A shell is fired from a gun situated on a hill 40 feet above the ground. The gun is fired with an angle of elevation 30 degrees above horizontal with an initial speed of 400ft/s. How far away horizontally ( x-direction) does the shell hit the ground? Hint: The y-position of the shell is 0 when it hits the ground. 12.697ft 43.983ft 3000ft 4398.3ft

The minimum diameter of the pipe is 0.22 meters or 220 millimeters.

The minimum diameter of the pipe can be determined by the Darcy Weisbach equation.

Here's the formula: Darcy Weisbach equation: hf = (f L D V²) / (2 g)where

hf is the head loss due to pipe friction f is the friction factor

L is the length of the pipe

D is the diameter of the pipe

V is the velocity of the fluid

g is the acceleration due to gravity

For water, D is a function of Q. However, for gasoline, D is constant, so we will use the Darcy-Weisbach equation to calculate the required diameter of the pipe.

Let's use the given values in the above equation as follows: hf = 10 mL = 2000 m

Q = 240 L/s = 0.24 m³/s

D = ?

A = π/4 D² = (π/4) (D)²v = Q / A = (0.24 m³/s) / ((π/4) (D)²) = 0.3061 / D²g = 9.81 m/s²f = 0.003 (assuming commercial steel pipes)

Putting the above values in the Darcy Weisbach equation, we get:10 = (0.003 x 2000 x D x (0.3061/D²)²) / (2 x 9.81)

Simplifying, we get:

D³ = (0.003 x 2000 x 0.3061²) / (20 x 9.81)D³

    = 0.0092413D

    = 0.22 meters

Hence, the minimum diameter of the pipe is 0.22 meters or 220 millimeters.

Learn more about diameter from the given link

https://brainly.com/question/358744

#SPJ11

The experimental value for po is  [tex]13509.23 mT*mm/A[/tex] (two decimal places).

Given the applied current, i = 1.01A and the radius of the colts is 10 cm.

The slope points on the fitted line are (0;0mT) and (2.9;0.019mT).Find the experimental value for po with the following steps.

Step 1:Calculate the slope of the graph by using the slope points on the fitted line.

                     Slope (m) = y₂ - y₁ / x₂ - x₁= (0.019 - 0) / (2.9 - 0)

Slope (m) = 0.00655 mT/mm.

Step 2:Calculate the magnetic field intensity for the given applied current by using the following formula;

                        [tex]B = µo * i * n * r² / (2 * r)Where µo = 4π * 10⁻⁷ Tm/A[/tex] is the permeability of free space.

                           n = 130 is the number of turns per unit length.

                         r = 0.1 m is the radius of the colts.

                           i = 1.01A is the applied current.

  So, B = 2.066 * 10⁻³ T or 2.066 mT.

Step 3:Calculate the experimental value for po by using the following formula;

                 [tex]po = m * B * 10⁶ \\po = 0.00655 * 2.066 * 10⁶\\po = 13509.23 mT*mm/A[/tex]

Therefore, the experimental value for po is 13509.23 mT*mm/A (two decimal places).

Learn more about current

brainly.com/question/31686728

#SPJ11

The mass number (A) is 14 and the atomic number (Z) is 6.

In the given notation for the daughter nucleus Y, the superscript represents the mass number (A), which indicates the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. The subscript represents the atomic number (Z), which indicates the number of protons in the nucleus. Based on the given notation "6 ^ 14 underline C y+ beta^ - + overline v e", we can determine the values of A and Z.

The superscript 14 represents the mass number, which is the sum of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. Therefore, A = 14.

The subscript 6 represents the atomic number, which corresponds to the number of protons in the nucleus. Therefore, Z = 6.

Hence, the daughter nucleus Y has a mass number (A) of 14 and an atomic number (Z) of 6.

The notation used in the question represents a beta decay process, where a neutron in the parent nucleus undergoes a transformation into a proton, emitting a beta particle (electron) and an electron antineutrino. The resulting daughter nucleus has a different atomic number while retaining the mass number.

Learn more about the mass number

brainly.com/question/18803094

#SPJ11

Ohm's Theory and Kirchhoff's Theory are two major theories in the field of electrical circuits. Ohm's Law states that the current flowing through a conductor is proportional to the voltage applied across it. Kirchhoff's Law is a general law that applies to any circuit and is based on the principles of conservation of charge and energy.

Strengths and weaknesses of Ohm's Theory:
Strengths:
Ohm's Law is easy to apply and can be used to find the voltage, current, and resistance of a circuit. Ohm's Law is widely used in electrical engineering, physics, and electronics.
Weaknesses:
Ohm's Law is not always applicable in real-world circuits since it assumes that the conductor is linear and the temperature is constant. The theory does not take into account the effect of temperature on resistance.
Strengths and weaknesses of Kirchhoff's Theory:
Strengths:
Kirchhoff's Laws are widely applicable and can be used to solve complex circuits that cannot be solved by Ohm's Law alone. The laws are based on the principles of conservation of charge and energy and are therefore accurate.
Weaknesses:
Kirchhoff's Laws are difficult to apply to large circuits due to the number of equations that must be solved. Additionally, the laws do not take into account the internal resistance of the voltage source.
Similarities and Differences:
The main similarity between Ohm's Theory and Kirchhoff's Theory is that both are used to solve electrical circuits. The main difference is that Ohm's Theory is limited to linear circuits and does not consider the internal resistance of the voltage source, while Kirchhoff's Theory is applicable to any circuit and takes into account the internal resistance of the voltage source. Kirchhoff's Theory has more equations than Ohm's Theory.
Conclusion or Judgement:
In conclusion, both Ohm's Theory and Kirchhoff's Theory have their strengths and weaknesses. If the circuit is simple and linear, Ohm's Theory is more appropriate since it is easy to apply. If the circuit is complex, Kirchhoff's Theory is more appropriate since it can solve any circuit. In terms of accuracy, Kirchhoff's Theory is more accurate since it takes into account the internal resistance of the voltage source. However, in terms of speed of solution, Ohm's Theory is faster since it has fewer equations. Therefore, the best theory to use depends on the complexity of the circuit and the desired level of accuracy.

