The client's statement shows an understanding of palliative care as the care and medication will be used to control my pain and increase my comfort.
What is palliative care?Palliative care is the treatment of a patient and his family who have an incurable disease by maximizing the patient's quality of life and reducing disturbing symptoms, as well as by reducing pain, taking into account the psychological and spiritual aspects of the patient and family.
Palliative care aims to reduce patient suffering, improve their quality of life, and provide support to their families. So, the main goal of palliative care is not to cure the disease, but rather to improve the quality of life and what is handled in palliative care is not only for the patient but also for his family. Even though in the end the patient dies, the most important thing is before he dies, the patient is ready psychologically and spiritually, and is not stressed about his illness.
This question is optional
All of my treatments and medications will need to be discontinued.I will discontinue any treatments and only take medications that will help my pain.Treatments and medications will be utilized to control my pain and increase my comfort.I will continue the previous course of treatment with the help of a nurse.Learn more about palliative care at https://brainly.com/question/19580009.
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the nurse is explaining the joint commission's (tjc's) universal protocol for preventing wrong-site, wrong-procedure, and wrong-person surgery to a group of nursing students. the nurse explains that site marking involves which action?
The surgeon marking the area of the operative procedure.
What prevents surgery from being conducted on the incorrect body part?The majority of wrong-site operations occur when a clinician performs surgery on the incorrect side of the body, as in the situations detailed above. The Joint Commission, a nonprofit organization that accredits healthcare institutions and establishes industry standards, is the United States’ authority on preventing wrong-site surgery.
The nurse communicates to the physician assessment results such as current vital signs, lab values, changes in condition such as decreased urine output, heart rhythm, pain level, and mental status, as well as important medical history with suggestions for therapy.
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which critical factors would the nurse say are associated with situational-contingency theory? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The capacity of the boss to praise subordinates, how much respect and trust there is between leaders and followers, the goals-based work structure and the difficulty of the difficulties being confronted.
What is a contingency theory?Three aspects are seen as crucial by situational-contingency theory. A key component of it is the leader's capacity to confer authority and status on followers. The level of respect and trust between leaders and followers also makes up this component. A crucial element is how tasks are organized in relation to goals and the difficulty of challenges encountered. Constraint variables include the followers' individual traits and the environment's needs. According to a contingency theory, there is no ideal structure for a business, no ideal leader for a business, and no ideal way to make choices. The best course of action is instead determined by the circumstances both inside and outside the body. According to the contingency theory of leadership, effective leadership depends on the situation.To learn more about contingency theory refer to:
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an adult patient has been diagnosed with atopic dermatitis and seborrheic dermatitis with lesions on the forehead and along the scalp line. which is correct when prescribing a corticosteroid medication to treat this condition?
Adult patient diagnosed with atopic dermatitis and seborrheic dermatitis with lesions along the line of forehead and scalp. correct when prescribing corticosteroid drugs used to treat condition: Begin treatment with 0.1% triamcinolone acetonide.
What do dermatologists prescribe for seborrheic dermatitis?Your doctor may prescribe prescription-strength corticosteroids to apply to the scalp or other affected areas. , Desonate). They are effective and easy to use.
What are the main causes of seborrheic dermatitis?The condition can be caused by an overgrowth of the Malassezia yeast (a substance normally found in the skin) that causes inflammation and changes in the skin. In infants, the condition is sometimes called "cradle cap." It usually resolves spontaneously.
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a primary health care provider is performing the leopold maneuver on a laboring patient to check for fetal position. which position is the most common for delivery?
Position the patient supine with the head of the bed raised to 15 degrees, and a small pillow or rolled towel placed on her right side. Adequate exposure of the gravid abdomen from the xiphisternum to the pubic symphysis.
What is supine?One of the four standard patient positions is supine. Prone, lateral, and lithotomy are the other three positions. In the supine position, the patient is face up, with their neck in a neutral position and their head resting on a pad positioner or pillow. The most typical position for surgery is for the patient to be laying on his or her back, with the head, neck, and spine in neutral alignment and the arms either adducted alongside the patient or slightly abducted from the body.Place the patient in a supine position with the bed's head raised to 15 degrees and a small pillow or towel rolled up on her right side. Xiphisternum to pubic symphysis: enough exposure of the gravid abdomen.To learn more about supine refer to:
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after surgery, a child experiences intense pain and an analgesic is prescribed. which would the nurse consider when administering the analgesic?
