The nurse should deliver 12 breaths per minute for pre school-age client .
What is cardiac arrest?The sudden loss of heart function in a person who may or may not have heart disease is known as cardiac arrest. It may appear unexpectedly or follow other symptoms. If the right actions aren't done right away, cardiac arrest frequently results in death.The electrical system of a damaged heart malfunctions most frequently during cardiac arrests. An aberrant heart rhythm like ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation is brought on by this defect. Also contributing to some cardiac arrests is a severe slowing of the heart's rhythm.To learn more about cardiac arrest : https://brainly.com/question/7725863
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The American Heart Association (AHA) recommends performing chest compressions at a depth of 2 inches (4-5 cm) using both hands on the lower half of the sternum.
What is blood flow?Blood flow is the continuous movement of blood through the circulatory system of a living organism. It is powered by the heart, which pumps oxygenated blood around the body, and deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
Using two hands provides more effective compressions, and a depth of two inches increases the likelihood of adequate blood flow to the brain, heart, and other vital organs. The AHA also recommends delivering 12 breaths per minute and using the heel of one hand for sternal compressions. Using two fingers for sternal compressions is not recommended.
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during the inflammation process, chemotaxis occurs to increase white blood cells to the site of injury. what is this process called?
The process when chemotaxis occurs to increase white blood cells to the site of injury is diapedesis or also known as leukocyte adhesion cascade.
Diapedesis or leukocyte adhesion cascade is the movement of leukocytes out of the circulatory system and towards the site of tissue damage or infection. This process forms part of the innate immune response, involving the recruitment of non-specific leukocytes. Monocytes also use this process in the absence of infection or tissue damage during their development into macrophages.
In response to an inflammatory stimulus, blood leukocytes adhere to and cross the endothelium of the blood vessel wall. The migration of leukocytes from the blood into tissue is driven by chemotactic factors called chemokines, a group of small molecular weight cytokines that function as cell attractants in a gradient-dependent.
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a scrub nurse is diagnosed with a skin infection to the right forearm. what is the priority action by the nurse?
Answer:
she.or he.must go the doctor.to.get.checked before it spreads
which assessment would the nurse perform for a patient who presents to the emergency department after an accidental ingestion of a caustic substance?
Patients suspected of consuming a caustic chemical should be prioritized for immediate examination and treatment in the treatment area. This involves quick airway and vital sign examination.
chemical as well as immediate heart monitoring and intravenous access. A complete blood count, a metabolic profile that includes electrolytes, and an arterial or venous blood gas may be acquired. Plain chest and abdominal radiographs can detect free air or pneumomediastinum. Although some studies have found that endoscopy done up to 96 hours after consumption is safe[17], first endoscopy after 48 hours is not recommended because the wounded esophagus may enter the phase of ulceration and granulation, during which the esophagus becomes brittle and readily perforated. assessment would the nurse perform for a patient who presents to the emergency department after an accidental ingestion of a caustic substance.
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julian is worried because type 2 diabetes is common in his family. he does not want to get that disease. what can he do to decrease hi
Julian is worried because type 2 diabetes is common in his family and in order to decrease his risk of this disease he should exercise regularly and loose weight.
Losing weight lowers the risk of developing diabetes. People in one significant trial who lost roughly 7% of their body mass by dietary and exercise improvements saw a nearly 60% reduction in their chance of acquiring diabetes. Greater advantages will result from further weight loss.
You can achieve and keep a healthy weight with regular exercise, which also improves risk of type 2 diabetes. Exercise also facilitates the utilisation of sugar levels by your muscle for power and action. Reductions in levels of blood sugar may result from this.
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Julian is worried because type 2 diabetes is common in his family. he does not want to get that disease. what can he do to decrease his risk of type 2 diabetes ?
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a patient has sustained an injury to his mediastinum. based on the anatomy of his chest, which structure has been injured?
Based on the anatomy of the chest, the structure that was injured in the mediastinum was the cavity in the middle of the chest which is located between the sternum and the spine.