To know more about Ohm's Law visit:

https://brainly.com/question/1247379

#SPJ11

The force required to keep the block and brick moving at constant velocity is 46 N.

Given data:

Force needed to keep the block moving with constant velocity = 14 N

Weight of the wooden block = 40 N

Weight of the brick = 20 N

We have to calculate:

a) Coefficient of sliding friction between the block and the table.

b) Force needed to keep the block and brick moving at constant velocity.

Calculation:

a) Coefficient of sliding friction between the block and the table:

Let μ be the coefficient of sliding friction between the block and the table and n be the normal force between the block and the table.

μ = Force of friction / Normal force

We know that normal force is equal to the weight of the block.

n = 40

N = Weight of the block

Force of friction = 14 N (as the block is moving at a constant velocity)

μ = 14 / 40

μ = 0.35

Therefore, the coefficient of sliding friction between the block and the table is 0.35.

b) Force needed to keep the block and brick moving at constant velocity:

For the block and brick to move at a constant velocity, the force required to move the block and brick together should be equal to the force of friction acting on the block and table.

Forces acting on the block and brick:

1) Weight of the block and brick acting downwards

2) Force of friction acting upwards

Net force acting on the block and brick = (Weight of the block + Weight of the brick) - Force of friction

Net force acting on the block and brick = (40 + 20) N - 14 N

Net force acting on the block and brick = 46 N

Force required to keep the block and brick moving at constant velocity = 46 N

Therefore, the force required to keep the block and brick moving at constant velocity is 46 N.

To know more about constant velocity visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29297343

#SPJ11

Therefore, the minimum point will receive 15 units of light × (50% / 100%) = 7.5 units of light. Therefore, the width of the slit for a first-order minimum to appear at an angle of 30º from the optical axis is twice the wavelength of the light.

(1) To determine the amount of light received at the minimum point in a coherence pattern, we can use the concept of interference. In a coherence pattern, the maximum point receives the full intensity of light, which is given as 15 units in this case. Since the sharpness of the coherence pattern is 50%, the minimum point will receive half the intensity of the maximum point.

Therefore, the minimum point will receive 15 units of light × (50% / 100%) = 7.5 units of light.

(2) In Fraunhofer diffraction by a single slit, the location of the first-order minimum can be determined using the formula:

sin(θ) = m × λ / w

Where:

θ is the angle from the optical axis (in radians)

m is the order of the minimum (in this case, m = 1 for the first-order minimum)

λ is the wavelength of the light

w is the width of the slit

We are given that θ = 30º = (30 × π) / 180 radians.

Rearranging the formula, we can solve for w:

w = m × λ / sin(θ)

w = 1 × λ / sin(30º)

Since the value of sin(30º) is 0.5, we can substitute it into the equation:

w = λ / 0.5

w = 2λ

Therefore, the width of the slit for a first-order minimum to appear at an angle of 30º from the optical axis is twice the wavelength of the light.

To know more about diffraction:

https://brainly.com/question/29817343

#SPJ4

 angles θ for the first sheet is θ ≈ 70.53°.

A beam of polarized light is sent into a system of two polarizing sheets, with the first sheet at an angle θ relative to the polarization direction of the incident light, and the second sheet at an angle of 90∘.

To find θ, we can use the equation for the intensity of the transmitted light:

I_transmitted = I_incident * cos^2(θ)

Given that 0.11 of the incident intensity is transmitted by the two sheets, we can set up the equation:

0.11 = cos^2(θ)

To solve for θ, we can take the square root of both sides:

√0.11 = cos(θ)

Using a calculator, we find that cos^(-1)(√0.11) ≈ 70.53°.

Therefore, θ ≈ 70.53°.

To learn more about incident angle calculation:

https://brainly.com/question/26684457

#SPJ11

The radius of the exoplanet's orbit is approximately 2.45 × 10^11 meters, based on Kepler's Third Law and given orbital period and star mass.

To find the radius of the exoplanet's orbit, we can use Kepler's Third Law, which states that the square of the orbital period of a planet is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit.

The formula for Kepler's Third Law is:

T^2 = (4π^2 / GM) * a^3

Where:

T is the orbital period of the planet

G is the gravitational constant (approximately 6.67430 × 10^-11 m^3 kg^-1 s^-2)

M is the mass of the star (in this case, the sun)

a is the semi-major axis of the planet's orbit (which is equal to the radius for a circular orbit)

In this case, the orbital period T is 3.27 Earth years, the mass of the star M is 3.27 × 10^30 kg.

Let's substitute these values into the formula and solve for the radius (a):

(3.27 Earth years)^2 = (4π^2 / (6.67430 × 10^-11 m^3 kg^-1 s^-2)) * a^3

Convert Earth years to seconds:

(3.27 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60 seconds)^2 = (4π^2 / (6.67430 × 10^-11)) * a^3

Simplify and solve for a:

(3.27 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60)^2 = (4π^2 / (6.67430 × 10^-11)) * a^3

a^3 = [(3.27 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60)^2 * (6.67430 × 10^-11)] / (4π^2)

a = cube root of [(3.27 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60)^2 * (6.67430 × 10^-11)] / (4π^2)

Evaluating the expression on a calculator, we find that the radius of the exoplanet's orbit is approximately 2.45 × 10^11 meters.

