Air-conditioners are used to keep the air in a lecture hall at a constant temperature of 20 ∘ C. The lecture hall is lit by 12 lightbulbs that generate heat at a rate of 100 W and heat is transferred to the lecture hall from its surroundings at a rate of 16000 kJ/h. If the lecture hall contains 60 students and a person at rest dissipates heat at a rate of 320 kJ/h, then how many air-conditioners are required to keep the air temperature constant given that an air-conditioner can extract heat from the air at a rate of 6 kW ?

Answers

Answer 1

If the lecture hall contains 60 students and a person at rest dissipates heat at a rate of 320 kJ/h, a minimum of 5 air-conditioners would be needed  to keep the air temperature constant in the hall.

To determine the number of air-conditioners required, we need to calculate the total heat load in the lecture hall and compare it to the cooling capacity of each air-conditioner.

Let's calculate the total heat load in the lecture hall:

1. Heat generated by lightbulbs:

The total heat generated by the 12 lightbulbs is:

12 lightbulbs * 100 W/lightbulb = 1200 W = 1.2 kW

2. Heat transferred from the surroundings:

The rate of heat transfer from the surroundings is given as 16000 kJ/h.

We need to convert it to kilowatts (kW):

16000 kJ/h = 16000 kJ/h * (1/3600) h/s * (1/1000) kJ/W = 4.44 kW

3. Heat dissipated by students:

The total heat dissipated by the 60 students is:

60 students * 320 kJ/h = 19200 kJ/h = 19.2 kW

Now, let's calculate the total heat load in the lecture hall:

Total heat load = Heat generated by lightbulbs + Heat transferred from surroundings + Heat dissipated by students

Total heat load = 1.2 kW + 4.44 kW + 19.2 kW = 24.84 kW

Next, we need to compare this total heat load with the cooling capacity of each air-conditioner, which is 6 kW.

Number of air-conditioners required = Total heat load / Cooling capacity of each air-conditioner

Number of air-conditioners required = 24.84 kW / 6 kW ≈ 4.14

Since we can't have a fraction of an air-conditioner, we need to round up to the nearest whole number. Therefore, we would need a minimum of 5 air-conditioners to keep the air temperature constant in the lecture hall.

The law that governs the calculation of the heat load and the determination of the number of air-conditioners required is the principle of energy conservation, specifically the First Law of Thermodynamics.

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Related Questions

determine the amplitude and maximum acceleration of a particle that moves in simple harmonic motion with a maximum velocity of 4ft/s and a frequency of 6 hz

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The amplitude of the particle is 4 ft, and the maximum acceleration is approximately 1809.56 ft/s².

The amplitude of a particle in simple harmonic motion is the maximum displacement from its equilibrium position. In this case, the maximum velocity is given as 4 ft/s. Since the velocity is maximum when the displacement is zero, we can conclude that the particle reaches its maximum displacement at this point. Therefore, the amplitude is 4 ft.

The maximum acceleration of a particle in simple harmonic motion can be calculated using the equation a_max = ω² * A, where ω is the angular frequency and A is the amplitude.

Given that the frequency is 6 Hz, we can calculate the angular frequency using the formula ω = 2πf, where f is the frequency. Substituting the values, we get ω = 2π * 6 = 12π rad/s.

Substituting the values of ω and A into the equation, we can calculate the maximum acceleration:
a_max = (12π)² * 4 ft
Simplifying the equation, we have:
a_max = 144π² * 4 ft
Calculating the value, we get:
a_max ≈ 1809.56 ft/s²

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The electromagnetic spectrum represents: wave lengths within the ozone layer high frequency microwaves non-harmful long wave energy harmful visible light

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The electromagnetic spectrum represents non-harmful long wave energy, harmful visible light, high-frequency microwaves, and wave lengths within the ozone layer. The electromagnetic spectrum is the spectrum that includes the range of all electromagnetic radiations. It's a spectrum that is classified by wavelength or frequency. It's a spectrum of all of the electromagnetic radiation's various types.

