Answer:
The correct answer is ecological succession.
Explanation:
For the growth and development of an ecosystem, the phenomenon of ecological succession plays an essential role. A slow procedure by which the ecosystems modify and develop with time is termed as the ecological succession. There are prime two kinds of succession, that is, primary succession and secondary succession.
The phenomenon of ecological succession helps in the colonization of the novel areas, and in the recolonization of the destructed ecosystems, this helps the species to get amend with the modifications taking place in the surroundings and helps them to thrive. The given case is an illustration of ecological succession as the flowing of lava creates barren land, which further helps in the establishment of the pioneer plants. These pioneer species of plants helps in the development of a new ecosystem.
True r false- Hurricane storm categories increase as wind increases and pressure decreases.
Answer: False
Explanation: I think it's false because, hurricane damages are caused by storm surges, strong winds and associated tornadoes.
Question 57
How do the circulatory system and immune
system work together to respond to an injury?
Increased blood flow allows for an
increase in the exchange of O2 and CO,
at the site of the injury.
Increased blood flow kills healthy cells
which prevents infection at the site of the
injury
Increased blood flow carries white blood
cells to the site of the injury.
Increased blood flow removes infected
cells from the body at the site of the
injury.
A bacterium synthesizes DNA from each replication fork at a rate of 1000 nucleotides per second. This bacterium completely replicates its circular chromosome by theta replication in 30 min. How many base pairs does the chromosome contain
Answer:
180,000 nucleotide pairs = 180 kilobase pair (kbp) = 0.18 Megabase pairs (Mbp)
Explanation:
Synthesis rate = 1,000 nucleotides (nts) x second
1 minute = 60 seconds
30 minutes = 60 x 30 = 1,800 seconds
>> 1,800 seconds x 1,000 nuleotides per second = 180,000 nts
A typical bacterial genome contains approximately 5 Mbps of DNA that conforms a circular chromosome localized in the cytoplasm. In consequence, in this case the bacterial genome is small (0.18 Mbp).
DNA replication is a process in which the fragment gets replicated to form two indistinguishable replicas of itself. It is vital for the growth and passing of hereditary information to the newly produced daughter cells.
180,000 nucleotide pairs are formed in the replicating bacteria.
This can be calculated by:
[tex]\text{Synthesis rate} & = 1,000 \;\text{nucleotides (nts)} \times \text{ second}[/tex]
We know that 1 minute = 60 seconds So, 30 minutes = 60 x 30 = 1,800 seconds[tex]\text{1,800 seconds} \times \text{ 1,000 nucleotide per second} & = 180,000 \;\text{nts}[/tex]
The bacterial genome thus produced will have 180,000 nucleotide pairs or 180 kilo-base pairs (kbp) or 0.18 Megabase pairs (Mbp) in the chromosome.
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What type of molecules are antigens?
Which are examples of active transport across the cell membrane? a. osmosis and diffusion b. diffusion and facilitated diffusion c. osmosis and chemiosmosis d. endocytosis and exocytosis
Answer:
d. endocytosis and exocytosis
Explanation:
These processes bring specific items in/out of the cell through active transport since the particles being brought in are generally large. Water for example, a much smaller particle, would use passive transport through the process of osmosis. Hope this helps!
Endocytosis and exocytosis are examples of active transport across the cell membrane.
Active transport is the movement of substances in and out of the cell through the membrane using energy and occurs against a concentration gradient.
Endocytosis is called the process by which cells incorporate into them molecules, large or small, that cannot pass through the cell membrane.An example is the endocytosis of the complex that is formed between receptor proteins of polypeptide or protein hormones at the level of the plasma membrane.
Exocytosis is the process by which different types of molecules contained in a cytoplasmic vesicle of a cell are secreted outwards.Insulin secretion is done in small pinocytosic vesicles that have insulin in colloidal dispersion, this secretion is in favor of a gradient, since insulin is more concentrated within the cell than in the extracellular space.
Therefore, we can conclude that endocytosis and exocytosis are examples of active transport across the cell membrane.
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01:50:51
A scientist discovers a cell that has chloroplasts, cytoplasm, DNA, and a cell membrane. Which statement best describes how
the cell could be classified?
The cell is prokaryotic her
has DNA
The cell is a plant cell as animal cells do not have chloroplasts
Answer:
The answer is D.) The cell is eukaryotic because it has chloroplasts.