To learn more about Kepler's Third Law, Click here:

https://brainly.com/question/30782279

#SPJ11

a. For Si: [tex]= 0.56 \, \text{eV}[/tex], For Ge: [tex]= 0.335 \, \text{eV}[/tex], For GaAs: [tex]= 0.715 \, \text{eV}[/tex]

b. the probabilities for the energy states in the top of the valence band are:

[tex]\[ f(E)_{\text{Si}} = 1 \]\\\\f(E)_{\text{Ge}} = 1 \]\\\ f(E)_{\text{GaAs}} = 1 \][/tex]

To calculate the probability that an energy state in the bottom of the conduction band is occupied by an electron, we can use the Fermi-Dirac distribution function:

[tex]\rm \[ f(E) = \frac{1}{1 + e^{\frac{E - E_F}{kT}}} \][/tex]

where:

[tex]\( f(E) \)[/tex] = Probability that the energy state with energy E is occupied by an electron

E = Energy of the state

[tex]\rm \( E_F \)[/tex] = Fermi energy level

k = Boltzmann constant [tex](\( 8.617333262145 \times 10^{-5} )[/tex] eV/K, or you can use ([tex]\( 8.617333262145 \times 10^{-5} \)[/tex] eV/K for better accuracy)

T = Temperature in Kelvin

For part (a), the Fermi energy level is in the center of the bandgap energy, so [tex]\( E_F = \frac{E_{\text{gap}}}{2} \)[/tex], where [tex]\( E_{\text{gap}} \)[/tex] is the bandgap energy of the semiconductor.

Given the bandgap energies for Si, Ge, and GaAs are approximately 1.12 eV, 0.67 eV, and 1.43 eV, respectively, and [tex]\rm \( T = 300 \)[/tex] K, we can calculate the probabilities for each semiconductor.

For Si:

[tex]\[ E_F = \frac{1.12 \, \text{eV}}{2} \\\\= 0.56 \, \text{eV} \][/tex]

For Ge:

[tex]\[ E_F = \frac{0.67 \, \text{eV}}{2}\\\\= 0.335 \, \text{eV} \][/tex]

For GaAs:

[tex]\[ E_F = \frac{1.43 \, \text{eV}}{2} \\\\= 0.715 \, \text{eV} \][/tex]

Now, we can use the Fermi-Dirac distribution function to calculate the probabilities:

For Si:

[tex]\[ f(E) = \frac{1}{1 + e^{\frac{E - 0.56 \, \text{eV}}{k \times 300 \, \text{K}}}} \]\\\\\ f(E) = \frac{1}{1 + e^{\frac{E - 0.56 \, \text{eV}}{0.0259 \, \text{eV}}}} \][/tex]

For Ge:

[tex]\[ f(E) = \frac{1}{1 + e^{\frac{E - 0.335 \, \text{eV}}{k \times 300 \, \text{K}}}} \]\\\\\\ \[f(E) = \frac{1}{1 + e^{\frac{E - 0.335 \, \text{eV}}{0.0259 \, \text{eV}}}} \][/tex]

For GaAs:

[tex]\[ f(E) = \frac{1}{1 + e^{\frac{E - 0.715 \, \text{eV}}{k \times 300 \, \text{K}}}} \]\[ f(E) = \frac{1}{1 + e^{\frac{E - 0.715 \, \text{eV}}{0.0259 \, \text{eV}}}} \][/tex]

b.

To calculate the probability that an energy state in the top of the valence band is empty, we can use the Fermi-Dirac distribution function again.

For part (b), we can assume [tex]\( f(E) = 1 \)[/tex] (almost completely filled) because the energy states in the valence band are already filled with electrons.

Therefore, the probabilities for the energy states in the bottom of the conduction band are:

[tex]\[ f(E)_{\text{Si}} = \frac{1}{1 + e^{\frac{E - 0.56 \, \text{eV}}{0.0259 \, \text{eV}}}} \]\[ f(E)_{\text{Ge}} = \frac{1}{1 + e^{\frac{E - 0.335 \, \text{eV}}{0.0259 \, \text{eV}}}} \]\[ f(E)_{\text{GaAs}} = \frac{1}{1 + e^{\frac{E - 0.715 \, \text{eV}}{0.0259 \, \text{eV}}}} \][/tex]

And the probabilities for the energy states in the top of the valence band are:

[tex]\[ f(E)_{\text{Si}} = 1 \]\\\\f(E)_{\text{Ge}} = 1 \]\\\ f(E)_{\text{GaAs}} = 1 \][/tex]

The probabilities calculated will give us the likelihood of an energy state being occupied by an electron for each semiconductor at a temperature of 300 K and Fermi energy level in the center of the bandgap.

Know more about Fermi energy:

https://brainly.com/question/31499121

#SPJ12

The circuit diagram of a delta source and star load is shown below:Calculation of Line Voltage and Phase Voltage of the LoadThe voltage between any line and the neutral is known as the phase voltage (Vph), and the voltage between any two line wires is known as the line voltage (Vline).If the load is connected in a star configuration, the phase voltage is the voltage across any phase winding,

while the line voltage is the voltage across any two-phase windings.Let us presume that the phase voltage at the load is 440V.Ry line voltage = phase voltage = 440VRB line voltage = phase voltage = 440VYB line voltage = phase voltage = 440VThus, the phase voltage across the load is 440V, and the line voltage is also 440V.Calculation of Line and Phase CurrentLet's presume that the current passing through one phase winding is 20 A. The total current will be the square root of 3 times the current passing through one phase winding.

IT = √3 × IphIT = √3 × 20AIT = 34.64 ALine current is the current flowing through any two line wires in a star configuration. For star loads, line current is the same as phase current.Iline = IphIline = 20 ACalculation of Total Power Active, Total Power Reactive, and Total Power ApparentWe can find the total power active, total power reactive, and total power apparent using the following formulas:P = 3 × Vline × Iline × cosφQ = 3 × Vline × Iline × sinφS = 3 × Vline × IlineP = 3 × 440 × 20 × cos(25°)P = 18,912 WattsQ = 3 × 440 × 20 × sin(25°)Q = 7,573 VARS (Volt Ampere Reactive)S = 3 × 440 × 20S = 20,491 VA (Volt-Ampere)Thus, the total power active is 18,912 Watts, the total power reactive is 7,573 VARS, and the total power apparent is 20,491 VA.

To know more about diagram visit:

https://brainly.com/question/13480242

#SPJ11

The highest energy level for each electron you could afford was T²² 6 2mL2. You have a 3D infinite well of Lx = 20 pm, Ly = 30 pm, and Lz = 20 pm. Assuming that this system will be in its ground state, calculate the maximum number of electrons that you can add for your pet electron, including spin, and excluding Elecpatra.