The nurse would consider even though children do not like medicines, analgesics will make them more comfortable.
An analgesic medicine, sometimes known as a painkiller, is any of a class of pharmaceuticals intended to alleviate pain (that is, analgesia or pain management). Although analgesia and anaesthesia are neurophysiologically overlapping and hence different medications have both analgesic and anaesthetic effects, analgesics are conceptually separate from anaesthetics, which temporarily lower, and in some cases eradicate, feeling.
The nature of pain also influences analgesic selection: Traditional analgesics are less effective for neuropathic pain, and there is frequently relief from types of medications that are not generally considered analgesics, such as tricyclic antidepressants and anticonvulsants.
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the nurse is reviewing the health record of a pregnant client at 16 weeks' gestation. the nurse would expect to document that the fundus of the uterus is located at which area?
The nurse would anticipate recording that the uterus' fundus is situated in the middle of the area between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus.
What is the objective of an amniocentesis for a patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension who is 16 weeks pregnant and in the hospital?Amniotic fluid and cells are extracted from the uterus during amniocentesis in order to be tested or treated. A baby is encased in and shielded by amniotic fluid throughout pregnancy.
At 16 weeks, where is the location of the uterus' fundus?Around 6 inches will separate the fundus, or top, of your uterus from your pubic bone. This suggests that your pregnancy tummy may be beginning to show at 16 weeks. When you clean or floss your teeth, your gums may be delicate and prone to bleeding.
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a patient is seen in the nursing home for dizziness and a healed stage ii pressure ulcer is also noted. what icd-10-cm code(s) is/are reported?
The ICD-10-CM codes reported would be R42 (Dizziness and giddiness) and L89.249 (Healed pressure ulcer of unspecified site, stage II).
In ICD-10-CM, diagnosis codes are used to report the patient's condition, and it is necessary to report the main condition or symptom that the patient is experiencing. In this case, the main condition is dizziness, and the secondary condition is the healed stage II pressure ulcer.
R42 is the code for Dizziness and giddiness. It is reported as the main condition as the patient is seen for the complaint of dizziness.
L89.249 is the code for Healed pressure ulcer of unspecified site, stage II. It is reported as a secondary condition as the patient has a pressure ulcer that has already healed, but it is not specified where the pressure ulcer is located. The code for the stage of the pressure ulcer is also reported.
It's important to note that the codes should be reported in the order of priority, so the main condition should be reported first and the secondary conditions should be reported next.
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"1. A closer look - Food insecurity in the United States
According to the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization, approximately 795 million people are chronically undernourished worldwide. Undernutrition means that a person consumes insufficient energy to meet his or her metabolic needs. Many food security organizations set this minimum at 2,000 kcal/day for a person to be well nourished.
Examine the figure depicting the food security status of U.S. households and then answer the question that follows.
1. According to the definitions used by the USDA Economic Resource Service, what percentage of U.S. households had access, at all times, to enough food for an active, healthy life for all members?
86%
5.6%
8.4%
14%
2. According to the U.S. Department of Agriculture, a rib eye steak has an energy density of approximately 2,650 kcal/kg. A person could conceivably consume 730,000 kcal/year simply by eating 275.5 kg of steak over the course of a year, or 26.5 oz every day. Would a person who did this be likely to be properly nourished, and why or why not?
No; 730,000 kcal/year is not enough food to avoid undernutrition.
No; beef is too fattening. The person would probably suffer from overnutrition.
Yes; 730,000 kcal/year is a reasonable minimum level of consumption to avoid undernutrition.
No; beef lacks some essential nutrients. The person would probably suffer from malnutrition.
3. There are many federal and local programs in the United States that aim to prevent or relieve malnutrition or undernutrition, thereby reducing the prevalence of food insecurity. Match the programs below with their major role in promoting adequate nutrition and increasing the prevalence of food security in the United States.
