a surgical puncture with a needle to obtain a specimen of amniotic fluid

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Answer 1

Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic that can detect genetic diseases (such as Down syndrome and spina bifida) and other health problems in a developing fetus.

A needle is used to collect a small amount of amniotic fluid from inside your uterus, and the sample is subsequently tested in a lab for particular disorders.

amniocentesis (surgical puncture of the amniotic sac to extract fluid for laboratory examination; an obstetrical operation) (surgical puncture of the amniotic sac to remove fluid for laboratory analysis; an obstetrical procedure)

Amniocentesis. The amniotic sac is surgically punctured to retrieve the amniotic fluid. It is a prenatal test used to diagnose chromosomal abnormalities, fetal infections, and to determine sex.

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ems as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of

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EMS as we know it today originated in 1966 with the publication of Accidental Death and Disability:

Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society" in 1966. This report recognized the need for a system of prehospital emergency care, and led to the development of the first formalized EMS systems in the United States. The report highlighted the importance of providing prompt, effective care in the event of an accident or sudden illness, and recommended the development of a national program to train and equip emergency medical technicians. This report was a major catalyst for the development and organization of prehospital care and the creation of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) systems we have today.

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the nurse is talking to a pregnant client with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) infection regarding care for the newborn after delivery. the client asks the nurse about the feeding options that are available. which response would the nurse make to the client?

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The client asks the nurse about the feeding options available for pregnant women. the nurse's response to the client was "the mother can adopt a healthy diet, namely consuming lots of fiber, choosing lean protein, avoiding high-calorie foods and drinks, and increasing fluid intake.

What is HIV?

HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that damages the immune system by infecting and destroying CD4 cells. If more and more CD4 cells are destroyed, the body's immune system will weaken so that it is susceptible to various diseases.

HIV that is not treated immediately will develop into a serious condition called AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome). AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection. At this stage, the body's ability to fight infection is completely lost.

Pregnant women who are infected with HIV must immediately seek treatment and follow a healthy diet, namely consuming lots of fiber, choosing lean protein, avoiding high-calorie foods and drinks, consuming the right carbohydrates, and increasing fluid intake.

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what comfort measures can be performed by a nurse instead of an unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) for a client who returned from a left modified radical mastectomy?

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The comfort measures are in general, simple, ordinary responsibilities along with making unoccupied beds, supervising affected person ambulation, supporting with hygiene, and feeding food may be delegated.

But if the affected person is morbidly obese, getting better from surgery, or frail, paintings intently with the UAP or carry out the care yourself. Routine responsibilities, along with taking essential signs, supervising ambulation, mattress making, supporting with hygiene, and sports of every day living, may be delegated to an skilled UAP. UAP offer direct care to sufferers associated with non-public hygiene, essential signs, feeding, ambulation, and toileting, and screen sufferers' blood glucose and cognition. UAP reorient and redirect sufferers with cognitive impairment.

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a client is 8 weeks pregnant and has waves of nausea accompanied by vomiting throughout the day. food odors consistently precipitate the nausea. her husband has an important business dinner planned, and she is reluctant to attend because of the nausea and vomiting. this has placed a strain on the husband-wife relationship. which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of the problem?

Answers

You feel you are having difficulty fulfilling your role as a wife."  indicates an understanding of the problem.

Just what is nausea?

An urge to vomit is frequently present along with an uncomfortable feeling of sickness or unease in the stomach known as nausea. It can be brought on by a variety of diseases, such as infections, food poisoning, motion sickness, and stress, and it is a symptom of numerous medical conditions. Numerous times, modifying one's lifestyle—eating smaller meals, avoiding particular foods, or taking medications—can help one manage their nausea.When something like this interferes with your ability to connect with your partner, it can be very difficult. Is there anything I can do to make you more at ease? By demonstrating empathy and understanding, the nurse creates a secure environment in which the client can discuss her worries and concerns.

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A client is 8 weeks pregnant and has waves of nausea accompanied by vomiting throughout the day. food odors consistently precipitate the nausea. her husband has an important business dinner planned, and she is reluctant to attend because of the nausea and vomiting. this has placed a strain on the husband-wife relationship. which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of the problem?

You feel you are having difficulty fulfilling your role as a wife."You feel you are having difficulty fulfilling your role as a SisterYou feel you are having difficulty fulfilling your role as a motherYou feel you are having difficulty fulfilling your role as a girl

a clinical nursing instructor is explaining to nursing students what emotional intelligence is. which of these statements is not correct?