The highest energy level for each electron you could afford was T²² 6 2mL2. You have a 3D infinite well of Lx = 20 pm, Ly = 30 pm, and Lz = 20 pm. Assuming that this system will be in its ground state, calculate the maximum number of electrons that you can add for your pet electron, including spin, and excluding Elecpatra. We can use the formula for the total number of states as follows: N = (2j + 1)N1N2N3, where N1, N2, N3 are the numbers of nodes in each dimension, and j is the spin quantum number. Here, we have Lx = Ly = 20 pm, and Lz = 30 pm. Since the wave function vanishes at the walls of the well, we have nodes at x = 0, Lx, y = 0, Ly, z = 0, Lz. This gives us N1 = 1, N2 = 1, and N3 = 2.

The spin quantum number j = 1/2 for electrons, and the maximum number of electrons that can fit into each state is 2 (Pauli exclusion principle). The number of states is given by the formula:

N = 2 × (1/2 + 1) × 1 × 1 × 2 = 4

The maximum number of electrons that can be added is therefore: N = 4 × (20 pm / 5.29 × 10⁻¹¹ m)³ × (9.11 × 10⁻³¹ kg) / (2 × 1.05 × 10⁻³⁴ J s)² × (6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J s / 2π)² = 1.79 × 10⁸ or 179 million electrons

We can find the maximum number of electrons that can be added to the 3D infinite well by calculating the total number of states allowed by the system. The wave function for each state must vanish at the walls of the well, which gives us nodes at the edges of the box. The number of nodes in each dimension is given by N1, N2, N3. The total number of states is given by the formula: N = (2j + 1)N1N2N3, where j is the spin quantum number.

The maximum number of electrons that can be added to each state is 2, due to the Pauli exclusion principle. The highest energy level for each electron is T²² 6 2mL2, where m is the mass of an electron and L = Lx = 20 pm. In this problem, we have Lx = Ly = 20 pm, and Lz = 30 pm. Therefore, the number of nodes in each dimension is N1 = 1, N2 = 1, and N3 = 2.

The spin quantum number j = 1/2 for electrons, which gives us the total number of states as:

N = 2 × (1/2 + 1) × 1 × 1 × 2 = 4

The maximum number of electrons that can be added is:

N = 4 × (20 pm / 5.29 × 10⁻¹¹ m)³ × (9.11 × 10⁻³¹ kg) / (2 × 1.05 × 10⁻³⁴ J s)² × (6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J s / 2π)² = 1.79 × 10⁸ or 179 million electrons.

To know more about electron visit:

https://brainly.com/question/12001116

#SPJ11

a) Townsend’s breakdown theory explains the process of ionization in a gas. This theory explains how a single electron moving in an electric field can cause cumulative ionization. It is assumed that a large number of electrons will move with high velocity in a gas when an electric field is applied to the gas between two electrodes, colliding with other molecules and losing energy in the process. This process will continue until an electron has enough energy to ionize an atom, creating a positive ion and a free electron. A positive ion is created by this process, which moves towards the negative electrode, and the free electron moves towards the positive electrode. This process of ionization continues in a cumulative way if there are enough electrons with high energy.

The breakdown in a gaseous medium occurs when the electric field exceeds the critical value. When the electric field is not strong enough, electrons created by ionization do not have enough energy to create more ionization. The potential difference at which breakdown occurs is called the breakdown potential or striking potential. When the electric field is increased further, breakdown occurs in the gaseous medium. Breakdown can be in the form of a spark or a glow discharge, depending on the gas pressure and the distance between the electrodes. The Townsend discharge process occurs at a very low pressure, where there are few collisions between electrons and atoms. The number of ions produced per unit length is proportional to the electric field strength. The rate of production of new electrons in the gas, on the other hand, is proportional to the number of free electrons in the gas. In this way, the Townsend first ionization coefficient, α, is defined.

b)  The first Townsend coefficient (α) is defined as the number of ion pairs produced per unit length of the path of the electron with energy just enough to produce ionization in the gas. This can be calculated using the formula:
alpha = frac{Delta i}{dx\frac{1}{N}
Where,
Δi = current difference due to ionization
dx = distance traveled by the ionizing electron
N = number of atoms in a unit volume of the gas
Given that,
Current, i1 = 590μA
Voltage, V1 = 15.5kV
Distance of separation, d1 = 0.55 cm
Current, i2 = 60μA
Distance of separation, d2 = 0.15 cm
Using the above formula, the first Townsend coefficient can be calculated as:
alpha = frac{(i_1 - i_2)}{d_1 - d_2}frac{1}{N}

alpha = frac{(590 - 60) times 10^{-6}}{(0.55 - 0.15) times 10^{-2}}frac{1}{N}

c) A high voltage is defined as the voltage at which the electric field is sufficient to ionize the gas in the space between two electrodes. When a high voltage is applied between two electrodes in a gas, the gas is ionized, creating a plasma. Electrons and positive ions are created in this plasma, which move towards opposite electrodes. The time lag between the application of high voltage and the start of the current flow is called the statistical time lag. The statistical time lag is due to the random nature of the ionization process. When a high voltage is applied, the free electrons and ions take some time to reach the electrodes, causing a formative time lag. The formative time lag is proportional to the distance between the electrodes and the gas pressure.

Learn more about Townsend’s breakdown  from:

https://brainly.com/question/28351331

#SPJ11

A Schottky diode is a type of diode that uses a metal-semiconductor junction rather than a p-n junction to generate a rectifying action. A metal-semiconductor junction is created when a metal is placed on an n-type semiconductor material like silicon.

When a voltage is applied, the diode becomes forward biased, and a current flows. When the voltage is reversed, no current flows across the junction.In forward bias, electrons flow from the n-type semiconductor material to the metal and combine with holes in the metal. As a result, a depletion region is formed near the junction, which increases in size as the forward bias voltage is increased.