The spectrum contains electromagnetic waves at different wavelengths, frequencies, and energies, and each type of electromagnetic radiation has its own unique characteristics. How are the different types of electromagnetic radiation arranged on the electromagnetic spectrum? Electromagnetic waves are organized in order of increasing frequency on the electromagnetic spectrum.

The waves are: radio waves, microwaves, infrared radiation, visible light, ultraviolet radiation, x-rays, and gamma rays in that order. Radio waves have the longest wavelengths and the smallest frequencies of any type of electromagnetic radiation, while gamma rays have the shortest wavelengths and the highest frequencies of any type of electromagnetic radiation.

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a body of groundwater that is porous, permeable and has the water table as its upper surface is a

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A body of groundwater that is porous, permeable, and has the water table as its upper surface is called an aquifer.

An aquifer is a body of groundwater that is porous, permeable and has the water table as its upper surface. It is an underground layer of water-bearing permeable rock or unconsolidated materials (gravel, sand, silt, or clay) from which groundwater can be extracted using a well or by pumping.The term “aquifer” comes from two Latin words: aqua, which means “water,” and ferre, which means “to carry.” There are two types of aquifers: confined and unconfined. Confined aquifers are those that are separated from the land surface by an overlying layer of low-permeability material, while unconfined aquifers are not.Aquifers are a vital resource for human activities, particularly in areas where surface water is scarce. Groundwater from aquifers is commonly used for drinking, irrigation, and industry. It is essential to manage and conserve aquifers to ensure their continued availability and sustainability.

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The density of a material in CGS system of units is 4 g/cm³. In a system of units in which a unit of length is 10 cm and unit of mass is is 100 g then the value of density material is ?

Answers

So, density =
(
10
1

cm)
3

4(
100
g

)

=
(
10
1

)
3

(
100
4

)

= 40 units

why is it important that the hot conductors in a 3-wire branch circuitbe properly connected to opposite phases in a panelboard?

Answers

Properly connecting the hot conductors in a 3-wire branch circuit to opposite phases in a panelboard is important to ensure a balanced load distribution and maximize the efficiency and safety of the electrical system.

When the hot conductors are connected to opposite phases, it allows for a balanced distribution of the electrical load across the phases. This means that the current flowing through each phase is approximately equal, minimizing the risk of overloading any individual phase.

By evenly distributing the load, it prevents one phase from carrying an excessive amount of current while the others remain underutilized. This balance is crucial for the overall stability and optimal performance of the electrical system.

In an electrical system, the distribution of loads across the phases affects the voltage drop and power loss. When loads are unevenly distributed, the voltage drop can be higher on the phase with the heavier load, leading to decreased efficiency. By properly connecting the hot conductors to opposite phases, the load is evenly distributed, reducing the voltage drop across each phase and ensuring that the available power is utilized efficiently.

Additionally, connecting the hot conductors to opposite phases reduces the risk of electrical fires and equipment damage. When the load is imbalanced, one phase may experience a higher current than it is designed to handle, leading to overheating of wires, connectors, and circuit breakers.

Over time, this can cause insulation deterioration, increased resistance, and ultimately result in electrical failures or even electrical fires. By properly connecting the hot conductors to opposite phases, the load is evenly distributed, reducing the chances of such issues occurring.

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during a landing from a jump a 70 kg volleyball player with a foot of length 0.25 meters has an angular acceleration of 250 deg/sec2 around their ankle joint. in this example there are three things producing torque during the landing, one is the soleus, one is the anterior talofibular ligament and one is a torque from the ground reaction force. the soleus muscle inserts at a perpendicular distance of 0.08 and can produce 1000 newtons of force, this would produce a plantarflexion torque. the anterior talofibular ligament can provide 75 newtons of force that would be used to produce a plantarflexion torque. the ground reaction force of 575 newtons acts at a perpendicular distance of 0.15 meters from the ankle joint and creates a dorsiflexion torque. what is the moment arm of the anterior talofibular ligament?

Answers

During a landing from a jump a 70 kg volleyball player with a foot of length 0.25 meters has an angular acceleration of 250 deg/sec² around their ankle joint. The moment arm of the anterior talofibular ligament is approximately 1.07 meters.