Organizations
Descriptions
feeding america, food pantry, or national school lunch program Meal centers which provide food at no charge to reduce food insecurity.
feeding america, food pantry, or national school lunch program Nationwide network of food banks servicing food pantries.
feeding america, food pantry, or national school lunch program Federally assisted meal program operating in public and nonprofit private schools and residential childcare institutions.
4. The following two images show maps of the United States: The map on the left depicts prevalence of food insecurity relative to the U.S. average from 2012–2014; the map on the right depicts poverty rates throughout the United States from 2014.
5. Which region of the United States has the highest prevalence of food insecurity?
South
Southwest
Northwest
Northeast
6. Which region of the United States has the highest level of poverty?
Northwest
Southwest
South
Northeast
7. After analyzing the maps, one can conclude that higher poverty levels are linked with:
Higher levels of food security
Have no effect on food security
Lower levels of food security
"
The USDA defines food insecurity as a lack of consistent access to enough food for every person in a household to live an active, healthy life.
What is the food insecurity rate in the United States?All forms of acute illness and trauma patients can have their level of impaired consciousness measured objectively using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). The scale rates patients based on their eye-opening, muscular, and verbal responses—the three components of responsiveness. The skull shields the brain from harm. The skull is the collective name for the bones that guard the face, including the cranium. The meninges, which are composed of three layers of tissue and cover and protect the brain and spinal cord, are located between the skull and the brain. A tourniquet must be applied tightly enough to fully stop arterial blood flow distal to the tourniquet.To learn more about food insecurity refer to:
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to reduce the risk of her child having spina bifida, a pregnant woman should consume an adequate amount of which nutrient? folic acid vitamin d vitamin b12 biotin
To help avoid neural tube abnormalities, all women of reproductive age should consume 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid daily in addition to a balanced diet of foods containing folate (NTDs).
What dietary component lowers the risk of spinal bifida?Birth Defects May Be Prevented by Folic Acid, More than 70% of some birth abnormalities of the brain and spinal cord can be prevented with folic acid. Neural tube defects are the term for several birth abnormalities (NTDs). When the spinal cord doesn't correctly shut, NTDs develop. Spina bifida is the most prevalent abnormality in the neural tube.To help avoid neural tube abnormalities, all women of reproductive age should consume 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid daily in addition to a balanced diet of foods containing folate (NTDs) nutrient . NTDs are severe birth disorders that affect the spine and baby's brain (anencephaly) (spina bifida).To learn more about nutrient refer to:
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the nurse recognizes the clinical assessment of a patient with acute myeloid leukemia (aml) includes observing for signs of infection early. what nursing action will most likely help prevent infection?
The nurse is aware that part of the clinical evaluation of an aml patient is keeping an eye out for early indicators of infection. Infection may probably be avoided by practising diligent hand washing in the nursing setting.
Clinical evaluation is a series of ongoing activities that employ scientifically reliable techniques for the evaluation and analysis of clinical data in order to confirm the safety, clinical performance, and/or effectiveness of the medical device when used in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions. Clinical evaluation is essential and crucial because it makes sure that, during the duration of the medical device's tenure on the market, assessments of its performance and safety are supported by enough clinical evidence. Nursing students' knowledge, abilities, and attitudes relevant to programme and course outcomes and industry standards are evaluated using clinical evaluation instruments.
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a serving of food contains 5g carbohydrate, 8g protein, 4g fat, 2 mcq vitamin b 12, and 60 mg iron. based on this information, how many kcal does a serving of this food provide?
Both vitamins and minerals, known as micronutrients, are essential for everyday biological processes.
How many kcal does a serving of this food provide?
A kilocalorie is another word for what's commonly called a calorie, so 1,000 calories will be written as 1,000kcals. Kilojoules are the metric measurement of calories. To find the energy content in kilojoules, multiply the calorie figure by 4.2.Using information on the nutrition label of the food sample, calculate the kilocalories/gram. (Divide Calories per serving by the number of grams in a serving.) Compare your experimentally determined energy content (in kilocalories/gram) to the calculated value from the nutrition label.People who lose weight or plan to lose weight wonder how many calories they need to burn to lose 1 kg. According to studies, for every 1 kg of weight loss, 7700 calories are needed, or 1000 calories are lost 0.13 kg.To learn more about vitamins refers to:
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what is the best option when the health care provider does not agree with a patient's beliefs or the treatment option they have chosen?