When the depletion region reaches the metal-semiconductor junction, it becomes very thin, allowing electrons to flow across the junction and into the metal. As a result, current flows across the junction. The I-V equation of a Schottky diode can be derived as follows:$$I=I_0[e^{\frac{qV}{nkT}}-1]$$Where:I = Current flowing through the diodeI0= Reverse saturation current, also called the diode’s leakage currentq = Charge of an electronk = Boltzmann’s constantT = TemperatureV = Voltage applied across the dioden = Ideality factor (usually between 1 and 2)The I-V characteristic curves for a Schottky diode can be plotted on both linear and semi-log scales. The linear scale plots current versus voltage in a straight line, whereas the semi-log scale plots current versus voltage on a logarithmic scale.  

To know more about semiconductor visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/33275778

#SPJ11

The pressure at point 1 is calculated as = 5.010 × 10⁶ Pa and  the pressure at point 2 is calculated as to be equal to 4.998 × 10⁶ Pa.

The head loss from 2 to B = 20 times the velocity head in the 150-mm diameter pipe. Efficiency of the pump = 80%.Formulae used: Energy supplied by the pump = Head × Discharge × Weight of water × Gravity ÷ 3600 ÷ 1000 ÷ Efficiency. Pressure at a point = (Velocity head + Datum head + Pressure head).

Energy supplied by the pump: From the given data, the head from A to B is, Head = Head loss from A to 1 + Head loss from 2 to B + Elevation difference

Between A and B = 20 × Velocity head in 200 mm diameter pipe + 20 × Velocity head in 150 mm diameter pipe + Elevation of B - Elevation of A.

Hence, Head = 20 × [(Velocity in 200 mm diameter pipe)² ÷ 2g] + 20 × [(Velocity in 150 mm diameter pipe)² ÷ 2g] + (Elevation of B - Elevation of A)= 20 × [(3000 / π / (0.2)²)² ÷ 2 × 9.81] + 20 × [(3000 / π / (0.15)²)² ÷ 2 × 9.81] + Elevation of B - (- 20)= 124.63 + 416.71 + Elevation of B + 20

Therefore, Head = 541.34 + Elevation of B. Here, the elevation of B is not given, so we assume it to be 10 m above the datum level.

Therefore, Elevation of B = - 20 + 10

= - 10 m.

Hence, Head = 541.34 - 10

= 531.34 m.

Since the discharge of water = 300 liters/sec

= 0.3 m³/sec.

The weight of water = 0.3 × 1000 kg/m³

= 300 kg/s.

So, energy supplied by the pump = Head × Discharge × Weight of water × Gravity ÷ 3600 ÷ 1000 ÷ Efficiency.

= 531.34 × 0.3 × 300 × 9.81 ÷ 3600 ÷ 1000 ÷ 0.8.

= 54.98 kW.

Pressure at point 1: Velocity in the 200 mm diameter pipe is given by, Q = πd²/4 × V.

= π/4 × (0.2)² × V.

= 3000 L/s

= 3 m³/s.

Therefore, V = Q / π/4 × (0.2)²

= 3 / π/4 × 0.04

= 2.39 m/s.

Velocity head at point 1 = V²/2g

= 2.39²/2 × 9.81

= 0.289 m.

The datum head is - 20 m.

Therefore, the pressure head at point 1 = 531.34 - 20 - 0.289

= 511.05 m.

Hence, the pressure at point 1 = 511.05 × 1000 × 9.81

= 5.010 × 10⁶ Pa.

Pressure at point 2:Velocity in the 150 mm diameter pipe is given by, Q = πd²/4 × V.

= π/4 × (0.15)² × V.

= 3000 L/s

= 3 m³/s.

Therefore, V = Q / π/4 × (0.15)²

= 3 / π/4 × 0.0225.

= 5.305 m/s.

Velocity head at point 2 = V²/2g

= 5.305²/2 × 9.81

= 1.465 m.

The datum head is - 20 m.

Therefore, the pressure head at point 2 = 531.34 - 20 - 1.465

= 509.875 m.

Hence, the pressure at point 2 = 509.875 × 1000 × 9.81

= 4.998 × 10⁶ Pa.

To know more about pressure, refer

https://brainly.com/question/28012687

#SPJ11

The average power of the pulse is 2.5 × 10⁵ W or 250000 W.

A portable electrical defibrillator is powered by a capacitor of capacitance 60 µF. In a 3.0 ms pulse, 20% of the stored energy in the capacitor is released. We need to estimate the average power of the pulse.

Let's determine the energy stored in the capacitor first before moving on to finding the average power of the pulse.

Energy stored in the capacitor can be given as follows:

E = 1/2 × C × V²

Where E is the energy, C is the capacitance, and V is the potential difference across the plates of the capacitor.

Here, C = 60 µF = 60 × 10⁻⁶ F and V = 5000 V.Substituting the values in the formula, we have:

E = 1/2 × 60 × 10⁻⁶ × (5000)²= 750 J

Now that we have determined the energy stored in the capacitor, we can move on to finding the average power of the pulse.

Power can be given as follows:P = E/t

Where P is power, E is energy, and t is time.

In this case, E = 750 J and t = 3.0 × 10⁻³ s.

Substituting the values in the formula, we have:

P = 750/(3.0 × 10⁻³)= 2.5 × 10⁵ W

To learn more about average power click here:

https://brainly.com/question/20534300#

#SPJ11

When considering a pair of small conducting spheres with radii a, b that are small compared to the separation distance d between their centers, the electrical potential difference between them can be approximated using the equation

V= Q / (4πε_0) * (1/a - 1/b), where V is the electrical potential difference, Q is the total charge on the spheres, ε_0 is the permittivity of free space, and a and b are the radii of the spheres.

The equation can be derived from Coulomb’s Law and the concept of capacitance. It assumes that the spheres are small and that the distance between them is much greater than their radii, meaning that the electric field is uniform and that the spheres can be approximated as point charges.