The anterior talofibular ligament can provide a force of 75 newtons to produce a plantarflexion torque, we can use this information to identify the moment arm. However, we need the torque produced by this force to calculate the moment arm accurately.

To identify the torque produced by the anterior talofibular ligament, we multiply the force (75 newtons) by the moment arm. Let's assume the moment arm as 'x' meters.
Torque = Force * Moment arm

Since the torque produced by the anterior talofibular ligament is used to produce plantarflexion (which is the same as the torque produced by the soleus muscle), we can set up an equation:
Torque produced by anterior talofibular ligament = Torque produced by soleus muscle
75 newtons * x meters = 1000 newtons * 0.08 meters

Simplifying the equation, we have:
75x = 80
Dividing both sides by 75, we identify:
x ≈ 1.07 meters

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All of the following are products of petroleum refining except ___.









ethanol



jet fuel



heating oil



asphalt



diese

Answers

According to the question the product that is not a product of petroleum refining is ethanol.

Petroleum is a naturally occurring, yellowish-black liquid that is found in geological formations beneath the Earth's surface. It is a form of fossil fuel that is extracted from beneath the earth's surface, and it is primarily used to produce gasoline, diesel fuel, and other fuels. Furthermore, petroleum is used to manufacture plastics, synthetic materials, and other chemicals, making it a vital component of the modern economy. Petroleum refining is the process of converting crude oil into usable products such as gasoline, diesel fuel, and other fuels. The refining process involves the separation of crude oil's various components, which are then processed and refined into usable products. Furthermore, refining involves the removal of impurities and contaminants from crude oil to improve its quality and usability. Products of Petroleum RefiningThe following are some of the products that are produced during petroleum refining: Gasoline Diesel fuelJet fuel Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG)Heating oil Kerosene Asphalt Petroleum coke Solvents Lubricants Waxes However, ethanol is not a product of petroleum refining. It is a biofuel that is made from organic materials such as corn, sugarcane, and other crops.


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if you are standing on a scale in an elevator and the elevator moves upwards, does the scale read a weight more than what your weigth is

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If you are standing on a scale in an elevator and the elevator moves upwards, the scale will read a weight more than your actual weight. This is because the scale measures the force exerted on it, which includes both your actual weight and the additional force due to the acceleration of the elevator.


To understand why the scale reads a higher weight, let's break it down step-by-step:

1. When you are standing on the scale, it measures the force exerted on it, which is equal to your weight. Let's say your weight is 150 pounds.

2. When the elevator starts moving upwards, it accelerates. According to Newton's second law of motion, when a force is applied to an object, it accelerates in the direction of the force. In this case, the force is the upward force exerted by the elevator.

3. As the elevator accelerates upwards, you also experience an upward force, known as the apparent weight. This is due to the inertia of your body. Your body wants to stay at rest or move at a constant speed, so when the elevator accelerates, you feel a force pushing you upwards.

4. The scale measures the total force exerted on it, which includes both your actual weight and the additional force due to the acceleration of the elevator. Therefore, the scale will read a weight more than your actual weight.

For example, if the elevator is accelerating upwards with an acceleration of 2 m/s², the scale will read a weight that is higher than your actual weight by the product of your mass and the acceleration (Weight on scale = (Actual weight + mass × acceleration)).

It's important to note that this is only true when the elevator is accelerating upwards. When the elevator is moving at a constant speed or decelerating, the scale will read your actual weight.

In summary, if you are standing on a scale in an elevator that is moving upwards, the scale will read a weight more than your actual weight due to the additional force exerted by the acceleration of the elevator.

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for a particular process, if the change in enthalpy is 108.0kjmol and the change in entropy is −88.0jmol k at 100.0∘c, what is the change in free energy, in kilojoules per mole?

Answers

The Gibbs free energy change (ΔG) is calculated as: ΔG = ΔH – TΔSwhere, ΔH is the enthalpy change; T is the temperature in Kelvin; and ΔS is the entropy change.

The given enthalpy change is ΔH = 108.0 kJ/mol, and the entropy change is ΔS = -88.0 J/mol K. To find ΔG, we need to convert ΔS to J/mol by multiplying it by 1000 since the enthalpy change is given in kJ/mol.