Answers

These statements about emotional intelligence are not correct:

i) Ability to act purposefully

iii) Ability to think abstractly

vi) Ability to learn from past experiences

What is emotional intelligence?


Emotional intelligence, also known as EQ, is the ability to recognize, understand, and manage one's own emotions, as well as the emotions of others. It is the capacity to be aware of, control, and express one's emotions, and to handle interpersonal relationships judiciously and empathetically. It is the ability to read people's feelings and respond accordingly, as well as the ability to use emotions to motivate, influence, and guide oneself and others. In essence, emotional intelligence is the ability to effectively understand, manage, and use emotions, both in yourself and in others.

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Complete question:

A clinical nursing instructor is explaining to nursing students what emotional intelligence is. which of these statements is not correct?

i) Ability to act purposefully

ii) Ability to handle fear and anxiety

iii) Ability to think abstractly

iv) Ability to promote the feeling of satisfaction

v) Ability to see others point of view

vi) Ability to learn from past experiences

forms part of body structures like muscle and skin

Answers

The nutrient that forms part of body structures like muscle and skin is protein.

The majority of the human body is composed of protein, with the exception of water and fat. The primary building block of muscles, bones, organs, skin, and nails is protein. Since muscles are constituted primarily of protein (approximately 80%, excluding water), athletes should pay special attention to this nutrient.

Consumed protein is converted to amino acids by the body and then absorbed. It is utilized in the development of muscles and organs, the production of hormones and antibodies, the storage of fat, and the production of energy.

Your question is incomplete but most probably your full question was

What nutrient forms part of body structures like muscle and skin?

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the nurse considers the universal protocol for preventing wrong site, wrong procedure, and wrong person surgery. which are correct about this protocol?

Answers

The four steps are correct about the protocol:

1. Patient participation

2. Identifying the patient

3. Marking the site

4. Time Out

It is possible to avoid performing surgery on the incorrect patient, incorrectly. That objective is what the Universal Protocol aims to accomplish. It is supported by more than 40 professional medical organisations and organisations and is based on the consensus of specialists from the pertinent clinical specialties and professional fields.

The following guidelines were agreed upon when creating this protocol:

It is possible and necessary to avoid inappropriate site, wrong procedure, and wrong person surgery.To attain the goal of eliminating incorrect location, wrong procedure, and wrong person surgery, a strong approach utilising numerous, complimentary tactics is required.The effectiveness of the operation depends on everyone on the surgical team participating actively and communicating well.The patient (or their legally appointed agent) should be involved in the process as much as is practical.The best results will come from the consistent application of a defined strategy employing a global, consensus-based methodology.The protocol ought to be adaptable enough to enable for implementation with the proper modifications as needed to address particular patient demands.Cases featuring right/left distinction, numerous structures (fingers, toes), or levels should be the focus of site marking requirements (spine).All surgical and other invasive procedures that put patients at risk, including those performed outside of the operating room, should be covered by the Universal Protocol or adaptable to it.

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AORN has endorsed The Joint Commission's "Universal Protocol for Preventing Wrong Site, Wrong Procedure, Wrong Person Surgery™" and has developed a "Correct Site Surgery Tool Kit" that details steps for implementing the Universal Protocol. This tool kit was designed to standardize the implementation of the universal protocol. The four steps are:

1. Patient participation

2. Identifying the patient

3. Marking the site

4. Time Out

aclient is hospitalized for an exacerbation of emphysema. the client is experiencing a fever, chills, and difficulty breathing on exertion. which is an important nursing action?

Answers

B. A patient is admitted to the hospital due to an emphysema exacerbation. The patient has a temperature, chills, and has trouble breathing when they exert themselves, thus the nurse would recommend drinking more fluids. Fever fluid loss will be replaced by fluid, and the viscosity of secretions will be reduced.

Breathlessness is a symptom of the lung disease emphysema. Alveoli, the lungs' air sacs, suffer damage in those with emphysema. The air sacs' inner walls deteriorate and tear over time, resulting in the creation of fewer, larger air gaps as opposed to more, smaller ones. As a result, less oxygen enters your bloodstream because of a reduction in lung surface area. However, patients with emphysema typically have damaged alveoli as a result of smoking: the inner walls of these sacs weaken and rupture, creating greater air holes and lowering the air exchange surface of the cells in the lungs.

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Question- a client is hospitalized for an exacerbation of emphysema. the client is experiencing a fever, chills, and difficulty breathing on exertion. which is an important nursing action?