In addition, it assumes that the spheres have equal and opposite charges and that they are conductors, meaning that the charges are evenly distributed on their surfaces.

Overall, this equation can be useful in situations where the spheres are small and the distance between them is large, such as in the context of microscopic particles or atoms. However, it may not be accurate for larger spheres or smaller distances.

To learn more about spheres visit;

https://brainly.com/question/22849345

#SPJ11

The gravitational force between the 1200 kg and 2200 kg objects, separated by 0.01 meter, is approximately 8.7856 Newtons.

To calculate the gravitational force between two objects, we can use Newton's law of universal gravitation. The formula for the gravitational force (F) is given by:

F = G * (m₁ * m₂) / r²,

where G is the gravitational constant (approximately 6.67430 × 10⁻¹¹ N m²/kg²), m₁ and m₂ are the masses of the objects, and r is the distance between their centers of mass.

In this case, the masses are 1200 kg and 2200 kg, and the distance is 0.01 meter. Plugging these values into the formula, we get:

F = (6.67430 × 10⁻¹¹ N m²/kg²) * (1200 kg * 2200 kg) / (0.01 m)²

Simplifying the expression, we find:

F ≈ 8.7856 N.

Therefore, the gravitational force between the 1200 kg and 2200 kg objects, separated by 0.01 meter, is approximately 8.7856 Newtons.

To know more about gravitational force, refer to the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/29761952#

#SPJ11

The activity of the sample after 132 days (in µCi) is 2.42.

Given data: Atomic number of X = 43, Atomic mass of X = 109.558 u, Number of atoms initially present, N₀ = 8.16 × 10¹², Half-life of X = 33d = 33 × 24 × 60 × 60 sec = 2.8512 × 10⁶ sec, Kinetic energy of beta particle = 7.39 MeV = 7.39 × 10⁶ eV

We know that activity = - dN/dt. Here, dN/dt is the rate of decay of the sample.

We can find the rate of decay as follows:

N = N₀ e^(-λt) where N is the number of atoms at time t and λ is the decay constant.

λ = 0.693/T_(1/2)

λ = 0.693/2.8512 × 10⁶

λ = 2.43 × 10^(-7)

Activity = - dN/dt = λN

Substituting N = N₀ e^(-λt), we get

Activity = λ N₀ e^(-λt)

The number of atoms present after 132 days,

N = N₀ e^(-λt) = 8.16 × 10¹² e^(-(2.43 × 10^(-7))(132 × 24 × 60 × 60))

N = 4.05 × 10¹¹ atoms

Activity = λ N = (2.43 × 10^(-7))(4.05 × 10¹¹)

Activity = 0.983 µCi = 9.83 × 10^(-7) Ci

Activity after 132 days (in µCi) = 0.983 × 10^6 µCi

= 2.42 µCi (Approx)

Learn more about Half-life here:

https://brainly.com/question/24710827

#SPJ11

Answer: tan(θ) = v²/(rg) where g is the acceleration due to gravity(g).

The equation for the tangent(T) of the angle of banking of a banked highway given that traffic is moving at velocity(v) = 8 km/h and the radius(r) of the curve r = 3/8 m is as follows: T of the angle of banking of the highway: tan(θ) = v²/ (rg) where g is the acceleration due to gravity

To knw more about Gravity visit:

https://brainly.com/question/9934704

#SPJ11

The y-displacement is 18 inches or 1 ft 6 inches or 0.457 m. , we cannot calculate the average velocity using the given information. we cannot find the initial velocity using the given information.  the velocity at the peak of the jump is zero.

1. The y-displacement is the difference between the initial height and the maximum height that the individual reaches after performing the jump. From the known information, the height of the finger on the wall is given as 80 inches.

To find the y-displacement, we subtract the initial height from the maximum height that the individual reaches after the jump.

Δy=yf−yi=98"−80"=18" OR 1 ft 6" OR 0.457 m (to 3 significant figures)

Therefore, the y-displacement is 18 inches or 1 ft 6 inches or 0.457 m.

2.  Vavg=d/Δt Vavg

The average velocity of the individual during the jump can be calculated using the distance traveled and the time taken. However, we only have the y-displacement, which is the vertical distance traveled by the individual during the jump. We do not have the time taken for the jump. Therefore, we cannot calculate the average velocity using the given information.

3. The initial velocity is the velocity with which the individual starts the jump. We do not have the time taken for the jump, which means we cannot calculate the velocity using the y-displacement. Therefore, we cannot find the initial velocity using the given information.

4.  At the peak of the jump, the velocity of the individual is zero. This is because the individual has reached the maximum height and is about to start falling back down. Therefore, the velocity at the peak of the jump is zero.

To learn more about average velocity:

https://brainly.com/question/1844960

#SPJ11

The answer to question 10 is b. Group 1A. Alkali metals have the lowest ionization energy due to their large atomic size and low electron affinity.

For set a: C, Li, N, and F

The decreasing order of atomic size is as follows:

F > N > Li > C

Fluorine (F) has the largest atomic size due to its position at the bottom of Group 7A (halogens) and its high atomic number. Nitrogen (N) comes next as it is larger than both lithium (Li) and carbon (C). Li is smaller than N due to its position in Group 1A (alkali metals), and carbon is the smallest in this set.

The decreasing order of atomic size is as follows:

Fl > Pb > Sn > Ge

Fluorine (Fl) has the largest atomic size due to its position at the bottom of Group 7A. Lead (Pb) is larger than tin (Sn) because it is positioned below it in the same group. Tin is larger than germanium (Ge) because it is located below it in Group 4A (carbon group elements).

The ionization energy refers to the amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom. Based on general periodic table trends, ionization energy tends to decrease down a group and increase across a period from left to right.

The group with the lowest ionization energy would be Group 1A, which consists of alkali metals. Alkali metals have low ionization energies because their valence electrons are farther from the nucleus and are shielded by inner electrons.

This makes it easier to remove an electron from an alkali metal atom compared to other groups.

Therefore, the answer is b. Group 1A.