What is mediastinum?The mediastinum is the cavity that separates the lungs from other structures around them. This cavity can be divided into the anterior, medial, and posterior mediastinum. The etiology of mediastinal tumors is very diverse, such as tumors of the thymus gland, germ cell tumors, lymphomas, teratomas, and cysts.
Mediastinal tumors, both benign and cancerous, which are not treated can cause complications that are dangerous to health, such as spread to the lungs, heart, and lining of the heart (pericardium), or large blood vessels (aorta and vena cava), as well as pressure on the bone marrow behind.
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a patient with head and neck cancer is receiving fluorouracil and leucovorin the purpose of this combination is to
Fluorouracil when given alone stays in the body for only a short time. When given in combination with Leucovorin, Leucovorin can enhance the binding of fluorouracil to an enzyme inside of the cancer cells.
As a result fluorouracil may stay in the cancer cell longer and exert its anti-cancer effect on the cells.
Similar to the essential nutrient folic acid, leucovorin is a substance. It has existed and been put to use for many years. Fluorouracil and methotrexate are two chemotherapy medicines that are frequently used with leucovorin. Although leucovorin is not a chemotherapy medication in and of itself, it is used in conjunction with chemotherapy medications to increase their anti-cancer benefits (when used with fluorouracil) or minimize their negative effects (with methotrexate).
Fluorouracil is a cytotoxic chemotherapy drug used to treat cancer and is marketed under the trade names Adrucil and others. It is used to treat colon cancer, esophageal cancer, stomach cancer, pancreatic cancer, breast cancer, and cervical cancer by intravenous injection.
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if a patient has an open reduction of a dislocation of the temporomandibular joint on the left side, what root operation does this procedure represent?
This action is the fundamental function of reposition.
The temporomandibular joint (TMJ): what is it?The complicated joint in the jaw is called the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).It is made up of the temporal bone in the skull and the mandible, meaning lower jaw.The joint controls how the jaw moves during speaking, eating, and yawning. Whenever the jaw is closed, it also aids in keeping the teeth in proper alignment.Two joint capsules, three discs, and a number of muscles and ligaments make up the TMJ.The discs serve as just a cushion between both the two bones, enabling pain-free jaw movement.TMJ disorder, a disease marked by discomfort and restricted mobility, can result from TMJ dysfunction. Headaches, jaw discomfort, and trouble chewing are possible symptoms.TMJ problem is often treated with medication, physical therapy, and lifestyle changes. Surgery may be required in specific circumstances.To learn more about temporomandibular joint refer to:
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which information would the nurse include in a teaching plan when teaching a client with diabetes about the advantages of using an insulin pump? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The information that the nurse would include in a teaching plan when teaching a client with diabetes about the advantages of using an insulin pump are:
It can improve A1c levels.Clients may be able to exercise without eating more carbohydrates.Diabetes is a chronic medical condition that affects how your body transforms food into energy. The body converts the bulk of the food we eat into sugar (glucose) and releases it into the bloodstream. When blood sugar levels rise, the pancreas sends a signal to the liver to release insulin.
Maintaining an adequate blood glucose level over time will improve A1c values. Because insulin is only given as needed, the client will be able to exercise without increasing their carbohydrate consumption. If the catheter becomes dislodged and the client does not receive insulin for several hours, ketoacidosis may develop. Insulin pumps can promote weight gain rather than decrease. Subcutaneous insulin injections are less costly than insulin pumps.
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he dash pattern calls for increasing fruits and vegetables. which other food could ryan add to improve his diet that is recommended by the dash pattern? a. whole grains b. ground beef c. full fat ice cream d. white flour
Diet food (or dietetic food) refers to any food or beverage whose recipe is altered to reduce fat, carbohydrates, and/or sugar in order to make it part of a weight loss program or diet.
which other food could ryan add to improve his diet that is recommended by the dash pattern?