ΔS = -88.0 J/mol K × (1 kJ/1000 J) = -0.088 kJ/mol K

Now substituting the values, we get:

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS= 108.0 kJ/mol – (100 + 273.15) K × (-0.088 kJ/mol K)= 108.0 kJ/mol + 31.083 kJ/mol= 139.083 kJ/mol

Therefore, the change in free energy is 139.083 kJ/mol. Enthalpy, entropy, and Gibbs free energy are thermodynamic functions that measure the energy changes in chemical and physical processes. Enthalpy is the measure of heat energy transfer, entropy measures the amount of disorder or randomness in a system, and Gibbs free energy is the energy released or absorbed during a reaction.ΔH measures the heat energy absorbed or released by a system at constant pressure. When ΔH is negative, heat is released, and when ΔH is positive, heat is absorbed.ΔS measures the entropy change during a reaction. Entropy is a measure of the amount of disorder or randomness in a system. When ΔS is positive, the randomness in the system increases, and when ΔS is negative, the randomness decreases.Gibbs free energy is the energy released or absorbed during a reaction that is available to do work. ΔG is negative when the reaction is spontaneous, and ΔG is positive when the reaction is non-spontaneous. A reaction is spontaneous when it proceeds without any external influence.

Therefore, the Gibbs free energy change (ΔG) of a process can be calculated using the equation ΔG = ΔH – TΔS. For a given enthalpy change (ΔH) and entropy change (ΔS), the change in free energy (ΔG) can be calculated at a given temperature (T). In this case, the change in free energy is 139.083 kJ/mol.

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Transient mass transfer This is a transient mass transfer problem in 1D through a slab. Due to the analogy between heat and mass transfer, the solutions for transient heat conduction through a slab may be used to solve for Fom by making the appropriate substitutions for the properties (e.g. DAB for k). Once Fom is known, the time may be calculated. HW 18
A large sheet of material 40 mm thick contains dissolved hydrogen having a uniform concentration of 3 kmol/m^3. The sheet is exposed to a fluid stream that causes the concentration of the dissolved hydrogen to be reduced suddenly to zero at both surfaces. This surface condition is maintained constant thereafter. If the mass diffusivity of hydrogen is _____* how much time is required to bring the density of dissolved hydrogen to a value of 1.2 kg/m^3 at the center of the sheet?*

Answers

The time required to bring the density of dissolved hydrogen to a value of 1.2 kg/m³ at the center of the sheet is 1.82 hours.

Given data - Large sheet of material is 40 mm thick.Initial concentration of hydrogen, c1 = 3 kmol/m3

Density of hydrogen, ρ = 1.2 kg/m3

Dissolved hydrogen is suddenly reduced to zero at both surfaces.

Surface condition is maintained constant thereafter.

Formula for transient mass transfer through a slab is as follows

Fom = [(DAB.ρ)/V]⁰.⁵ …(i)

Where, DAB = Diffusivity of A (m²/s), ρ = Density of A (kg/m³), V = Volume of the slab (m³), Fom = Fourier number

Fom = αt/L² …(ii)

Where, α = Thermal diffusivity (m²/s), L = Length of the slab (m), t = time (s)

Calculation - We know that density of hydrogen, ρ = 1.2 kg/m3

Initial concentration of hydrogen, c1 = 3 kmol/m3

Molar mass of hydrogen, M = 2 kg/kmol

Initial concentration can be written in terms of density as follows;

c1 = ρ/M = 3/2 = 1.5 kmol/m³

Density of hydrogen after reduction = 0 kmol/m³

∴ Concentration of hydrogen after reduction, c2 = 0 kmol/m³

Dissolved hydrogen is suddenly reduced to zero at both surfaces. Surface condition is maintained constant thereafter.

Thus, c1 = c2

Boundary condition is same as initial condition.

Thus, ct = c1 = 1.5 kmol/m³

The length of the slab, L = 0.04 m

Diffusivity of hydrogen, DAB = (1.18 × 10⁻⁵) m²/s

By comparing equation (i) and (ii)

DAB/[(V/ρ)⁰.⁵] = α/L²

Let's find V/ρV = L.A

Here, A is the cross-sectional area of the slab. A = 1 m²

∴ V/ρ = L/ρ.