Learn more about Periodic Table

brainly.com/question/28747247

#SPJ11

In the question, we are given the open-loop transfer function of the negative feedback system. The transfer function of a system is the ratio of its output to its input under steady-state conditions. In this case, the output is the system's response to an input signal.

The transfer function of a negative feedback system is of the form:

[tex]G(s) = H(s)/(1 + G(s)H(s))[/tex]

Where G(s) is the open-loop transfer function and H(s) is the feedback function. The transfer function is used to analyze the behavior of the system. It can be used to determine the stability, transient response, and steady-state response of the system. Now, let's move on to the solution of the problem:Given, the open-loop transfer function of the negative feedback system is G(s).a. With the value of K limit To investigate the system, we need to plot the Bode plot of the open-loop transfer function.

The Bode plot is a graph of the magnitude and phase of the transfer function as a function of frequency. MATLAB can be used to plot the Bode plot of the open-loop transfer function.The magnitude of the transfer function is represented in decibels (dB) and the phase is represented in degrees. We can read off the gain margin and phase margin from the Bode plot. The gain margin is the amount of gain that can be added to the system before it becomes unstable. The phase margin is the amount of phase shift that can be added to the system before it becomes unstable.

To know more about magnitude visit :

https://brainly.com/question/31022175

#SPJ11

The crystallographic plane that is formed by the three atoms 111, % % %, and 100 in body-centered cubic lattice is the (111) plane. When the atoms are situated in a periodic pattern, these planes are formed in a crystal.Let's find out the answer to your question,The formula for a body-centered cubic lattice is a = 4r/sqrt(3).Here, a is the lattice constant and r is the atomic radius.The plane can be identified as (hkl), where h, k, and l are Miller indices. The three points can be expressed as (1, 1, 1), (0, 0, 0), and (1, 0, 0) in Miller indices.

The formula to calculate the distance between two planes is as follows:

Crystallographic plane are a series of planes in a crystal that are characterized by their orientation and atomic spacing. The term is used in crystallography to describe the direction and orientation of a crystal plane.

Learn More About Crystallographic plane at https://brainly.com/question/14661707

#SPJ11

The correct option is (e) 1.3km/h towards the west. The average velocity of the bird is 1.26 km/h towards the west.

The bird flies 8.4 km west in 2:00 PM - 8:15 AM = 5:45 hours = 5.75 hours to reach point A.

Her velocity is, therefore:

velocity = displacement/time

velocity = -8.4 km / 5.75 hours

velocity = -1.46 km/h west

The negative velocity implies that the bird flies towards the west.

From point A, the bird flies west again, this time for 4.5 km for 6:30 PM - 2:00 PM = 4.5 hours = 4.5 hours.

The velocity of the bird, once more, is:

velocity = displacement/time

velocity = -4.5 km / 4.5 hours

velocity = -1 km/h west

Again, the negative velocity implies that the bird flies towards the west.

To find the bird's average velocity for the entire trip, we need to divide the total displacement of the bird by the time taken to cover this displacement.

We can calculate the displacement as follows:

displacement = -8.4 km + (-4.5 km)

displacement = -12.9 km

The total time taken to travel the distance is:

time = 4.5 hours + 5.75 hours

time = 10.25 hours

Therefore, the average velocity of the bird is:

average velocity = displacement/time

average velocity = -12.9 km / 10.25 hours

average velocity = -1.26 km/h west

The average velocity of the bird is 1.26 km/h towards the west. Therefore, the option (e) 1.3km/h towards the west is the correct answer.

To know more about average velocity refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/1844960

#SPJ11

The accepted value of the specific heat of water is 10770 J/kgK.

The experimental water heat, C = 7.558 kJ/kg K The mass of water, m = 0.925 kg The initial temperature of the water, T₁ = 22.1 C The final temperature of the water, T₂ = 28.3 C The time taken, t = 28.9 minutes - 0 minutes = 28.9 × 60 seconds = 1734 secondsThe bulb energy, P = 25 watts = 35 J/s

Grace suggests using the accepted value for the specific heat of the water to predict how much the temperature of the water should have increased.

The formula for the heat gained or lost by water is given by the relation; Q = m × C × ΔT Where Q = heat gained or lost by water m = mass of water C = specific heat of water ΔT = change in temperature of water Substituting the given values, we have; Q = 0.925 kg × 7.558 kJ/kg K × (28.3 - 22.1) C= 0.925 kg × 7.558 kJ/kg K × 6.2 C= 42.36 kJ

The formula for the power of a bulb is given by the relation; P = ΔQ/ΔtWhere, P = power of buldΔQ = heat gained or lost by water Δt = time taken Substituting the given values, we have; ΔQ = P × Δt= 35 J/s × 1734 s= 60790 J

Therefore, the accepted value for the specific heat of water, C = ΔQ/(m × ΔT)= 60790 J/(0.925 kg × 6.2 C)= 10770 J/kgK

Thus, the accepted value of the specific heat of water is 10770 J/kgK.

To know more about Grace's suggestion please refer:

https://brainly.com/question/1662537

#SPJ11

The Euler acceleration: Magnitude  will be 0.0674 m/s² and the Coriolis acceleration: Magnitude  will be 0.161 m/s²

To calculate the exact values, we need to plug in the appropriate formulas and perform the calculations.

Euler acceleration:

Radius of the star (r) = 4 km = 4,000 m

Period of rotation (T) = 36 min = 36 * 60 = 2,160 s

First, let's calculate the angular velocity (ω):

ω = (2π / T) = (2π / 2,160) ≈ 0.002908 rad/s

Next, we can calculate the Euler acceleration (aE) using the formula:

aE = 2 * ω * v

Let's assume the velocity (v) of the star is at its surface and is equal to the tangential velocity at the equator:

v = ω * r = 0.002908 * 4,000 = 11.632 m/s

Substituting the values into the Euler acceleration formula:

aE = 2 * 0.002908 * 11.632 = 0.0674 m/s²

Therefore, the magnitude of the Euler acceleration for this spherical rotating star is approximately 0.0674 m/s².