All-purpose flour, also known as white flour, is usually made from a mix of hard and soft wheat, to achieve the ideal protein content (figure, 10 to 12 percent, but it varies by brand). The bran (exterior of the wheat kernel) and germ (part of the inner seed) are removed, leaving only the endosperm.White Flour or popularly known as MAIDA in India is basically wheat flour that is refined and chemically bleached. During the refining processes, the wheat flour is stripped of precious fibre, B Vitamins and Iron.one flour in your kitchen, we recommend buying a higher-protein all-purpose flour such as King Arthur Unbleached All-Purpose Flour or Bob's Red Mill Unbleached White All-Purpose Flour.If you bake a lot of bread and prefer stocking only one flour in your kitchen, we recommend buying a higher-protein all-purpose flour such as King Arthur Unbleached All-Purpose Flour or Bob's Red Mill Unbleached White All-Purpose Flour.To learn more about diet refers to:
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Ryan has to eat whole grains, which are high in fibre like fruits and vegetables, to maintain healthy blood pressure which is recommended by the DASH pattern.
What is on a DASH diet?The Dietary Approach to Stop Hypertension is known as DASH. The DASH diet is a way of eating well that's meant to aid with the treatment or prevention of high blood pressure (hypertension).
The DASH diet is high in fruits, whole grains, vegetables, and dairy items with no or little fat, fish, poultry, beans, and nuts are all included.
Eggs are permitted in the DASH diet since they contain less salt. Limit your intake of egg yolks to no more than four times a week because they do contain cholesterol.
The DASH diet decreases blood pressure, improves the lipid panel, aids in weight loss, and lowers the risk of Type 2 diabetes and heart disease, according to the findings of these researchers and others.
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a client has a tracheostomy but doesn't require continuous mechanical ventilation. when weaning the client from the tracheostomy tube, the nurse initially should plug the opening in the tube for:
When weaning the client from the tracheostomy tube, the nurse initially should plug opening in the tube for: a. 15 to 60 seconds.
what is tracheostomy?
A tracheostomy may be carried out to remove fluid that's built up in the airways. This may be needed if: you're unable to cough properly because of long-term pain, muscle weakness or paralysis. you have a serious lung infection, such as pneumonia, that's caused your lungs to become clogged with fluid.A tracheostomy is usually done for one of three reasons: to bypass an obstructed upper airway; to clean and remove secretions from the airway; to more easily, and usually more safely, deliver oxygen to the lungs.Situations that may call for a tracheostomy include: Medical conditions that make it necessary to use a breathing machine (ventilator) for an extended period, usually more than one or two weeks. Medical conditions that block or narrow your airway, such as vocal cord paralysis or throat cancer.To learn more about mechanical refers to
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The nurse should initially cover any openings in the tracheostomy tube when weaning the patient off it. a. 15 to 60 seconds.
what is tracheostomy?To drain fluid that has accumulated in the airways, a tracheostomy may be performed. If you are unable to cough effectively due to chronic pain, muscle weakness, or paralysis, this may be necessary. your lungs are filled with fluid as a result of a significant respiratory infection, such as pneumonia.
An obstruction of the upper airway is typically bypassed with a tracheostomy, the airway is cleaned and secretions are removed, or oxygen is delivered to the lungs more readily and typically in a safer manner.
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a pharmacist is compounding a batch of 1-gram cefazolin syringes with a beyond-use date within the usp <797> limits. this compounded sterile preparation has a(n) risk level.
A pharmacist assembles a batch of 1 gram cefazolin syringes with a beyond-use date within USP <797> limits. This compounded sterile formulation has a risk level: Medium risk compounding.
What does USP 797 means?USP Chapter 797 establishes combined risk levels based on the potential for contamination of combined sterile preparations (CSPs). The shelf life of sterile products manufactured in a separate compounding area should not exceed 12 hours USP develops manufacturing standards for multiple sterile pharmaceutical products to ensure patient benefit and reduce risks such as contamination and infection.
How many risk levels are there in USP 797?USP 797 assigns each CSP one of five potential contamination risk levels: Use immediately, Low, Low within 12 hours or less beyond use date (BUD), Medium, High. The level of risk depends on the CSP's complex environment. Potential for microbial, chemical and physical contamination.
What are the USP 797 Guidelines?The USP 797 standard covers three main areas: human resources, engineering/equipment design, and environmental control. This chapter presents the requirements for each area to ensure safe and sterile dispensing.