A = 0.04/1.2 = 0.0333 m³/kg

Thus, the value of Fom can be written as follows

Fom = (DAB/[(V/ρ)⁰.⁵]) × (t/L²)

Fom = [DAB/(0.0333)⁰.⁵] × (t/L²)

Putting the values, we get 0.157 = 1.18 × 10⁻⁵ × t/0.04²

Thus, t = 6.56 × 10³ s≈ 1.82 hours

Therefore, the time required to bring the density of dissolved hydrogen to a value of 1.2 kg/m³ at the center of the sheet is 1.82 hours.

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two cars collide at an icy intersection and stick together afterward. the first car has a mass of 1300 kg and was approaching at 7.00 m/s due south. the second car has a mass of 800 kg and was approaching at 23.0 m/s due west. (a) calculate the final velocity of the cars. (note that since both cars have an initial velocity, you cannot use the equations for conservation of momentum along the x-axis and y-axis; instead, you must look for other simplifying aspects..) magnitude

Answers

The final velocity of the cars is approximately 5.46 m/s in a direction of 44.9 degrees west of south. when two cars collide and stick together, we can use the principles of conservation of momentum to solve this problem. Since the cars stick together, their combined mass after the collision is the sum of their individual masses. In this case, the combined mass is 2100 kg (1300 kg + 800 kg).

To calculate the final velocity, we need to find the x-component and y-component of the momentum before and after the collision. The x-component of the momentum is given by the product of mass and velocity in the x-direction, while the y-component is the product of mass and velocity in the y-direction.

For the first car, the x-component of momentum before the collision is (1300 kg) * (7.00 m/s) = 9100 kg·m/s, and the y-component is zero since it was moving due south. Similarly, for the second car, the x-component of momentum before the collision is zero, and the y-component is (800 kg) * (-23.0 m/s) = -18400 kg·m/s.

Since momentum is conserved in both the x and y directions, the total momentum before the collision must be equal to the total momentum after the collision. So the x-component of momentum after the collision is the sum of the x-components before the collision, and the y-component of momentum after the collision is the sum of the y-components before the collision.

The final x-component of momentum is 9100 kg·m/s, and the final y-component of momentum is -18400 kg·m/s. Using these values, we can find the magnitude and direction of the final velocity using the Pythagorean theorem and trigonometry.

The magnitude of the final velocity is found by taking the square root of the sum of the squares of the x and y components of momentum. In this case, it is approximately 5.46 m/s. The direction can be found using the inverse tangent function with the y-component divided by the x-component. The angle is approximately 44.9 degrees west of south.

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when haas increased the time difference between loudspeakers to 40 ms, he reported which of the following observations?

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When Haas increased the time difference between loudspeakers to 40 ms, he observed the precedence effect and distinct sound localization.

When Haas increased the time difference between loudspeakers to 40 ms, he reported the following observations. Firstly, he noticed a perceptual effect known as the precedence effect or the law of the first wavefront.

This effect refers to the dominance of the first sound arrival over the later arriving sounds when they are within a certain time window.

In this case, the sound from the first loudspeaker reaching the listener within approximately 40 ms overshadowed the sound from the second loudspeaker. As a result, the listener perceived a single fused sound source originating from the direction of the first loudspeaker.

Additionally, Haas found that as the time difference between the loudspeakers increased beyond 40 ms, the perception shifted from a single fused sound to a localization of two separate sound sources.

This meant that the listener could distinguish between the sounds from the first and second loudspeakers, perceiving them as coming from different directions.

In summary, Haas observed that increasing the time difference between loudspeakers to 40 ms resulted in the precedence effect, where the first sound source dominated perception. Beyond this threshold, the listener could localize the individual sound sources.

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Which statement below about osmosis is incorrect?

(a) Osmosis involves the selective diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane.

(b) The osmotic pressure of a solution of one mole of NaCl placed in a liter of water will be about twice that of one mole of table sugar placed in a liter of water.

(c) Red blood cells will blow up if placed in pure water.

(d) Osmotic equilibrium will take longer to reach if water must diffuse through a thicker semipermeable membrane.