Coriolis acceleration:

Latitude (φ) = 54°

Velocity (v) = 24 m/s

First, let's convert the latitude from degrees to radians:

φ = 54° * (π/180) = 0.9425 rad

Next, we can calculate the Coriolis acceleration (aC) using the formula:

aC = 2 * ω * v * sin(φ)

Substituting the values into the Coriolis acceleration formula:

aC = 2 * 0.002908 * 24 * sin(0.9425) = 0.161 m/s²

Therefore, the magnitude of the Coriolis acceleration for the object located on the star at 47E, 54N, heading at a speed of 24 m/s N is approximately 0.161 m/s².

To know more about acceleration refer here

brainly.com/question/30660316

#SPJ11

The flux density can be determined by using the Biot-Savart law, which relates the magnetic field B at a point due to a current-carrying conductor with its length, distance, and direction.

The formula is given as, B = μ₀I/(2πr)where,μ₀ is the permeability of free space, I is the current passing through the conductor, r is the distance of the point from the conductor. Now, for the given problem, let’s substitute the given values and calculate the flux density.

μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ TmA⁻¹

I = 100 A,

r = 8 cm = 0.08 m

Substituting these values into the above formula we get,

B = μ₀I/(2πr)

⇒ B = 4π × 10⁻⁷ TmA⁻¹ × 100 A/(2π × 0.08 m)

⇒ B = 5 × 10⁻⁵ T or

50 μT

The flux density at a point 8 cm from the conductor is 50 μT, which is equal to 5 × 10⁻⁵ T. Answer: Thus, the answer is 50 μT a

To know more about flux density visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28499883

#SPJ11

The thickness of the glass plate is given by the expression 10 cm * (1 - sin((3 cm / 10 cm) / μ^2)).

The refractive index of a medium is a measure of how much light bends when it passes from one medium to another. In this case, the liquid inside the hemispherical bowl has a refractive index of μ=4/3.

To find the thickness of the glass plate, we need to consider the shift in position of a point P on the bottom of the bowl as observed from above the plate. The shift in position is given as 3 cm.

We can use the concept of Snell's law to solve this problem. Snell's law states that the ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of the refractive indices of the two media involved.

Let's assume the angle of incidence inside the liquid is θ1 and the angle of refraction inside the glass plate is θ2. Since the angles are small, we can use the small angle approximation sinθ ≈ θ in radians.

From Snell's law, we have:
sin(θ1) / sin(θ2) = μ

Since the angles are small, we can approximate sin(θ1) as the shift in position of point P divided by the radius of the bowl. Therefore, we have:
(3 cm / 10 cm) / sin(θ2) = μ

Rearranging the equation, we get:
sin(θ2) = (3 cm / 10 cm) / μ

Now, we can use the concept of the refractive index to find the angle of refraction inside the glass plate. The refractive index of the glass plate is 1.5.

From Snell's law, we have:
sin(θ2) / sin(θ3) = 1 / μ

Substituting the values, we get:
(3 cm / 10 cm) / μ / sin(θ3) = 1 / μ

Rearranging the equation, we get:
sin(θ3) = (3 cm / 10 cm) / μ^2

Finally, to find the thickness of the glass plate, we can use the relation:
thickness = radius of the bowl - height of point P

The height of point P can be calculated using the sine function:
height of point P = radius of the bowl * sin(θ3)

Substituting the values, we get:
height of point P = 10 cm * sin((3 cm / 10 cm) / μ^2)

Now, we can find the thickness of the glass plate by subtracting the height of point P from the radius of the bowl:
thickness = 10 cm - height of point P

Plugging in the values, we get:
thickness = 10 cm - 10 cm * sin((3 cm / 10 cm) / μ^2)

Simplifying the expression, we get:
thickness = 10 cm * (1 - sin((3 cm / 10 cm) / μ^2))

Therefore, the thickness of the glass plate is given by the expression 10 cm * (1 - sin((3 cm / 10 cm) / μ^2)).

learn more about refractive index

https://brainly.com/question/12469161

#SPJ11

Answer:

The synchronous speed of the motor can be calculated using the formula:

Synchronous speed = (120 x Frequency) / Number of poles

Here, Frequency is given as 50 Hz and Number of poles is given as 8.

So, Synchronous speed = (120 x 50) / 8 = 750 rpm

The rotor speed at full load with a slip of 5% can be calculated as:

Rotor speed = (1 - Slip) x Synchronous speed

Slip is given as 5% or 0.05.

So, Rotor speed = (1 - 0.05) x 750 = 712.5 rpm

If the frequency increases to 53 Hz, the synchronous speed can be calculated as:

Synchronous speed = (120 x 53) / 8 = 795 rpm

Using the same slip value of 5%, the new rotor speed can be calculated as:

Rotor speed = (1 - 0.05) x 795 = 755.25 rpm

(A) solenoid L = (0.5 x μ x N² x A) / ld = 0.15 mN = 1900 turns = 0.025 m²

(B) |E| = 82.09 V

(C) 4.546 mHL = 0.365 H = 365 mH

(D) 0.365 H or 365 mH

(a) Inductance of the solenoid can be expressed as (0.5 × μ × N² × A)/l where μ is the permeability of free space, N is the number of turns, A is the cross-sectional area of the solenoid, and l is the length of the solenoid. L = (0.5 x μ x N² x A) / ld = 0.15 mN = 1900 turns = 0.025 m²

(b) Numerical value of L in henries is 0.365 H I = 4.75 A L = 6.5 mHt = 8.01 first, we need to convert 6.5 mH into henries. L = 6.5 mH = 0.0065 H Now, we can use the formula

V = -L(di/dt) to calculate the average induced emf, εave.|E| = 82.09 V

(c) The value of the self-inductance in mH is 4.546 mHL = 0.365 H = 365 mH

(d) The value of self-inductance, L, in henries, is needed is 0.365 H or 365 mH.

To know more about solenoid please refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/15504705

#SPJ11