Respect the patient's opinions and choices while carrying out the treatment plan.
What is treatment plan?A comprehensive plan that includes information on the disease being treated for, the intended outcome, available alternatives, potential adverse effects, and anticipated treatment time. A treatment plan is a written guide designed to aid a professional in offering tailored care in a timely, strengths-based, and helpful manner. The intended objective of treatment is made clear by a treatment plan, which also acts as a record of progress. A treatment plan in the context of mental health is a written statement outlining the objectives, strategy, and techniques to be used in therapy. In order to treat whatever it is you're working on, it will serve as a guide for you and your therapist. Without utilizing drugs, the patient will learn how to deal with unpleasant emotions.To learn more about treatment plan refer to:
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the nurse arrives at work and is told to report (float) to the pediatric unit for the day because the unit is understaffed and needs additional nurses to care for the clients. the nurse has never worked in the pediatric unit. which is the appropriate nursing action?
The nurse should orient themselves to the pediatric unit by reviewing policies, procedures, and the layout of the unit.
What are nursing care actions ?Nursing care actions involve providing holistic care to patients to ensure their physical, emotional, and mental wellbeing. Nursing care actions can include assessing a patient's condition, providing comfort measures such as pain management, assisting with activities of daily living, providing education to patients and families, administering medications, and developing a plan of care in collaboration with the healthcare team. Nursing care actions also involve advocating for patient rights, providing emotional support, and offering resources and referrals to other healthcare professionals. Nurses are also responsible for monitoring and evaluating a patient's progress, providing reassurance and support, and communicating effectively with the healthcare team to ensure the best possible care for their patients.To learn more about nursing care actions refer to:
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Which of the following conditions reflects immunologically mediated lung disorder due to prolonged, intense exposure to organic dusts?A. Hypersensitivity pneumonitisB. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosisC. PneumoconiosisD. Tension pneumothorax
which amount of daily fluid intake is recommended for a patient recovering from acute kidney injury?
The amount of fluid intake recommended for a patient recovering from acute kidney injury will depend on their individual circumstances and the severity of their injury.
In general, a nephrologist or a healthcare professional will closely monitor the patient's fluid intake and output and may give specific recommendations for how much fluid the patient should drink each day. In some cases, the patient may need to limit their fluid intake to a certain amount to prevent further damage to their kidneys. It is important that the patient follows the recommendations of their healthcare provider in order to aid in their recovery.
The fluid will help to keep the homeostasis of the body intact thus, it need to be carefully controlled. With the injury this control need to be refined using external help of expert such as nephrologist.
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the nurse is receiving shift report on four clients on an antenatal unit. the four clients are: (1) a 35-week-gestation mother with severe preeclampsia started on a maintenance dose of magnesium sulfate 1 hour ago; (2) a 30-week-gestation client with preterm labor on an oral tocolytic and having no contractions in 6 hours; (3) a hyperemesis client with emesis 4 times in the past 12 hours; and (4) a 33-week-gestation client with placenta previa who began to feel pelvic pressure during change of shift report. which action should the nurse take first?
A client with hyperemesis who has experienced vomiting four times in the last 12 hours is the first one the nurse attends to
Which procedure ought the nurse to carry out first? A client with hyperemesis who has experienced vomiting four times in the last 12 hours is the first one the nurse attends to.A client with hyperemesis who has experienced vomiting four times in the last 12 hours is the first one the nurse attends to.Nurse takes ordersA client with hyperemesis who has experienced emesis four times in the last 12 hours, a mother who is 35 weeks pregnant and has severe pre-eclampsia; a client who is 33 weeks pregnant with placenta previa and who started feeling pelvic pressure during the change of shift report.A 30-week pregnant patient in preterm labor on oral nifedipine who hasn't experienced a contraction in 6 hours.To learn more about nursing refer
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which treatment might need multiple or ongoing application? dry hair and scalp treatment anti dandruff treatment oily hair and scalp treatment normal hair and scalp treatment
Anti-dandruff treatments, according to the question, require more frequent or ongoing application.