A. Checking for capillary refill

B. Encouraging increased fluid intake.

C. Suctioning secretions from the airway

D. Administering a high concentration of oxygen.

TRUE/FALSE. the type of testing done to identify a substance will vary depending on the quantity of the substance expected

Answers

True, when determining which kind of toxicological testing should be carried out, toxicologists base their decision on the amount of substance retrieved.

A toxicologist is a scientist who is well-versed in a variety of scientific fields, such as biology and chemistry, and who frequently works with chemicals and other compounds to assess their potential toxicity or harm to humans, other living things, or the environment.

Toxicology specialists come in several varieties, just like there are various varieties of physicians.

A toxicologist who works in the pharmaceutical business, for instance, may check to see if prospective new medications are secure enough to test in human clinical trials.

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what is the correct technique for performing left uterine displacement (lud) for a pregnant patient in cardiac arrest whose fundus is at or above the umbilicus?

Answers

"Place yourself on the left side of the patient. Place both hands on the right side of the uterus and pull the uterus to the left and up." is the correct technique for performing left uterine displacement (lud) for a pregnant patient in cardiac arrest whose fundus is at or above the umbilicus.

What is left uterine displacement?

The 'left uterine displacement' (LUD) position shifts the gravid uterus away from the aorta and vena cava by tilting the parturient's abdomen and pelvis at least 15 degrees off the midline with a wedge under the right buttock. Any pregnant woman whose uterus is palpable above the umbilicus should be considered for left uterine displacement. The data from Lee et al. show that left uterine displacement is a simple, cost-free intervention with proven efficacy.

Here,

"Place yourself on the patient's left side. Pull the uterus to the left and up with both hands on the right side of the uterus "is the proper method for performing left uterine displacement (lud) on a pregnant patient in cardiac arrest with a fundus at or above the umbilicus.

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the nurse is informing a group of unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) about when it is appropriate for a vital sign assessment to be completed in an acute care facility. what responses would be correct? select all that apply.

Answers

The responses that would be correct about the vital sign assessment are:

At the beginning and end of each nurse’s shift (1)Upon admission to a clinical facility (2) When the client’s status changes (3) More frequently after a procedure or surgery (5)

Vital signs are often assessed at the beginning and end of each shift to establish a baseline for the client’s health status and to detect any changes that may have occurred during the shift. Vital signs are typically assessed upon admission to a facility to establish a baseline for the client’s health status and detect any immediate concerns.

Vital signs are often assessed when a client’s status changes, such as when they become feverish or develop a new symptom, to detect any changes in their health status and to guide the appropriate intervention. Vital signs are often assessed more frequently after a procedure or surgery to detect any complications or changes in the client’s health status.

 

Vital sign assessments are not based on time availability but rather on the client’s needs and the facility’s protocol. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.

This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:

At the beginning and end of each nurse’s shiftUpon admission to a clinical facilityWhen the client’s status changesWhen there is time available in the dayMore frequently after a procedure or surgery

 The correct answers are 1, 2, 3, and 5.

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select the type of dissociative amnesia described by inability to recall any events in a particular lifespan period.

Answers

Being unable to remember a specific event or events, or a specific time period, is known as localized amnesia; these memory gaps are typically brought on by trauma or stress.

Dissociative amnesia is what kind of amnesia?

A disease called dissociative amnesia is characterized by memory lapses that have been revealed in retrospect. These gaps are characterized by an inability to recall private material, typically information that was unpleasant or stressful.

Selective dissociative amnesia: What is it?

The following list of memory problems that might accompany dissociative amnesia is taken from the DSM-5[1]: Failure to remember events that occurred within a specific time frame is referred to as localized amnesia (the most prevalent kind).

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the nurse has applied personal protective equipment (ppe) before caring for an immunocompromised client. when removing ppe, what action should the nurse perform?

Answers

When caring for immunocompromised patients and all neonates, the hand antisepsis approach utilising antimicrobial soap is employed. Rubs containing alcohol have to be used in non-surgical settings.

Which kind of isolation is recommended for an immunosuppressed client?

For the purpose of preventing infection in immunosuppressed cancer patients, protective isolation has been utilised.

When handling and washing dirty linens, put on a pair of tear-resistant, reusable rubber gloves. Laundry employees should always wear gowns or aprons and facial protection (such as a face shield or goggles) when laundering dirty linens whenever there is a chance of splashing, such as when laundry is cleaned by hand.

