According to the article, how and why dos personality change later in life?

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Answer 1

Answer:

Personality, one's characteristic way of feeling, behaving and thinking, is often conceptualized as a person's standing on each Big Five personality trait (extraversion, neuroticism, openness to experience, agreeableness and conscientiousness).

A person's personality profile is thus gauged from their standing on five broad concepts which predict, among other life outcomes, behavior and the quality of interpersonal relationships. Initially, it was believed that one's Big Five profile was static and dichotomous in that one was either at one extreme of each trait or another .For example, people are typically categorized as introverted or extraverted.

Change over a lifetime

There are two very specific types of change that researchers tend to focus on: rank-order change and mean-level change. A rank-order change refers to a change in an individual's personality trait relative to other individuals; such changes do not occur very often. A mean-level change refers to an absolute change in the individual's level of a certain trait over time. Longitudinal research shows that mean-level change does occur.However, some traits tend to change while some traits tend to stay stable.

There is an increase in consistency of a trait as age increases. However, personality does not stop changing at a specific age. Biological and social transitions in life may also be a factor for change. Biological transitions are stages like puberty or first childbirth. Social transitions might be changes in social roles like becoming a parent or working at a first job. These life transitions do not necessarily cause change, but they may be reasons for change.

One theory says that whether or not these life transitions cause personality change is based on whether the transition was expected based on age or was unforeseen.The events that are expected will cause personality change because those events have common scripts. However, events that are unexpected will give prominence to the traits that already exist for the individual.Historical context also affects personality change. Major life events can lead to changes in personality that can persist for more than a decade.

Stressful life events

Negative life events,long-term difficulties,and deteriorated life quality, all predict small but persistent increases in neuroticism, while positive life events, and improved life quality, predict small but persistent decreases in neuroticism. There appears to be no point during the lifespan that neuroticism is immutable,which is known as the plasticity principle.

Mechanisms of change

There are multiple ways for an individual's personality to change. Individuals will change their behavior based on the ideas in their environment that emit rewards and punishments. Some of these ideas might be implicit, like social roles.

The individual changes his or her personality to fit into a social role if it is favorable.  An individual may decide to actively try to change his or her own behavior/ personality after thinking about his or her own actions.

Personality change also occurs when individuals observe the actions of others. Individuals may mimic the behaviors of others and then internalize those behaviors. Once the individual internalizes those behaviors they are said to be a part of that person's personality.

Individuals also receive feedback from other individuals or groups about their own personality. This is a driving force of change because the individual has social motivations to change his or her personality.  It has also been shown that major positive and negative life events can predict changes in personality.

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Related Questions

__________ is a condition caused when abnormal dilations or pouches in the intestinal wall become inflamed. treatments include following a high-fiber diet, taking antibiotics, and keeping a food diary to track foods that cause flare-ups.

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Diverticulitis occurs when pouches protrude from the colon's wall and become infected and inflamed.

What are the symptoms of Diverticulitis?

Over time, the inflammation can cause a bowel obstruction, resulting in constipation, thin stools, diarrhea, bloating, and abdominal pain.

Diverticular disease and diverticulitis symptoms include: constant, severe tummy pain; a high temperature; and diarrhoea or constipation.

Thus, Diverticulitis occurs when pouches protrude from the colon's wall and become infected and inflamed.

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A health care worker has 2 documented doses of MMR, but a post-vaccination titer for measles is negative. Does CDC recommend a 3rd dose of MMR for this person

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A healthcare professional has 2 documented doses of MMR, but a post-vaccination measles titer is negative. The CDC recommends a 3rd dose of MMR for this person because their immunity will not be able to fight a measles infection.

What is the MMR vaccine?

The MMR is a vaccine that contains live “weakened” measles, rubella and mumps viruses and is usually given in two doses: the first, taken at one year of age, and the second, at 15 months.

With this information, we can conclude that a healthcare professional has 2 documented doses of MMR, but a post-vaccination measles titer is negative. The CDC recommends a 3rd dose of MMR for this person because their immunity will not be able to fight a measles infection.

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Which nursing action is most important to decrease the risk of postoperative complications in a child with sickle cell anemia

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Nursing strategies for SCD include: Manage acute crises. During an acute crisis, comfort measures, use of analgesics, and complementary approaches such as massage and distraction are key. Healthcare providers focus on hydration, prevention of infections, and early recognition of complications. Hope this helps

What impact, if any, have recent regulatory changes had upon Medigap plans?

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The Part B deductible will no longer be covered for individuals newly eligible for Medicare starting January 1, 2020.

What is MACRA?

It has an impact of Medigap plan also, which are provided to cover the cost which are not provided in the original medicare, and the coverage of this is affected by MACRA. Through this some extra health care cost which were not paid by share of medicare.

Thus this could be the answer.