There are _______ different amino acids used to make proteins, and different condones code for different amino acids.
Answer: there are only 20 different amino acids but 64 possible codons
Explanation:
name two ways that veins and arteries are different
Answer: blood travels from the heart through arteries and blood travels to the heart through the veins.
I hope this helps
What is function of
Bile
Answer:
bile from liver helps in the digestion of lipids through emulsification i.e. by keeping the lipids droplets separate from one another.
bile has no enzymes but contains but contains bile salts for the emulsification of lipids. It helps the lipid-digesting enzymes to attack on lipids
In a particular species of tomato plant, the plants can bear fruits of different colors. Suppose a researcher crosses a homozygous plant that bears white fruit with a different stock of homozygous plant that also bears white fruit. In the F1 generation, all of the fruits are red. Two F1 plants are then crossed and the F2 progeny are examined. The F2 generation contains 219 plants with red fruit and 173 with white fruit.
Required:
a. What are the genotypes of the F2 progeny?
b. What type of epistasis, if any, is present?
1. dominant epistasis
2. duplicate recessive epistasis
3. duplicate dominant epistasis
4. no epistasis
5. recessive epistasis
Answer:
The genotypes of the F2 progeny are 9/16 A-B-, 3/16 A-bb, 3/16 aaB- and 1/16 aabb.The occurring interaction is duplicate recessive epistasis.Explanation:
Gene interactions happen between genes at different levels and have implications in the phenotypic expression, causing a wide genetic variability.
Epistasis means "interruption" and refers to interactions between genes located in different loci in the same chromosome. An “epistatic gene” can alter, influence, or suppress the expression of a "hypostatic gene". When the epistatic gene is recessive, the interaction is known as "recessive epistasis". In duplicate recessive epistasis, two genes are involved in the same metabolic path. Two recessive alleles in any of the two loci can suppress or inhibit the phenotype, in this example, tomato color.
Tomatoes that express the absence of color in the fruit have the following genotypes: aa B_, A_bb y aabb. Tomatoes with these genotypes are white, while tomatoes with A_B_ genotypes are red.
Cross 1:
Parental) aaBB x AAbb
Gametes) aB aB Ab Ab
Punnet Square) aB aB
Ab AaBb AaBb
Ab AaBb AaBb
F1) 100% AaBb, red tomatoes
Cross 2:
Parental) AaBb x AaBb
Gametes) AB Ab aB ab
AB Ab aB ab
Punnet Square) AB Ab aB ab
AB AABB AABb AaBB AaBb
Ab AABb AAbb AaBb Aabb
aB AaBB Aabb aaBB aaBb
ab AaBb Aabb aaBb aabb
F2) 9/16 A-B-
3/16 A-bb
3/16 aaB-
1/16 aabb
Genotypes A-bb, aaB- and aabb express white or absence of color.
Genotypes A-B- express red color.
We know that in the F2 generation there are 219 plants with red fruit and 173 with white fruit.
The total number of plants is 392 (219 + 173), which is 100% of the F2 generation. So:
392 plants ----------- 100% F2 ---- 16
219 red plants--------56% F2------- 9
173 white plants------44% F2 ------ 7
There is a proportion of 9:7 because of the interaction between the two genes.
2. Which of the following is not a trace element in
the human body?
a. iodine
b. zinc
c. iron
d. calcium
The results of gel electrophoresis are shown below. What can you determine
about the DNA from looking at the results of this test?
electrode
A. Strand 1 is the smallest.
B. Strand 2 is larger than strand 3
C. Strand 3 is larger than strand 4.
D. Strand 4 is the smallest
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Gel electrophoresis is an amazing technique that allows for DNA separation based on size (as in, length). Using electricity (and keeping in mind that DNA has a negative charge because of the phosphate groups), the shortest pieces will migrate the farthest.
So we can tell that the pieces are in ascending order of size. 4>3>2>1, in length.
A. Strand 1 is the smallest.
Answer:Given results of gel electrophoresis shows that strand 1 is smallest. The pieces are arranged in ascending order of size 4>3>2>1 . Thus,option A is correct.
Explanation:
What is Gel electrophoresis?
Gel electrophoresis is a laboratory technique used to separate mixture of DNA ,RNA or protein according to their molecular size.
The gel used in this technique is composed of polyacrylamide or agarose.
The main application of gel electrophoresis has been in the seperation of molecules and in restriction mapping.