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What is the first step you should take if a person is showing symptoms of anaphylaxis?
Answer:
If a person is showing symptoms of anaphylaxis, the first step that should be taken is to administer emergency epinephrine (adrenaline) if it is available. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening. The symptoms include difficulty breathing, hives, swelling of the face, and rapid pulse. If left untreated, anaphylaxis can lead to shock, cardiac arrest, and death. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis and should be administered as soon as possible. This can be done by injecting an epinephrine auto-injector into the muscle of the thigh. If the person does not have an epinephrine auto-injector, emergency medical services should be called immediately.
your teammate, a vegan, says he is having tingling and numbness in his legs, and he is unable to make it to practice today. which vitamin deficiency is he most likely suffering from? a. niacin b. riboflavin c. folate d. vitamin b12
Vitamin B12 deficiency symptoms may include: strange sensations, numbness, or tingling in the hands, legs, or feet.
The creation of DNA, the molecules inside cells that carry genetic information, and the metabolism of cells are all crucial processes that are aided by vitamin B-12 (cobalamin). Poultry, meat, fish, and dairy products are food sources of vitamin B-12.
Which fruit contains the most vitamin B12?
A affordable, wholesome, and nutrient-dense fruit, bananas can simply be incorporated into everyone's diet. It is one of the best fruits rich in vitamin B12. Additionally, bananas have potassium and fiber. It eases constipation and ulcer issues, controls blood pressure, and lessens stress.
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a client in labor is transported to the delivery room and is prepared for a cesarean delivery. the client is positioned on the delivery room table and the nurse places the client in which position?
Wedge under the right hip while in the supinated position.To prevent the uterus from compressing the major blood arteries during cesarean delivery, pregnant women are typically tilted to the left 15 degrees.
How long does a cesarean delivery take?While supinated, place a wedge under the right hip.throughout the procedure.a cut to the stomach.The physician makes an incision in the abdominal wall.an injury to the uterusTo make the uterine incision, a low transverse incision is made across the bottom portion of the uterus.Through the incisions, the baby will be delivered.From beginning to end, a C-section typically takes 45 minutes.Your uterus will be stitched and the abdominal incision will be closed after your baby is delivered by your healthcare provider.Various emergencies can happen while a delivery is being made.Though you should be aware that a spinal block or epidural are typically regarded as the safest options for both you and your baby, you may have a choice of anesthesia for a planned C-section.To learn more cesarean delivery refer
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nonverbal communication is the least reliable method of understanding what your patients or residents are feeling. true false
Nonverbal communication is the least reliable method of understanding what your patients or residents are feeling is false.
Nonverbal communication, such as facial expressions, body language, and tone of voice, can provide important information about a patient or resident's emotional state. While verbal communication can be more explicit, nonverbal cues can often reveal a person's true feelings even if they are not verbalizing them.
For example, a patient who is saying they are in no pain, but grimacing and wincing when moving, may be in pain. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to pay attention to and interpret both verbal and nonverbal communication when interacting with patients and residents.
Thus, non-verbal is reliable method of communication.
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on admission, the patient has signs and symptoms of pulmonary edema. which position is most appropriate for this patient?
The most appropriate position for a patient with signs and symptoms of pulmonary edema is a semi-Fowler's position.
Semi-Fowler's position involves elevating the head of the bed to a 45-degree angle. This position helps to promote optimal lung expansion and allows gravity to assist in the removal of fluid from the lungs. Additionally, sitting up can also help to reduce the workload on the heart, which can be helpful for patients with heart failure. It is important to monitor the patient's vital signs and oxygen saturation levels to ensure that the patient is comfortable and that the position is not causing any adverse effects.
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what is the term used most often to describe the individual within an organization who is responsible for protecting health information in conjunction with the court system?
The title "custodian of record" is most frequently employed to refer to the employee of a business who is in charge of safeguarding health information alongside the judicial process.
What role should health play?Your lifestyle should include a commitment to maintaining good health. A eating healthy can aid in the prevention of chronic diseases and severe conditions. Your ego and self-image depend on how you feel about yourself and well how you take care of your physical and psychological well-being.