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According to the World Health Organization, a BMI lower than ____ is an indication of malnourishment.

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According to the World Health Organization, a BMI lower than 25.9 to 29.1 BMI s an indication of malnourishment.

What is the BMI range?

According to the National Institutes of Health (NIH) and the World Health Organization (WHO), BMI range between 18.5 and 24.9 is considered as healthy.

Also, World Health Organization (WHO) has defined the category as Overweight in a BMI range of 25.0 to 29.9,  obesity in a BMI range of over 30.0 and lastly severe obesity for BMI greater than or equal to 35.

Thus, this could be the answer.

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which hospitalized client is likely to have the anteroposterior chest diameter equal to the lateral chest

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Hospitalized patients who are likely to have an anteroposterior diameter of the chest equal to that of the lateral chest are those who have diseases that course with chronic airflow obstruction, there is an increase in the anteroposterior thoracic diameter.

What does increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest mean?

As the obstruction progresses, respiratory rate increases, hyperinflation becomes evident, and the anteroposterior diameter of the chest increases. The diaphragm is ground and limited in its movement. Diminished breath sounds and less audible heart sounds may be seen.

With this information, we can conclude that Hospitalized patients who are likely to have an anteroposterior diameter of the chest equal to that of the lateral chest are those who have diseases that course with chronic airflow obstruction, there is an increase in the anteroposterior thoracic diameter.

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Josephine, a pregnant friend of yours, comes to you to ask about what could happen if she takes drugs while her baby is still developing. What should you tell her

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Answer:It could lead to a stillborn birth. It could lead to the baby being underweight or premature. It could lead to a higher risk of birth defects.

Explanation:

Which statement is true regarding the gray matter of the brain?

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Answer:

The correct answer is (a): It makes up the outer tissue layer in the brain. Gray matter consists of cell bodies and unmyelinated neural processes,...

The community health nurse is planning an education program for adolescents about skin care for acne vulgaris. Which of the following should the nurse implement?

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The nurse should implement products containing benzoyl peroxide in education program for adolescents about skin care for acne vulgaris.

What is acne vulgaris?

Acne vulgaris is a skin condition in teenagers and adolescents which usually occurs when the hair follicles plug with oil and dead skin cells.So therefore, the nurse should implement products containing benzoyl peroxide in education program for adolescents about skin care for acne vulgaris

Therefore, the nurse should implement products containing benzoyl peroxide in education program for adolescents.

Complete question:

A) Avoid playing contact sports during the acute phase of the illness.

B) Client will verbalize a decrease in lesions by next visit.

C) Expose the feet to air whenever possible.

D) implement products containing benzoyl peroxide in education program

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The nurse is reviewing lifestyle changes with a client who is attempting to reduce the risk for colon and prostate cancer. Which statement by the client requires further follow-up by the nurse

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The statement by the client that  requires further follow-up by the nurse when reviewing lifestyle changes with a client who is attempting to reduce the risk for colon and prostrate cancer is "I will stay at home to ensure that I can remain close to the toilet."

What is the usefulness of follow up on the client?

Follow up help the nurse to know how the treatment of the illness is effecting on the client and this can help to know the next move.

Therefore, for colon and prostrate cancer, when the client says he will stay at home to ensure that I can remain close to the toilet means the treatment is not effecting yet.

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The membrane lining the wall of the abdominal cavity is the

Answers

Answer:

The peritoneum

Explanation:

The peritoneum

Mark Novak is an ambulatory inpatient who needs to urinate while in the imaging department. His chart states that a urine specimen is needed. You should:

Answers

In this situation, the best is to provide the patients with appropriate supplies and clear instructions to obtain the sample required.

What should be prioritize?

In this situation, both the need of the patient to urinate and the need to collect the sample are important.

What shoul be done?

Based on the priorities, you should let the patient go to a restroom but also provide him with appropriate supplies and instructions to collect the urine sample.

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Why do you believe CCOM would provide you with the type of osteopathic medical education you are seeking

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It is believed that CCOM would provide you with the type of osteopathic medical education you are looking for because it is one of the most respected medical schools in the US.

What's special about CCOM?

Founded in 1900, the Chicago College of Osteopathic Medicine (CCOM) is one of the most respected medical schools in the country. CCOM embraces the osteopathic philosophy of a patient-oriented versus disease-oriented approach to health and prepares students to consider the body as an integrated whole.

With this information, we can conclude that It is believed that CCOM would provide you with the type of osteopathic medical education you are looking for because it is one of the most respected medical schools in the US.

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Medical term for shingles?

Answers

Answer:

Shingles is medically known as "herpes zoster", which comes from the varicella zoster virus.

Explanation:

Answer:

Herpes Zoster

A client with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis has frequent reports of joint pain. The plan of care should be based on the understanding that chronic pain is most effectively relieved when analgesics are administered in which way

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The plan of care should be based on the understanding that chronic pain is most effectively relieved when analgesics are administered at regularly scheduled intervals.