The main advantage of gel electrophoresis is its capability to
simultaneously separate various samples in one round.
Therefore, strand 1 is the smallest according to the result of gel electrophoresis shown in figure. Thus, option A is correct.
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What pressure is always negative and helps to keep the lungs inflated?
Answer:Intrapleural pressure
Explanation:
Answer:
intrapleural
Explanation:
Which describes a eukaryotic cell, but not a prokaryotic cell? a. uses DNA to control cell activities b. is surrounded by a cell membrane c. makes and uses proteins d. contains DNA in a nucleus
Answer: Eukaryotic cells are larger than prokaryotic cells and have a “true” nucleus, membrane-bound organelles, and rod-shaped chromosomes. The nucleus houses the cell's DNA and directs the synthesis of proteins and ribosomes.
So..the answer should be D. Eukaryotic cells have a true membrane-bound nucleus and prokaryotes do not
All cells have a plasma membrane, ribosomes, cytoplasm, and DNA. Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus and membrane-bound structures. Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus and membrane-bound structures called organelles.
So..it can't be C. or A. or even B.
Correct me if I'm wrong.
Microscope help!
1. which part of the microscope provides concentration of light coming out of a light source?
a. oculars
b. objective
c. condenser
d. light bulbs on/off switch
e. none of the above
2. what is the total magnification of the cells when using the immersion objective of bright field microscope?
a. 40
b. 10
c. 100
d. 400
e. none of the above
3. the role of the immersion oil is to___
a. prevent the loss of light by refraction
b. make objective gentle touching a slide
c. magnify 1000x
d. concentrate light coming from the bulb
e. none of the above
Answer:
1. Condenser
2. None of the above
3. Magnify 1000x
Explanation:
1. Illuminators provides the stable light source in the microscope. It can be reflected using a mirror for a built in microscope. Condenser is made up of two lenses which helps collect and concentrate light. The light beams passes through the centre of the lenses.
Total magnification is objective magnification × Ocular magnification
It makes the object appear bigger than it is. Any of the objective magnification can be uses to achieve the specific size. Objective ranges from 10-100
Oil immersion makes image appears brighter, they increase the refractive index. It is used with 100x objects to achieve a clearer image.
Please help me!!!!!!!!!!
Answer:
A. making new molecules for growth
Explanation:
These five concepts provide a modem interpretation of Mendelian postulates.
- Inheritance is governed by information stored in discrete factors called genes.
- Genes are transmitted from generation to generation on vehicles called chromosomes.
- Chromosomes, which exist in pairs in diploid organisms, provide the basis of biparental inheritance.
- During gamete formation, chromosomes are distributed according to postulates first described by Gregor Mendel, based on his nineteenth-century research with the garden pea.
- Mendelian postulates prescribe that homologous chromosomes segregate from one another and assort independently with other segregating homologous during gamete formation.
Based on these concepts, choose statements that correlate Mendel's four postulates with what is now known about genes, alleles, and homologous chromosomes.
Select the five correct statements.
a. Some gene pairs on nonhomologous chromosomes can aggregate after separation and mitosis or meiosis would stop.
b. Some genes have dominant and recessive alleles.
c. Unit factors occur in pairs.
d. Some possible gametic combinations are formed with higher probability if dominant alleles take part in meiosis.
e. During mitosis and meiosis, when chromosomes are visible in their characteristic shapes. members of a homologous pair have different sizes and exhibit opposite centromere locations.
f. Different gene pairs on non-homologous chromosomes will separate independently from each other during meiosis.
g. Alleles segregate from each other during gamete formation at anaphase
h. Dominant alleles can become codominant alleles during mitosis.
e. One gene pair separates independently from other gene pairs.
Answer:
b. Some genes have dominant and recessive alleles.
C. Unit factors occur in pairs.
e. During mitosis and meiosis, when chromosomes are visible in their characteristic shapes. members of a homologous pair have different sizes and exhibit opposite centromere locations
f. Different gene pairs on non-homologous chromosomes will separate independently from each other during meiosis.
g. Alleles segregate from each other during gamete formation at anaphase
Explanation:
Mendel's postulates of inheritance are: (1) Principles of Paired Factors (2) Principle of Dominance(3) Law of Segregation or Law of Purity of Gametes (Mendel’s First Law of Inheritance) and (4) Law of Independent Assortment (Mendel’s Second Law of Inheritance).