How can I get rid of my dandruff?Enough zinc, B vitamins, and particular types of lipids in the diet may help avoid dandruff. Establish a hair and skin care schedule that works for you. Daily washing might help avoid dandruff if you happen to have an oily scalp. To remove flakes, give your scalp a massage.
Is dandruff normal to have?Although it might be unpleasant, flaking is harmless. It's not a signal that you're unclean. It isn't contagious, so you can't get it or transmit it to others. Although persistent scalp scratching might result in transient hair loss, dandruff does not immediately cause hair loss.
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a nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client in the first trimester of pregnancy about measures to help with morning sickness. which would the nurse include in the instructions? select all that apply.
When discussing prenatal testing with a lady who is around 6 weeks pregnant, the nurse mentions tests such the complete blood count, urine analysis, and rubella titer that are often done in the first trimester.
What is the first trimester of pregnancy?Development of the foetus starts after fertilisation of the egg. By the conclusion of the twelfth week, all of its organs and bodily systems have fully developed.
Pregnancy has three phases, or trimesters. Each trimester lasts for three months, or 13 weeks. Full-term pregnancy is defined as 40 weeks, or between nine and ten months. Your healthcare provider will provide you updates on the development of the foetus in terms or weeks. You remain in the first trimester of pregnancy up until the twelfth week.
Contrary to popular belief, your pregnancy actually begins on the first day your last period. This refers to a gestational age of pregnancy. A prenatal care specialist calculates your due date by multiplying the first day your most recent menstrual cycle by 40 weeks.
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The complete question is:The nurse is discussing prenatal testing with a woman who is approximately 6 weeks pregnant. The nurse shares which tests are expected to be conducted during the first trimester? Select all that apply.
The nurse is discussing prenatal testing with a woman who is approximately 6 weeks pregnant. The nurse shares which tests are expected to be conducted during the first trimester? Select all that apply.
Urinalysis, Rubella titer , Complete blood count
the nurse is caring for an infant who exhibits the above characteristics. when planning care, which would be the best long term client goal?
The best long term client goal would be that the client will reach his/her optimal level of functioning.
Infant massage may be beneficial to preterm newborns and those who have medical issues. Certain forms of massage may improve bonding and aid in newborn growth and development. Ask your doctor about advice on books and videos on baby massage. However, newborns are not as powerful as adults, so massage their baby carefully.
Babies often like vocal noises like chatting, chattering, singing, and cooing. Your infant will most likely like listening to music. Baby rattles & musical mobiles are also excellent ways to develop your baby's hearing. If your infant is fussy, try singing, reciting poetry or nursery rhymes, and reading aloud while gently swaying or rocking your baby in a rocker. Some newborns are extremely receptive to touch, light, or sound, and they may startle and scream readily, sleep less as expected, and turn their faces away when spoken or sang to. Keep noise or light levels moderate to low if this is the situation with your infant.
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one of the roles of the nurse in caring for clients with chronic kidney disease is to help them learn to minimize and manage potential complications. this would include:
One of the roles of the nurse in caring for clients with chronic kidney disease is to help them learn to minimize and manage potential complications. this would include: Restricting sources of potassium usually found in fresh fruits and vegetables
What is chronic kidney disease?Renal failure brought on by chronic kidney disease.The kidneys remove extra fluid and waste from the circulation. Waste accumulates when kidneys deteriorate.The sickness doesn't cause the symptoms, which appear gradually. A lab test can diagnose some people even though they have no symptoms at all.Medications aid with symptom management. In advanced stages, dialysis or a transplant may be required to filter the blood mechanically. Chronic renal disease is most frequently brought on by diabetes and high blood pressure (CKD). Your doctor will examine your medical history and perhaps do some tests to determine the cause of your kidney disease.Chronic kidney disease (CKD) has no known treatment, however it can be managed to lessen symptoms and prevent further progression.To learn more about chronic kidney disease refer to:
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what is the highest level of stroke center certification?
