count typically involves examining a blood smear under a microscope and identifying and counting the different types of white blood cells, including neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils. The results of a differential white blood cell count are often reported as a percentage of the total white blood cell count, and abnormal or imbalanced results can indicate underlying health issues that may require further investigation or treatment.
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which of the following is not a purpose of a rapid trauma assessment? question 2 options: a) to detect injuries that may become life threatening b) to focus care on specific injuries c) to provide a basis for care during transport d) to assess the extent of injuries
The following is not a purpose of a rapid trauma assessment: b) to focus care on specific injuries .
What is rapid trauma assessment?Rapid Trauma Assessment is a quick method, commonly used by Emergency Medical Services, to identify hidden and obvious injuries in trauma victim. The main aim is to identify and treat immediate threats to life that may not have been obvious during initial assessment.
RTA is used on major mechanism of injury patients or unconscious patients with an unknown mechanism injury to rapidly obtain quick inventory of all the body systems that may be injured on the patient.
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