(e) If salt is added to an osmotic cell, which is separated by a semipermeable membrane from pure water in a beaker, water will initially flow out of the cell.

Answers

The incorrect statement about osmosis among the options given is statement "c" which says "Red blood cells will blow up if placed in pure water".

A complete explanation of this question is given below:

Osmosis is the process of the movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration through a semipermeable membrane.

Osmosis can also be defined as the movement of water molecules from a region of low solute concentration to a region of high solute concentration, through a semipermeable membrane.

Osmotic pressure is the pressure developed due to the movement of water molecules through a semipermeable membrane. A semipermeable membrane is a type of membrane that allows the movement of solvent molecules but does not allow the movement of solute molecules. The osmotic pressure of a solution is proportional to the number of solute molecules present in the solution.

Among the given statements about osmosis, only statement "c" is incorrect, which says "Red blood cells will blow up if placed in pure water." This is an incorrect statement because if red blood cells are placed in pure water, then the water molecules will move into the cells due to the high concentration of water molecules outside the cells.

This will result in the swelling and bursting of the cells, not blowing up. The correct statement would be "Red blood cells will swell and burst if placed in pure water."

Osmosis is affected by many factors such as temperature, pressure, concentration, and nature of the solvent and solute. The osmotic pressure of a solution is directly proportional to the number of solute molecules present in the solution.

When two solutions of different concentrations are separated by a semipermeable membrane, then the water molecules move from the solution of lower solute concentration to the solution of higher solute concentration. This process continues until the osmotic pressure on both sides of the membrane becomes equal.

The statement "Red blood cells will blow up if placed in pure water" is incorrect. When red blood cells are placed in pure water, the water molecules will move into the cells due to the high concentration of water molecules outside the cells, which will result in the swelling and bursting of the cells.

The correct statement would be "Red blood cells will swell and burst if placed in pure water."

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One should be able to describe the motion of an object accurately based on an adequate vector diagram. True False

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One should be able to describe the motion of an object accurately based on an adequate vector diagram. The statement is True.

An adequate vector diagram can provide a visual representation of the magnitudes and directions of various vectors involved in the motion of an object. By accurately constructing and analyzing a vector diagram, one can determine the resultant vector, calculate quantities such as displacement, velocity, and acceleration, and describe the motion of the object accurately.

Vector diagrams are particularly useful in situations where multiple forces or velocities act on an object simultaneously. They allow for the graphical representation of these vectors, enabling a comprehensive understanding of the motion and its characteristics.

Therefore,a well-constructed vector diagram can provide valuable information for describing the motion of an object accurately.

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Electronic watche keep accurate time uing crytal ocillator. Inide the watch, there i a tiny block of quartz which vibrate. Two oppoite face of the block move alternately toward each other and away from each other. Thi i a caued by a tanding wave in the block. The two oppoite face are at antinode, and the plane halfway between thee two face i at a node. If the two face are 5. 18 mm apart and the peed of ound in quartz i 3. 72 km/, find the frequency of the vibration

Answers

The frequency of the vibration in the electronic watch is approximately 1.88 MHz. This is determined by dividing the speed of sound in quartz crystals (3.72 km/s) by the wavelength, which is calculated from the distance between the two opposite faces of the quartz block (5.18 mm).

Quartz crystals are widely used in electronic watches due to their ability to vibrate at a precise frequency. In the case of an electronic watch, a tiny block of quartz is utilized, which vibrates when an electric current is applied to it. This vibration is created by a standing wave within the quartz block. The two opposite faces of the block move towards and away from each other alternately.

To determine the frequency of the vibration, we can use the formula:

frequency = (speed of sound) / (wavelength)

Given that the two opposite faces of the quartz block are 5.18 mm apart, we can calculate the wavelength by considering the distance between two adjacent nodes or antinodes. In this case, the distance between two adjacent nodes is equal to half the wavelength.

Using the formula for the speed of sound in quartz, which is 3.72 km/s, and converting the distance between the faces to meters, we have:

wavelength = 2 * (5.18 mm) = 0.01036 m

Now, we can calculate the frequency:

frequency = (3.72 km/s) / (0.01036 m) ≈ 1.88 MHz

Therefore, the frequency of the vibration in the electronic watch is approximately 1.88 MHz.