What is Rheumatoid arthritis?

Rheumatoid arthritis may be defined as an autoimmune and inflammatory disease that is responsible for attacking the healthy cells of the immune system of your body by mistakes.

During the treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis, various drugs, as well as analgesics, are effectively delivered to the patient's body to relieve that chronic pain in joints.

Such analgesics are required to be delivered or provided at regularly scheduled intervals specifically. This activity assists the patients with a lack of chronic pain and partial movements of joints.

Therefore, it is well described above.

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Experts recommend that people increase their level of physical activity Multiple Choice gradually, with moderate-intensity exercise at random times. by starting with vigorous exercise on a regular schedule. gradually, with moderate-intensity exercise on a regular schedule. by starting with vigorous exercise at random times.

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Experts recommend that people increase their level of physical activity gradually, with moderate-intensity exercise on a regular schedule.

What are training programs?

In physical exercise, training programs are regular schedules aimed at improving muscle coordination and function.

Physical activities can be regularly improved with exercises that do not suppose excessive demand on the body.

In conclusion, experts recommend that people increase their level of physical activity gradually, with moderate-intensity exercise on a regular schedule.

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what validated abbreviated out of hospital neurologic evaluation tool

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The abbreviated out-of-hospital neurological assessment tool is performed by minimal procedures for the assessment of the face, upper limbs and lower limbs without the use of equipment.

How should the neurological assessment be performed?

The exam basically consists of anamnesis and physical assessment. The idea is that, at the end of the evaluation, it will be possible to describe a comprehensive neurological physical examination and identify abnormalities that signal neurological impairment.

With this information, we can conclude that the abbreviated out-of-hospital neurological assessment tool is performed by minimal procedures for the assessment of the face, upper limbs and lower limbs without the use of equipment.

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which of the following techniques should be avoided when massaging appendages presenting with signs of overuse such as varicose veins

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"The technique which should be avoided among the answer choices is; Choice D; Deep effleurage proximal to distal, medial to lateral.

Which of the techniques in the task content should be avoided?

It follows from the task content that while massaging appendages with signs of overuse, it is important to avoid effleurage distal to proximal, lateral and medial as such technique has negative impact on the appendages.

Remarks;

a. Deep effleurage proximal to distal, medial to lateral.

b. Petrissage, to mimic the contractions used in exercise.

c. ""Toward the heart"" where strokes move in the direction of the venous return.

d. Deep effleurage distal to proximal, lateral to medial.

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What would be an example of a cultural difference that may affect one's health? Multiple choice question. family values personal preferences genetic predispositions

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Family values is an example of a cultural difference that may affect one's health.

How culture affected one's health?

Family and Community retain certain beliefs as a result of these beliefs the health of an individual can be affected. Some beliefs have negative impacts on the health because they are hazardous to our health.

So we can conclude that family values is an example of a cultural difference that may affect one's health.

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Barbiturates and benzodiazepines are included in which category of drugs?.

Answers

Answer:

sedative-hypnotic drugs and central nervous depressants

Explanation:

Which CMS product describes whether specific medical items, services, treatment procedures or technologies are considered medically necessary under Medicare

Answers

The National Coverage Determinations Manual entails whether medical items, services, treatment procedures, or technologies are considered medically necessary under Medicare.

What is National Coverage Determinations Manual?

Material that is unsourced may be challenged and removed. A national coverage determination (NCD) is a nationwide determination by Medicare of whether an item or service will be covered.

It is a type of utilization management that serves as a medical treatment guideline.

Thus, the National Coverage Determinations Manual describes whether specific medical items, services, treatment procedures, or technologies are considered medically necessary under Medicare.

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The ________ rate is the percentage of women who experience unintended pregnancy within the first year of using a particular contraceptive.

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The failure rate is the percentage of women who experience unintended pregnancy within the first year of using a particular contraceptive.

What are contraceptives?

The term contraceptives refers to the drugs or pills that are taken by individuals to prevent pregnancy. In the United States, the contraceptive market is very huge but not all the contraceptives are adjudged to be effective.

The failure rate is the percentage of women who experience unintended pregnancy within the first year of using a particular contraceptive.

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A 50-year-old male with diabetes has an altered mental status and is unable to tell you when he last ate or took his insulin. Your glucometer keeps malfunctioning and you are unable to determine his BG level. Which of the following clinical signs would MOST likely lead you to the correct diagnosis? A. Restlessness and irritability. B. Hypotension and tachycardia. C. Rapid and weak pulse. D. Deep and rapid breathing.

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The clinical signs which would MOST likely lead to the correct diagnosis is Deep and rapid breathing; option D.

What is diabetes?