CSC is the highest level
is a side effect of antipsychotic drugs. a. alzheimer's disease; new generation b. tardive dyskinesia; new generation c. tardive dyskinesia; traditional d. alzheimer's disease; traditional
Tardive dyskinesia; new generation is a side effect of antipsychotic drugs. Common side effects of antipsychotics such as chlorpromazine and olanzapine are: Sedation or drowsiness.
Is tardive dyskinesia a side effect of antipsychotics?Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect that occurs when you take drugs called neuroleptics. These drugs are also called antipsychotics or strong tranquilizers. Used to treat mental health issues
What generation of antipsychotic drugs cause tardive dyskinesia?In long-term studies, first-generation antipsychotics are associated with an annual incidence of tardive dyskinesia of approximately 5% (4-6) in adults and 25%-30% (7-10) in elderly patients.
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when should the nutrition educational approach be tailored to address the needs of the target population, availability of resources, and any guidelines of the organization sponsoring the intervention?
Answer:
I don't know
Explanation:
I don't know anything lilllllll
how does the video, forgotten ellis island, relate to concepts of: cultural influences in community and public health. health implications of immigration/immigration healthcare issues. epidemiology, an important concept of public health. transcultural considerations and cultural compete
"Forgotten Ellis Island" relates to cultural influences in community and public health by showing the impact of immigration on the spread of disease and the lack of healthcare resources for immigrants.
What is disease?The spread of disease refers to the transmission of an infectious agent from one person to another. This can happen through a variety of means, such as through contact with an infected person, contact with contaminated surfaces or objects, or through the air. Some diseases are highly contagious and can spread quickly, while others are less contagious and spread more slowly.Epidemiology is an important concept in public health that is used to study the spread of disease. Epidemiologists use various tools and methods, such as surveillance, outbreak investigations, and statistical analysis, to understand how diseases spread and identify risk factors for disease. They also use this information to develop strategies to prevent the spread of disease, such as by identifying and isolating infected individuals, providing education and resources to at-risk populations, and developing vaccines and treatments.It is important to note that the spread of disease is not only influenced by the microbe or virus itself, but also by the social and economic conditions in which people live. For example, overcrowding, poor sanitation, and lack of access to healthcare can all contribute to the spread of disease. This is particularly relevant in the case of immigrants, who may face additional challenges in accessing healthcare and may be more vulnerable to certain diseases due to their living conditions.To learn more about disease refer:
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"Forgotten Ellis Island" relates to cultural influences in community and public health by showing the impact of immigration on the spread of disease and the lack of healthcare resources for immigrants.
How can migration impact illnesses (disease) spread?By starting outbreaks of acute illnesses, altering the prevalence of infectious diseases in a particular area, and changing the appearance of chronic illnesses brought on by prior infections, population mobility plays an important role in disease spread.
What conditions are related to migration in terms of health?Accidental accidents, hypothermia, burns, gastrointestinal disorders, cardiovascular events, pregnancy- and delivery-related difficulties, diabetes, and hypertension are among the most prevalent health issues among recently arriving refugees and migrants. Particular problems are frequently faced by female migrants and refugees,
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if a client has a bacterial infection in the blood, the nurse will note which laboratory value that correlates with this?
Answer:
If a client has a bacterial infection in the blood, also known as sepsis, the nurse will note an elevation in the white blood cell count (WBC) and specifically neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell that play a key role in fighting bacterial infections. Additionally, the nurse may also note an increase in the C-Reactive Protein (CRP) and Procalcitonin (PCT) levels which are markers of inflammation. The nurse may also note an increase in the patient's body temperature, heart rate, and respiratory rate as well as a decrease in oxygen saturation. Other laboratory values that may be elevated in case of sepsis include lactate, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine, and the nurse may also note an increase in the patient's blood culture.