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True or False: Protein in foods like meat, chicken, and fish does not provide direct energy but rather supplies nutrients that regulate aspects of metabolism.

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It is untrue that the protein found in foods like meat, poultry, and fish gives off immediate energy but instead contains nutrients that control certain processes in the metabolism.

While the protein in foods like meat, chicken, and fish does not directly provide energy, it does contain nutrients that help to control certain aspects of metabolism. Malnutrition can result from both excesses and deficiencies of calories or nutrients. In general, fish is a great and calorie-friendly source of protein and B vitamins that may provide the body with all-day energy. Omega-3 fatty acids and other vitamins are typically found in higher concentrations in fatty cold-water fish like salmon, sardines, and tuna. Protein is rarely used as a source of energy. However, protein is broken down into ketone bodies to be used for energy if the body is not getting enough calories from other nutrients or from the fat stored in the body. The primary source of energy in the human diet is carbohydrate.

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which nervous system has two nerve fibers connecting the cns to an effector?

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Autonomic - ANS has two nerve fibers to an effector. The first extends from CNS to the ganglion, and the second from the autonomic ganglion to effector.

What is CNS?

The central nervous system (CNS) is made up of brain and spinal cord. It is one of 2 parts of the nervous system. The other part is peripheral nervous system, which consists of nerves that connect brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body. The central nervous system is body's processing centre.

The central nervous system is made up of brain and spinal cord: brain controls how we think, learn, move, and feel. The spinal cord carries messages back and forth between the brain and  nerves that run throughout the body.

The neural stem cells, principally radial glial cells, multiply and generate neurons through process of neurogenesis, forming the rudiment of the CNS.

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when a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) is receiving oxygen, | which assessment findings indicate increasing carbon dioxide (co ) retention? select all - that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

The following data suggest increased carbon dioxide (co) retention in a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) who is getting oxygen :

DrowsinessPulse irregularityMental confusion

Because high oxygen saturation and high PaO2 levels may inhibit ventilatory drive in some (but not all) COPD patients, the nurse should ensure that the patient is receiving supplemental oxygen. We will occasionally assess clinical symptoms of CO2 retention. CO 2 retention depresses the central nervous system, resulting in drowsiness, confusion, and decreased breathing depth and rate. CO 2 retention also affects cardiac function, causing arrhythmias. Lethargy is seen instead of anxiety, and CO 2 retention is seen due to depression of the central nervous system. Respiratory rate decreases with CO 2 retention due to central nervous system depression.

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usually indicates number time position direction or negation

Answers

Prefix usually indicates number time position direction or negation.

What is Prefix?

Affixes called prefixes are placed before the word stem. When it is added at the beginning, it changes one word into another. For instance, the prefix unhappy is added to the word happy to produce the word unhappy. Because it alters the form of the words it is attached to, a prefix is also referred to as a performative, particularly in the study of languages.

Prefixes, like other affixes, can either be  derivational or inflectional (creating a new form of the word with the same basic meaning and lexical category but acting in a different way in the sentence) (creating a new word with a new semantic meaning and sometimes also a different lexical category).

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Complete question: _________ usually indicates number time position direction or negation

a mother tells the pediatrician's office nurse that she is concerned because her children must let themselves into the house after school each day while she is at work, and they feel isolated and fearful. the nurse would suggest which to the mother?

Answers

Nurses advise working mothers when their children have to let themselves in after school, and the mothers feel isolated and afraid to find after-school programs or community activities.

A working mother has more worries and thinks about herself outside than a man. While at the office, a mother also has a heavy burden of thoughts about her family. This thought greatly affects the anxiety and emotional stability of a mother.

The after-school program is the best choice for working mothers for their children so that the children will not go straight home but will take part in after-school activities.

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cdc, fda see possible link between pfizer’s bivalent shot and strokes

Answers

Centers for Disease Control (CDC), Food and Drug Administration (FDA) do not any see possible link between pfizer’s bivalent shot and strokes.

However, it's important to note that the safety of vaccines is continuously monitored after they are approved and made available to the public. This includes ongoing surveillance of potential side effects through systems such as the Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS) and the Vaccine Safety Datalink (VSD). If a potential safety concern is identified, the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) and FDA will investigate further and take appropriate action to ensure the public's health and safety. It's always important to rely on credible sources such as the CDC, FDA, and the World Health Organization (WHO) for accurate information about vaccines, and to be aware that misinformation and false claims are circulating online.

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a nurse responds to the call bell and finds another nurse evacuating the client from the room, which has caught fire. which action should the nurse take?