Diabetes is a disease in which the body is unable to effectively metabolize glucose to produce energy.

Diabetes is associated with high blood glucose levels.

Ketoacidosis is a serious complication of diabetes.

Ketoacidosis in diabetic patients results in Kussmaul breathing is characterized by deep, rapid, and labored breathing.

Therefore, deep and rapid breathing is the clinical signs which would most likely lead one to the correct diagnosis of ketoacidosis.

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For each macronutrient, the _______ provide a range of intake associated with good health and a reduced risk of chronic diseases while providing for recommended intakes of essential nutrients.

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The  Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges provide a range of intake associated with good health and a reduced risk of chronic diseases while providing for recommended intakes of essential nutrients.

What are macronutrients?

The macronutrients are those nutrients that the body requires in large quantities. They are very important such that if they are not consumed appreciable, a remarkable deficiency may result.

Hence, For each macronutrient, the  Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges provide a range of intake associated with good health and a reduced risk of chronic diseases while providing for recommended intakes of essential nutrients.

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What is the status in DAX Studio after you add a patient's name to a note?
REMOVED
ACTIVE
In Progress
Available

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The status in DAX Studio after you add a patient's name to a note is ACTIVE, thus having this status given by that application.

ACTIVE

What is DAX Studio?

DAX (Data Analysis Expressions) is a formula expression language used in

Analysis ServicesPower BIand Power Pivot in Excel.

DAX formulas include functions, operators, and values to perform advanced calculations and queries on data in related tables and columns in tabular data models.

With this information, we can conclude that the status in DAX Studio after you add a patient's name to a note is ACTIVE, thus having this status given by that application.

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which situation would be an indication toward the use of diathermy for its heating effects in wound healing

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We have to resort to diathermy for its heating effects in wound healing when there is need for the heating of deep joints.

What is diathermy ?

The term diathermy  has to do with the use of electric current to produce heat in the body. This heat could be helpful in soothing an inflammation and aiding wound healing.

We have to resort to diathermy for its heating effects in wound healing when there is need for the heating of deep joints.

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A decrease in the autonomic tone of the smooth muscle in a blood vessel would result in.

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A decrease in the autonomic tone of the smooth muscle in a blood vessel would result in an increase in the blood flow of these vessels.

What is smooth muscle?

The smooth muscle is a type of muscle tissue that act via involuntary impulses to contract in rhythmic sequences.

The smooth muscle is the muscle tissue that forms the walls of blood vessels and acts by contracting them.

The autonomic nervous system is able to promote contraction/relaxation cycles of the smooth muscle tissue.

In conclusion, a decrease in the autonomic smooth muscle activity generates an increase in the blood flow of blood vessels.

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The recommended amount of vegetables in the Healthy U.S.-Style Eating Pattern at the 2,000-calorie level is _____ cup-equivalents of vegetables per day.

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The recommended amount of vegetables in the Healthy U.S.-Style Eating Pattern at the 2,000-calorie level is 2.5 cup-equivalents of vegetables per day.

What are vegetables?

Vegetables are a class of food that is widely consumed for the fact that they are a good source of vitamins and minerals. Vegetables are highly recommended especially for pregnant women.

The recommended amount of vegetables in the Healthy U.S.-Style Eating Pattern at the 2,000-calorie level is 2.5 cup-equivalents of vegetables per day.

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What bedside monitoring parameters are used to assess for adequacy of oxygenation and effectiveness of ventilation?

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Answer:

Pulse oximetry and capnography are used to ensure that appropriate oxygenation and ventilation are achieved and maintained. Assessments of driving pressure, transpulmonary pressure, and the pressure-volume loop are performed to ensure that adequate PEEP is applied and excess distending pressure is minimized.

Explanation:

Mr. Singh would like drug coverage but does not want to be enrolled in a medicare advantage plan. What should you tell him?.

Answers

Mr. Singh can enroll in a stand-alone prescription drug plan while maintaining Part A and Part B coverage through Original Fee-for-Service Medicare. The correct option is c.

What is drug coverage?

Health insurance or a plan that assists in the payment of prescription drugs and medications. Prescription drugs are covered by all Marketplace plans.

The missing options are:

a. Part D prescription drug coverage can only be obtained by enrollment into a Medicare Health Plan that also covers Part A and Part B services.b. Mr. Singh must leave Original Medicare to receive drug coverage.c. Mr. Singh can enroll in a stand-alone prescription drug plan and continue to be covered for Part A and Part B services through Original Fee-for-Service Medicare.d. Mr. Singh will have to enroll in Medicaid if he wishes to obtain prescription drug coverage through some means other than a Medicare Health Plan.

Mr. Singh can enroll in a stand-alone prescription drug plan while maintaining Part A and Part B coverage through Original Fee-for-Service Medicare.

Thus, the correct option is c.

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