A hospital prepares for a mass casualty event. Which functions are correctly paired with the personnel role : (Select all that apply.)
a. Paramedic Decides the number, acuity, and resource needs of clients
b. Hospital incident commander Assumes overall leadership for implementing the emergency plan
c. Public information officer Provides advanced life support during transportation to the hospital
d. Triage officer Rapidly evaluates each client to determine priorities for treatment
e. Medical command physician Serves as a liaison between the health care facility and the media
A hospital prepares for a mass casualty event, then its functions are properly paired with personnel roles:
Hospital incident commander—assumes overall leadership for implementing the emergency plan.Triage officer—rapidly evaluates each client to determine priorities for treatment.The hospital incident commander takes full control over the implementation of the calling plan. Third-party attendants quickly assess each client to prioritize treatment. Paramedics provide extended life support during transport to hospital. The spokesperson acts as a liaison between the health service and the media. The medical director decides on client numbers, reputation, and resource requirements.
Ans: B, D
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which clinical manifestations would the nurse monitor for when administering lymphocyte immune globulin? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
A nurse is preparing to administer lymphocyte immune globulin. The measures should the nurse take to prevent the side effects when administering lymphocyte immune Globulin is Administer the drug or four hours, closely monitor the patient for increase in side effects, premedicate with acetaminophen, Diphenhydramine
What is lymphocyte immune Globulin?In patients receiving stem cell transplants, a particular antibody called lymphocyte immune globulin, anti-thymocyte globulin, is used to treat aplastic anemia and graft-versus-host disease. It is administered intravenously (IV). The immune system is suppressed by the medication ATG, which is formed of antibodies. It is created by injecting human lymphocytes, or white blood cells, into horses. These human lymphocytes are injected into the horses, which triggers the immune system to generate antibodies against them.An antihistamine and sedative, diphenhydramine is mostly used to treat cold and allergy symptoms, sleeplessness, and allergies. The treatment of parkinsonism-related tremor and nausea is also less popular. It can be ingested, administered intravenously, intramuscularly, or topically.To learn more about immune system refer to:
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a pediatric patient with asthma exhibits increased difficulty in breathing. which finding is of greatest concern?
when pediatric patient with asthma exhibits increased difficulty in breathing , absence of audible wheezing is the finding is of greatest concern.
wheezing is nothing but a symptomatic manifestation of any disease process that causes the airway obstruction.
This indicates that the patient is suffering from asthma and his/her lungs are hyperinflated.
The treatment and doses of pediatric patient differs a lot comparative to adult patients.
Pediatric patients with asthma also suffers a variety of other symptoms like,
Not able to speak without gasping, regular cough and trouble breathing is also there.
A device such as a peak flow meter is also given, which is given to check the quality of lungs regularly.
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the nurse reinforces home care instructions to a client with sickle cell anemia. which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching
This statement by the client "When I'm feeling better, I'm returning to the soccer team." Needs further teaching by the nurse, as it could worsen his anemia.
sickle cell anemia is a hereditary disease related to red blood cells where due to its change in shape, its unable to take Hb and carry oxygen, which leads to less RBC production and leads to anaemia. The red blood cells here become sickle shaped and unable to carry Hb.
The person here is more prone to fatigue, diseases, jaundice, swelling,pain in the body and frequent pains.
The person saying to play soccer is already weak due to sickle cell anemia and needs a full body rest, if he exhaust his body this disease can lead him to death.
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older adults, who are more subject to falls, may fracture one or more ribs and be more susceptible to which condition after a rib fracture?
The most frequent injury in elderly patients with acute chest trauma is a fractured rib, and each subsequent fracture raises the risk of death and pneumonia by 19% and 27%, respectively.
The seventh through tenth ribs are the ones that break the most frequently. First and second rib fractures are uncommon, but they can occur in conjunction with serious injuries to the upper extremity of nerves, the subclavian arteries, the head, the face, or the thoracic aorta.
When pressures on the bones surpass the bone's breaking strength, fractures result. In young adults, high-energy traumatic experiences are typically to blame for the skeletal loads that lead to rib fractures. Rib fractures in elderly persons are frequently caused by falls, particularly in alcoholics.
Pain management, breathing exercises to keep the lungs fully expanded, and physical therapy are essential components of rib fracture treatment. Older people may need to be hospitalized since the risk of problems rises with age.
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