Each of these laws provide information on how inheritance of traits by offspring from parents occur.
Principle of paired factors:
A character is represented in an organism (diploid) by at least two factors. The two factors lie on the two homologous chromosomes at the same locus or position.
Principle of Dominance:
Dominant characters are those which always appear in every generatio whereas recessive characters may not appear in some generations e.g. F1 generation.
Law of segregation:
During the formation of gametes (egg or pollen), the paired genes separate or segregate randomly so that each gamete receives one or the other with equal likelihood
Law of Independent assortment:
During gamete formation, segregating pairs of unit factors (genes) assort independently of each other.
From the above consideration,
Option A is wrong because it doesn't correlate with the law of Independent assortment
Option B is correct based on the second postulate
Option C is correct based on the first postulate
Option D is wrong based on the law of segregation which assigns equal likely to gene separation
Option E is correct based on recent studies of genes
Option F is correct based on the law of Independent assortment
Option G is correct based on recent studies on genes
Option H is wrong because dominant genes remain dominant. Co-dominance occurs when allelic pairs are neither dominant nor recessive
Option 'e' is wrong because independent assortment occurs between pairs of genes with contrasting character not a gene pair having the same character where only segregation occurs.
A scientist adds heat to each of the following substances. Which will probably absorb the most heat before its temperature changes significantly? (2 points)
can you used chmical reagents for chromatography and why?
In what season(s) does the tilt not really affect temperature?
Answer:
Australia
Explanation:
they got wild fires to keep them warm
State three economic importance of mucor
Answer:
Mucor velutinosus and Mucor ellisoideus both infect humans. Mucor indicus is a mold that is actually economically valuable. It's used to produce ethanol, and has a large array of sugars it can use as a food source. Mucor indicus is also used as fish feed and may be a valuable tool to clean up oil spills.
hope it helps : D
Explanation:
The three economic importance of mucor are:
Production of industrial enzymesProduction of organic acidsBioremediationMucor species are used to produce a variety of industrial enzymes, including amylases, proteases, and lipases. These enzymes are used in a wide range of industries, including the food, beverage, and textile industries. Mucor species are also used to produce organic acids, such as citric acid, gluconic acid, and fumaric acid.
These acids are used in a variety of products, including soft drinks, pharmaceuticals, and food additives. Mucor species can be used to bioremediate contaminated soil and water. They can degrade a variety of pollutants, including petroleum hydrocarbons, pesticides, and heavy metals.
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You are a farmer starting an orchard and interested in breeding citrus trees. In grapefruits, big fruit (B) is dominant over small fruit (b), and silky skin (S) is dominant over rough skin (s). You cross a homozygous tree that has big fruit and silky skin, with a homozygous tree that has small fruit and rough skin. You self-cross the F1 to produce the F2.
Required:
a. What will be the phenotypic ratios in the F2?
b. If you backcross an F1 tree with the big, silky skin parent, what phenotypes and proportions would you expect in the offspring?
c. If you backcross an F1 tree with the small, rough skin parent, what phenotypes and proportions would you expect in the offspring?
Which bests describes a pilus
Answer:
A tube that extends from a bacterium
Explanation: A tube that extends from a bacterium
Answer:
A tube that extends from a bacterium
Explanation:
Describe the type of attitude that would help of attitude that would help to make a good scientist?
Answer:
My answer to you is that the positive willing to do tests and experiments over and being okay with being wrong if you are.
Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae, commonly called gonococcus (GC). This organism developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline in the 1980s, after which fluoroquinolones were the recommended drugs for treating GC. Subsequent resistance to the fluoroquinolones has led to the current recommended treatment of injected ceftriaxone in combination with oral azithromycin. Although this approach continues to be effective, recent data from the CDC indicates that resistance to azithromycin is emerging.Fluoroquinolones act by inhibiting DNA gyrase, an enzyme involved in DNA replication. Resistance to this antibiotic is most commonly by a. due to a mutation in the gene that encodes RNA polymerase, an example of adaptive resistance. b. a change in the DNA gyrase target, an example of acquired resistance increased efflux of the drug from the target cell, an example of innate resistance. c. a change in the DNA gyrase target, an example of innate resistance. d. enzymatic modification of the ribosomal target, an example of innate resistance.
Answer:
The correct answer is option b, that is, a modification in the target of DNA gyrase, is an illustration of acquired resistance.