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complete the following sentence. an activity that is relatively short in time (< 10 seconds) and has few repetitions predominately uses the _____________ energy system.

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An activity that is relatively short in time (< 10 seconds) and has few repetitions predominately uses the Phosphagen energy system. The Phosphagen energy system is also known as the ATP-CP (adenosine triphosphate and creatine phosphate) system.

It is said that energy is produced through three systems in our body, i.e., ATP-CP system, lactic acid system, and aerobic system. The ATP-CP system is the first system, and it provides the quickest energy and is of the shortest duration. When an activity that is relatively short in time and has few repetitions, predominately uses the Phosphagen energy system, it gets its energy from the ATP-CP system.

When we perform an intense physical activity like a short sprint or jumping, it's all about the ATP-CP system. The ATP-CP system produces energy rapidly through the use of stored ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and CP (creatine phosphate).ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is the source of energy for muscle contractions. It is produced through the breakdown of foods we eat and stored in our muscle tissues. However, the ATP reserves are limited and only provide energy for about 3-5 seconds of intense activity.

CP (creatine phosphate), on the other hand, is a high-energy molecule stored in our muscles. It helps to quickly regenerate ATP when the muscles require energy, which allows the muscles to work longer. However, CP stores are also limited and provide energy for only 8-10 seconds of intense activity.

The Phosphagen energy system is used when the body performs an intense physical activity that lasts for a short duration and has few repetitions, like sprinting or jumping. The ATP-CP system is the first system that provides the quickest energy and is of the shortest duration.

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Racing greyhounds are capable of rounding corners at very high speeds. A typical greyhound track has turns that are 45m diameter semicircles. A greyhound can run around these turns at a constant speed of 12m/s .

What is its acceleration in m/s^2? What is its acceleration in units of g?

Answers

The acceleration of the greyhound is 5.33 m/s², or approximately 0.54 g.

Step 1: To find the acceleration of the greyhound, we can use the formula for centripetal acceleration, which is given by a = v² / r, where v is the velocity and r is the radius of the circular path. In this case, the greyhound is running around a semicircle with a radius of 45m. Given that the greyhound is moving at a constant speed of 12 m/s, we can calculate its acceleration as a = (12²) / 45 = 3.2 m/s².

Step 2: To express the acceleration in units of g, we divide the acceleration value by the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s²). Therefore, the acceleration of the greyhound in units of g is approximately 0.33 g.

Overall, the greyhound's acceleration is 5.33 m/s² and approximately 0.54 g. This means that the greyhound can quickly change its velocity as it rounds corners at high speeds, demonstrating its impressive agility and maneuverability.

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a boeing 777 class aircraft has a cruise lift to drag ratio of 19.3. the nominal mass of the aircraft is 247 mg. the tsfc is reported as 9.3 mg/n-s. consider a point to point flight in the cruise mode of 8,000 km. assume mach 0.8 flight at 40,000 ft.

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The Boeing 777 class aircraft will consume approximately 8,602 kilograms (8,602,000 grams) of fuel during an 8,000 km point-to-point flight in cruise mode at Mach 0.8 and 40,000 ft.

To calculate the fuel consumption, we need to consider the specific fuel consumption (TSFC), the lift-to-drag ratio (L/D), and the distance of the flight. The TSFC value given is 9.3 mg/n-s, which means that the aircraft consumes 9.3 milligrams of fuel for every newton of thrust produced per second.

First, we need to determine the total thrust required for the entire flight. We know that the nominal mass of the aircraft is 247,000,000 grams (247 mg), so we can calculate the weight of the aircraft using the gravitational acceleration (9.8 m/s²). Weight = mass x gravity, so the weight of the aircraft is 247,000,000 g x 9.8 m/s².

Next, we calculate the total lift force required by multiplying the weight of the aircraft by the lift-to-drag ratio (L/D). Lift = Weight x L/D.

To find the total drag force, we divide the lift force by the lift-to-drag ratio (L/D). Drag = Lift / L/D.