Answers

When the nurse responds to the call bell and finds another one evacuating the client from fire room, then she must quickly pull the fire lever.

Accidents in hospitals related to fire are very common and this is mainly because of the presence of machinery and chemicals which can easily catch fire. These accidents not only cause financial damage but the lives of numerous patients and even the staff is at risk because of chocking and breathlessness in smoke filled environment. The quick response by the nurse will help the staff to get alert and major damage could be controlled within time. The majority of the clients who might get trapped in such condition could be saved in time. This also shows the presence of mind and commitment to save the lives of others over ones own, which is commendable.

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your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. she has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. as you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to

Answers

As you evaluate the patient's circulatory condition, tell your partner how to administer oxygen using the proper equipment like canula.

Low flow oxygen administration uses a nasal cannula, transtracheal catheters, face masks, and non-rebreathing masks. While HFNC (High flow nasal cannula) is used by medical professionals to administer high flow oxygen to patients. The different kinds of oxygen therapy delivery systems are: Compressed gas: One hundred percent oxygen is kept under pressure in a sizable metal cylinder. An oxygen flow regulator is built into the cylinder. When you breathe in, an oxygen-conserving device sends oxygen, and when you exhale, it stops the flow of oxygen.If not closely monitored, oxygen therapy in emphysema patients can be dangerous. Be extremely cautious before administering oxygen therapy to an emphysema patient in an acute care setting who exhibits symptoms of hypoxia, shortness of breath, and increased effort to breathe.

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In endometriosis,A. tissue resembling the inner uterine lining grows in the thoracic cavity.B. tissue resembling the inner uterine lining grows in the abdominal cavity.C. the inner uterine lining tissue no longer grows during the woman's reproductive cycles.D. a new mother becomes extremely depressed

Answers

Endometriosis, pronounced "en-doe-me-tree-O-sis," is a condition in which endometrium, the tissue that normally lines the interior of your uterus, grows outside of your uterus.

What is the name for uterine endometriosis?

The endometrial tissue that lines your uterus is present inside and develops into the muscular walls of your uterus when you have adenomyosis. When the endometrial tissue that normally lines the uterus develops into the muscular wall of the uterus, it is known as adenomyosis (ad-uh-no-my-O-sis).

Can the uterus develop endometriosis?

Endometriosis can manifest itself in a number locations, including the outside and back of your uterus. follicle tubes Ovaries.

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The physiological hypervolemia of pregnancy has clinical significance in the management of the severely injured, gravid woman by:

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The physiological hypervolemia of pregnancy has clinical significance in the management of the severely injured, gravid woman by: increasing the volume of blood loss to produce maternal hypotension.

What is the most common cause of hypervolemia?

The most common causes of hypervolemia include: heart failure, specifically of the right ventricle. cirrhosis, often caused by excess alcohol consumption or hepatitis. kidney failure, often caused by diabetes and other metabolic disorders.

What fluids do you give for hypervolemia?

Intravenous (IV) fluids are life-saving when someone is dehydrated or cannot drink adequate fluids, such as after surgery. IV fluids typically contain sodium (salt) and water to replenish the body's fluids and balance the sodium levels.

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the nurse is inquiring about the client's use of complementary and alternative medicines (cams). the nurse would be most concerned with the client who uses which cams? select all that apply.

Answers

According to question,  the nurse would be most concerned with the client who uses Homeopathy and Herbal supplements .

Nursing interventions during a seizure include creating a private space, removing constrictive clothing, raising the bed's padded side rails, removing the pillow, and positioning the patient on one side with the head flexed forward, if possible, to encourage drainage by letting the tongue fall forward.

When long-term IV therapy is necessary and an external central venous device is neither appropriate or desirable, an implanted port is most frequently used. These patients often have restricted vascular access, thus it can also be utilized to collect blood samples for laboratory testing.

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Mrs. Jones is pulseless and has a rhythm with visible P waves, narrow QRS complexes associated with P waves, and a rate of 130 beats/min on the cardiac monitor. Which of the following would best describe the rhythm?a. Pulseless electrical activity
b. Sinus tachycardia
c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. Ventricular tachycardia

Answers

Pulseless electrical activity is best described as the rhythm.

What is Pulseless electrical?

Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is a type of irregular heart rhythm, which means it's an issue with your heart's electrical system. When this occurs, your heart stops pumping because the electrical activity in your heart is too weak to do so (cardiac arrest). Without immediate medical care, cardiac arrest and PEA can be fatal in a matter of minutes.