What are the multiple healthcare models?The "medical model," the "holistic model," and the "fitness model" are three prevalent methods. Health metrics have shifted as a result of this progression.
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Hadley cells create dry conditions where total biomass (the total weight of living organisms) is low
Answer:
the answer in below
Explanation:
Hadley cells, which are large atmospheric circulation patterns that circulate warm air from the equator to the tropics, can create dry conditions in certain regions. These dry conditions are often found at the edges of the Hadley cells, specifically in the subtropical deserts, where the descending air suppresses precipitation. This lack of rainfall results in low total biomass, as the dry conditions make it difficult for living organisms to survive and thrive.
Based on your knowledge of Mrs. Votaw current health response, use a nursing diagnosis text to select priority collaborative outcomes for the current nursing diagnosis. Select all that apply.
The current nursing diagnosis's top collaboration goals are an oxygen saturation level of >95% and clean lungs on auscultation.
How does auscultation work?Auscultation is the procedure of listening to the body's internal sounds, usually with the use of a stethoscope. Auscultation is a process used to examine the respiratory, circulatory, and digestive systems. The term was first used by René Laennec.
Auscultation, which takes place during a physical examination, is the process of hearing the sounds the body makes. During a medical examination, the thoracentesis technique is performed to listen to the body's sounds while using a stethoscope. The patient's heart, lungs, and intestines are the most often heard organs during auscultation.
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the nurse is caring for a pregnant patient who is in labor. which nursing interventions should be performed by the nurse to prepare the patient for the labor process and childbirth? select all that apply.
The most crucial nursing interventions when taking care of a woman who is in labor are to offer emotional support and to encourage verbalizing sentiments to lessen worry.
In order to best care for a lady in labor, what nurse intervention should be prioritized?The two most crucial nursing interventions are to enable vocal expression of feelings and to offer emotional support to patients in order to lessen anxiety. Encourage women to switch positions frequently while they are in bed by making it easier for them to do so. Give the woman respect and let her family member stay if she requests it.Assessment of the client's vital signs, contractions, cervical change, as well as evaluation of the fetal condition, are the main goals of first-stage nursing care.The most crucial nursing interventions when taking care of a woman who is in labor are to offer emotional support and to encourage verbalizing sentiments to lessen worry.To learn more about nursing interventions refer to:
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a child undergoes open heart surgery to repair a cardiac defect. the health care provider informs the parents that antibiotics are required before any dental work is performed. later the parents ask the nurse why this is necessary. when responding, the nurse explains that this is completed to prevent which type of infection?
Heart surgery ,Recovery could take 6 to 8 weeks for major surgery. Find out from your child's doctor when they can go back to school, daycare, or participate in sports. Surgery-related pain is typical.
Why would a young patient need an open heart operation?If a child's cardiac abnormality cannot be corrected via a catheter method, open heart surgery may be required. Occasionally, a defect can be entirely repaired via a single surgery. If it's not feasible, the youngster might require more procedures spaced out over a period of months or years to address the issue.At least 3 or 4 additional weeks at home will be necessary for your youngster to heal. Recovery could take 6 to 8 weeks for major surgery. Find out from your child's doctor when they can go back to school, daycare, or participate in sports. Surgery-related pain is typical.To learn more about Heart surgery refer to:
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you are assessing a 36-year-old woman who is in the 33rd week of her pregnancy. the patient complains of bright red vaginal bleeding, but denies abdominal pain or cramping. she tells you that she last felt her baby move about 5 or 10 minutes ago. fetal heart tones are audible at a rate of 130 beats/min. gentle palpation of her abdomen reveals that it is soft and nontender. which of your assessment findings is most suggestive of placenta previa?
The most suggestive assessment finding of placenta previa is bright red vaginal bleeding, as it is a typical sign of this condition that occurs when the placenta is covering or partially covering the cervix.
what is vaginal bleeding?Vaginal bleeding is the loss of blood from the uterus that exits the body through the vagina. It is a common symptom that can occur in women of all ages and can be caused by a variety of conditions.