Explanation:
The activity of DNA gyrase gets inhibit by fluoroquinolones. The enzyme that combines with the DNA and prevents its supercoiling at the time of replication is termed as DNA gyrase. It is a heterotetramer, which is formed of two subunits of GyrA and two subunits of GyrB. Due to the mutation in gene gyrA, the development of resistance takes place in N. gonorrhea against fluoroquinolones.
Post mutation, gyrA exhibits lesser binding capacity with the fluoroquinolones, and thus, the development of resistance takes place within the bacteria against the fluoroquinolones. The phenomenon of the development of resistance taking place in any microbe against the specific antimicrobial agent for whom it was vulnerable before is termed as acquired resistance, thus, the given case is an illustration of acquired resistance.
The antibiotics tetracycline and erythromycin inhibit bacterial protein synthesis, but have no effect on proteins encoded by eukaryotic, nuclear genes. Conversely, the antibiotic cycloheximide inhibits protein synthesis of nuclear genes, but has no effect on protein synthesis in bacteria.
Select the statement that best describes the effect of a particular antibiotic on protein synthesis.
a. It cannot be determined because two of these antibiotics affect bacteria, and cells with mitochondria are eukaryotic.
b. Tetracycline treatment would inhibit mitochondrial protein synthesis, but not protein synthesis of nuclear genes.
c. Erythromycin treatment would inhibit protein synthesis from nuclear genes, but not from mitochondrial genes.
d. Cycloheximide treatment would inhibit expression of mitochondrial genes, but not expression of nuclear genes.
e. Tetracycline treatment would inhibit translation of nuclear genes, but not translation of mitochondrial genes.
Answer:
I think it might be A
Why would a drop in blood pH have an undesirable effect on the proximal histidine's function?a. A drop in pH would make deprotonation more likely, and a deprotonated proximal histidine would be able to hydrogen bond to O2 to stabilize its binding to the heme.b. A drop in pH would make protonation more likely, and a protonated proximal histidine would not be able to donate its electron density to the iron atom.c. A drop in pH would make protonation more likely, and a protonated proximal histidine would not be able to hydrogen bond to O2 to stabilize its binding to the heme due to its positive charge.
Answer:
c. A drop in pH would make protonation more likely, and a protonated proximal histidine would not be able to hydrogen bond to O2 to stabilize its binding to the heme due to its positive charge.
Explanation:
Protonation refers to the addition of proton or H+ to the atom or molecule. If the pH of blood drop means acidic so it causes adverse effect on the function of proximal histidine because the proximal histidine gain proton and become cation. Due to this proton, proximal histidine is unable to make hydrogen bond between heme and oxygen and the blood is unable to transport more oxygen with hemoglobin from the lungs.
Where in the body does a mutation have to occur in order to cause an inherited change in the offspring?
Answer
This has to be in germinal cells./germ-line cells.That is in the sex cells of either sperms or the eggs. it may occur during Gametogensis.
The fusions of these sex cells resulted in a new organism.Where the genes inherited in the two sex cells are fully expressed,It is duding the expression that the effect of the mutation will be shown.
Explanation:
The Bartholomew J, an American shipping vessel, docks at a port in Australia. A small school of fish makes its way from the bilge, a hollow area under the ship that collected seawater, into the water of the dock. It is a new species to the area and begins to thrive. What term is used to describe this species?
The species of fish is referred to as a(n) BLANK
species.
Answer:
hello it might be invasive I think if not I am sorry
Answer:
Invasive.
Explanation:
Because tending to spread especially : tending to invade healthy tissue invasive cancer cells. 2 : involving entry into the living body (as by incision or by insertion of an instrument) invasive diagnostic techniques. Other Words from invasive.
Which of the following is false?
A. When a maternal effect gene is seen, the offspring will demonstrate the phenotype of the mother's genotype.
B. In maternal effect, an offspring will have the genotype of their mother.
C. In a reciprocal cross, if an offspring has the mother's phenotype for both crosses, cytoplasmic inheritance is responsible.
D. The direction of shell coiling in Lymnaea peregra is influenced by the orientation of the first cleavage division.
E. It is safe to say that a maternal effect is caused by the genotype, not the phenotype, of the parent producing the egg.
Answer:
Answer is D.
Explanation:
The first cleavage division can be explained or described as the series of first cellular division of the zygote after fertilization.
In this case, the process of recoiling of the shell of the snail can not be categorized as one of the examples at this stage.