When you have pulseless electrical activity (PEA), your heart stops beating because the electrical activity in your heart is insufficient to cause your heart to beat. You experience cardiac arrest when your heart stops beating and you become unresponsive.

PEA is a "nonshockable" heart rhythm, which means a defibrillator won't treat it. If left untreated, PEA can result in sudden cardiac death in a matter of minutes.

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the nurse is monitoring a newborn who was born to a drug-addicted mother. which findings would the nurse expect to note during data collection for this newborn? select all that apply

Answers

D. A baby born to a drug-addiction mother was agitated and easily fatigued by sensory stimulation. The baby may constantly wail and posture when being held rather than being cuddled.  Any toxins in the mother's body may also be passed along to the fetus along with nutrients. Additionally, a baby could develop a dependency on the mother's drugs.

The only signs of withdrawal that last only a short while are minor fussiness. Feeding issues, diarrhea, and agitated or nervous behavior are examples of more severe symptoms. Depending on the chemicals consumed, different symptoms may occur. Drug tests on the baby's urine or stool can be used to confirm the diagnosis in cases where the baby exhibits withdrawal symptoms. Urine from the mother will also be examined. However, if urine or stool samples are not taken quickly enough, the results could not be favorable.

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Question-the nurse is monitoring a newborn who was born to a drug-addicted mother. which findings would the nurse expect to note during data collection for this newborn? select all that apply.

A. Sleepiness

B. Cuddles when being held.

C. Lethargy

D. Incessant crying

a nurse is preparing to administer diphenhydramine 25 mg po every 6 hr. available is diphenhydramine syrup 12.5 mg/5 ml. how many tsp should the nurse administer per dose? (round the answer to the nearest whole number. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)

Answers

2tsp if diphenhydramine 25 mg po every 6  hr. available is diphenhydramine syrup 12.5 mg/5 ml.

What is diphenhydramine used for?

It's known as a drowsy (sedating) antihistamine and is more likely to make you feel sleepy than other antihistamines. It's used for: short-term sleep problems (insomnia), including when a cough, cold or itching is keeping you awake at night. cough and cold symptoms.

Who should not take diphenhydramine?

Nonprescription cough and cold combination products, including products that contain diphenhydramine, can cause serious side effects or death in young children. Do not give these products to children younger than 4 years of age.

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if an adult client is having an anaphylactic reaction, which actions would the nurse initiate for this client? select all that apply.

Answers

If an adult client is having an anaphylactic reaction, the following actions would the nurse initiate for this client :

Notify the physician immediately.Administer epinephrine 0.3ml SubQ as ordered.

The first and most critical therapy for anaphylaxis is epinephrine, which should be delivered as soon as anaphylaxis is diagnosed to avoid the escalation to life-threatening symptoms, as discussed in the brief overviews of anaphylaxis emergency care in adults and children.

For anaphylactic reaction therapy, epinephrine is the medicine of choice. It prevents or reduces upper airway mucosal edoema (laryngeal edoema), hypotension, and shock by exerting vasoconstrictor actions. It also has significant bronchodilator effects, as well as cardiac inotropic and chronotropic effects.

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Complete question :

if an adult client is having an anaphylactic reaction, which actions would the nurse initiate for this client? select all that apply.

Notify the physician immediately.

Administer epinephrine 0.3ml SubQ as ordered.

place the patient on oxygen

the nurse is preparing a client for a right below-the-knee amputation. the nurse anticipates that the client is likely to experience which psychosocial problems in the perioperative period? select all that apply.

Answers

The psychosocial problems in the perioperative period are  3.Grief, 4.Anxiety and 5.Altered body image

A client facing an elective amputation of a lower extremity will experience psychosocial as well as physical challenges during the perioperative period. The client is likely to experience grief because of the loss of the extremity as well as an alteration in body image. The client will also experience anxiety since this will be a new experience and life as an amputee is unknown. Pain is a physical problem influenced by psychosocial factors. There are no data in the question to support a problem of anger.

Thus, options 3,4 and 5 are the correct choices.

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Complete question:

The nurse is preparing a client for a right below-the-knee amputation. The nurse anticipates that the client is likely to experience which psychosocial problems in the perioperative period? Select all that apply.

1.Pain

2.Anger

3.Grief

4.Anxiety

5.Altered body image

Which word part is added or removed to make the term easier to pronounce?
A: word root
B: suffix
C: prefix
D: combining form

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

combining vowels may be removed to make pronunciation easier

Other Questions
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