During pregnancy, vaginal bleeding can be a sign of a serious complication such as a miscarriage, an ectopic pregnancy, or placenta previa.
In early pregnancy, any bleeding should be considered as a warning sign and the woman should seek medical attention immediately.
As the pregnancy progresses, bleeding can occur due to the detachment of the placenta from the uterus.
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers the cervix and vaginal bleeding is a typical sign of this condition.
In non-pregnant women, vaginal bleeding can be caused by abnormal menstrual cycles, hormonal imbalances, polyps or other benign growths, infections, or even cancer. Vaginal bleeding can also occur after menopause, which is known as postmenopausal bleeding.
It's important to note that any vaginal bleeding should be evaluated by a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause and to provide appropriate treatment.
Vaginal bleeding can be a sign of serious conditions and should not be ignored.
In conclusion, Vaginal bleeding is the loss of blood from the uterus that exits the body through the vagina, it can be caused by a variety of conditions such as pregnancy complications, abnormal menstrual cycles, hormonal imbalances, polyps, infections, or cancer.
It's important to seek medical attention if it occurs.
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the nurse is preparing a patient for discharge who has been treated for the prodromal stage of inhalation anthrax. whichc information would the nurse communicate to this patient?
The nurse is preparing a patient for discharge who has been treated for the prodromal stage of inhalation anthrax. The information is most important for the nurse to communicate to this patient is seek medical attention immediately if you feel breathless.
What is inhalation anthrax?Prior to spreading to other parts of the body, inhalation anthrax primarily affects the lymph nodes in the chest. This ultimately results in severe breathing difficulties and shock. Anthrax inhalation without treatment nearly always results in death. Nevertheless, roughly 55% of patients survive with aggressive care. Anthrax that is inhaled is thought to be the most lethal type. Although it might take up to two months, infection often appears a week after exposure. Only 10 to 15% of inhalation anthrax patients survive without therapy. Nevertheless, roughly 55% of patients survive with aggressive care. Lung anthrax inhalation cannot be passed from one person to another. You are not infectious to other people, even if you experience symptoms of inhalation anthrax.To learn more about inhalation anthrax refer to:
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the nurse is interacting with a family that has been caring for a client with cancer for several months. what are the best interventions to assist in relieving caregiver stress in this family? select all that apply.
Educating the family on drugs and side effects is the most effective technique to help this family's caregiver stress. Allow emotional expression among family members. Encourage support for maintenance of the home.
The burden of caring for cancer patients is shifting more and more to family members as opportunities for outpatient cancer treatment increase and hospital stays get shorter due to changes in health care payment and delivery.
The obligation that family members assume when caring for a cancer patient at home is reflected in the caregiving processes:
1) Monitoring the patient's condition or making sure that any changes have been noted.
2) Contributing to the decision-making process.
3) Understanding (making sense of what has been observed.
4) Making changes or changing course based on the patient's reactions to the course of action.
5) Allow emotional expression among family members.
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The complete question is:
The nurse is interacting with a family that has been caring for a client with cancer for several months. What are the best interventions to assist in relieving caregiver stress in this family? Select all that apply.
1) Educate the family about medications and side effects.
2) Suggest the family go to church more often.
3) Suggest the prescription of antianxiety medications.
4) Allow family members to express feelings.
5) Suggest support for household maintenance.
a health professions student asks the professor to explain apoptosis. what response is most accurate?
Pathologic tissue changes. Apoptosis causes cell death in many pathologic states, not just from chemical injury.
What is the purpose of apoptosis?A form of cell death where a cell is killed through a succession of molecular events. One technique the body employs to get rid of unwanted or abnormal cells is this one. Cancer cells may prevent apoptosis from occurring.In mammalian cells, mitochondria are essential for initiating apoptosis. Members of the Bcl-2 family control the release of proteins from the gap between the inner and outer mitochondrial membranes, which, once in the cytosol, activate caspase proteases that break down cells and indicate effective phagocytosis of cell corpses.A controlled series of events leading to self-destruction that results in programmed cell death.To learn more about apoptosis refer to:
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the nurse administers an older adult clients medications via gastrosotmy tube in the long term care setting. which finding would necessitate holding the feedings and medications
Through the abdominal wall, a tube is inserted into the stomach. It allows liquids and air to leave the stomach and can be used to give patients medication and liquids, including liquid food.
What is gastrostomy tube?A tube that is put into the stomach through the abdominal wall. It can be used to administer medication and liquids, including liquid food, to the patient and permits air and liquid to leave the stomach. Enteral nutrition refers to the feeding of a person through a gastrostomy tube. The process to insert a feeding tube is called a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG). These feeding tubes are frequently referred to as G tubes or PEG tubes. Through the tube, you can consume food directly into your stomach. A person can take food and augment with tube feeding if necessary if they can safely eat by mouth. Eating food won't harm the feeding tube, and having one doesn't make it hazardous to do so.
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a client with a burn over the lower leg asks why surgery is planned to remove the dead burned tissue. which response will the nurse make?
Administer an analgesic response will the nurse make.
Analgesic medications are given at regular intervals in the preventive method so that they take effect before the pain gets severe. Subtherapeutic serum drug levels are avoided by giving analgesics on a time basis as opposed to based on the patient's reported level of pain.
When administering analgesics or musculoskeletal drugs, it's crucial to follow the five rights: choose the appropriate patient, medication, dose, method, and time, as well as check for allergies beforehand.
For the treatment of acute pain, non-opioid analgesics including NSAIDs and acetaminophen are frequently employed. However, opioid medications are typically needed to treat acute mild to severe pain.
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when instructing the client about the use of polyethylene glycol, what result should the nurse tell the client to expect?
The nurse will tell the client that he will have a frequent, watery stool.
What is the effect of the polyethylene glycol?Polyethylene glycols are used to medicate a patient that has constipation. The polyethylene glycol medications class called osmotic laxatives. The main purpose of giving Polyethylene glycols is to clean up the digestion organ by take out the subject on it as feces. The side effect of using Polyethylene glycols are:
Confusion.decreased urine output.headache.increased thirst.fast or irregular heartbeat.muscle pain or cramps.numbness or tingling in the feet, fingertips, hands, ips, or mouth.swelling of the face, ankles, or hands.Learn more about Polyethylene glycol here
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a hospitalized client has a living will but states she does not want aggressive lifesaving measures. the client is currently receiving internal tube feeding through a nasogastric tube. during a bolus feeding the client vomits and begins choking. which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take?
A nasogastric tube (NG tube) is a special tube that carries food and medicine to the stomach through the nose.
What Is an Enteral Feeding Tube?he nasal-gastric tube (NGT) travels from the nose to the stomach. The orogastric tube (OGT) travels from the mouth to the stomach. The nasal tube connects to the intestines at its other end (subtypes include nasojejunal and nasoduodenal tubes).
Enteral means inside the gastrointestinal tract or intestine. Through a tube, liquid food can enter your stomach or intestine using an enteral feeding tube. The ostomy, a surgically made opening in the abdominal wall, receives the soft, flexible tube.
The term "gastrostomy" refers to an enterostomy tube in the stomach. Enteral means inside the gastrointestinal tract or intestine. Through a tube, liquid food can enter your stomach or intestine using an enteral feeding tube. The surgically produced aperture in the abdominal wall receives the soft, flexible tube.
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when distributing a medication to a patient, all of the following is entered into a logbook by the medical assistant, except ________.
When distributing a medication to a patient, all of the following is entered into a logbook by the medical assistant, except the physician's initials.
Medical assistants are health-care professionals who work in clinics and medical offices to assist doctors. They may accompany you to the exam room, take your vital signs, and measure your height and weight. Medical assistants will inquire about your symptoms and health concerns and relay that information to your doctor.
Despite the fact that medical assistants work closely with doctors, they are not permitted to provide medical advice to patients. Their responsibilities are limited to gathering information and preparing the doctor and patient for the medical visit. The duties of a medical assistant differ depending on the office or clinic. The majority of their responsibilities involve administrative or clinical work.
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