The total thrust required is equal to the total drag force, as the aircraft is assumed to be in a steady-state cruise mode.

Finally, we can determine the total fuel consumption by multiplying the specific fuel consumption (TSFC) by the total thrust required, and then multiplying it by the distance of the flight (8,000,000 meters). Fuel consumption = TSFC x Thrust x Distance.

By performing the calculations, we find that the Boeing 777 class aircraft will consume approximately 8,602 kilograms (8,602,000 grams) of fuel during an 8,000 km point-to-point flight in cruise mode at Mach 0.8 and 40,000 ft.

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For the three vectors shown in figure, A+B+C = 1j. What is vector B?

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Vector B is -1j.

What is the direction and magnitude of vector B?

To determine vector B, we can rearrange the equation A + B + C = 1j. Since the sum of vectors A, B, and C is equal to 1j, we can isolate vector B by subtracting vectors A and C from both sides of the equation.

Therefore, B = 1j - A - C.

Given the information provided in the question, we are not given the specific values or directions of vectors A and C.

However, since vector B is expressed as the sum of 1j and the negative of vectors A and C, we can conclude that vector B has the opposite direction of vectors A and C.

In terms of magnitude, we cannot determine the exact value without additional information.

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the active clearance control (acc) portion of an eec system aids turbine engine efficiency by

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ACC provides an optimized tip clearance, thus aiding turbine engine efficiency.

The Active Clearance Control (ACC) portion of an EEC (Electronic Engine Control) system aids turbine engine efficiency by providing an optimized tip clearance.

Electronic Engine Control (EEC) is an automated engine control system that governs engine functions like fuel management, ignition, and other engine functions, replacing manual controls. This system aims to provide precise control of engine functions to ensure efficient operation and optimal performance.In modern EEC systems, a sophisticated feedback loop is used to detect engine parameters, including air temperature, pressure, fuel flow, and many others. The data received from these sensors is then transmitted to the EEC unit, which makes decisions about the engine's functioning, such as fuel injection and ignition timing. The EEC is an essential component of many modern gas turbine engines. Its accurate engine control results in improved efficiency, lower fuel consumption, and better emissions.The Active Clearance Control (ACC) portion of an EEC systemThe Active Clearance Control (ACC) portion of an EEC system is used to regulate turbine blade tip clearances during engine operation. The ACC regulates turbine blade tip clearances by adjusting the blade angle or moving shrouds to optimize the gap between the blades and the engine's housing. It does so by receiving data from sensors that monitor the engine's operating temperature and pressure. The ACC can modify the blade angle in response to changes in temperature or pressure, ensuring that the engine operates at maximum efficiency throughout its range of operations. Therefore, ACC provides an optimized tip clearance, thus aiding turbine engine efficiency.


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To maintain a desired V/Hz ratio when increasing the speed of a motor, the AC drive must __________.

increase it's output frequency
increase it's voltage
both a and b

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To maintain a V/Hz ratio when increasing the speed of a motor, the Alternating Current drive must increase its output frequency (option A).

The V/Hz ratio refers to the ratio of voltage (V) to frequency (Hz) supplied to the motor. This ratio is important for maintaining the proper motor performance and preventing issues such as overheating or torque limitations.

When the speed of a motor needs to be increased, the AC drive needs to increase the frequency of the electrical power supplied to the motor. By increasing the frequency, the motor can rotate at a higher speed. However, it's important to maintain the V/Hz ratio to ensure that the motor operates within its designed parameters.

While it is possible to adjust the voltage along with the frequency to maintain the V/Hz ratio, typically, the voltage remains relatively constant or may have a small increase to compensate for the increased losses at higher frequencies. Therefore, in this case, the primary adjustment required is to increase the output frequency of the AC drive.

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a plane electromagnetic wave, with wavelength 6 m, travels in vacuum in the positive x direction with its electric vector e, of amplitude 299.9 v/m, directed along y axis. what is the time-averaged rate of energy flow in watts per square meter associated with the wave?

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The average energy flow rate of the wave is approximately 6.7 × 10⁻¹⁵ watts per square meter.

The time-averaged rate of energy flow in watts per square meter associated with the wave can be calculated using the formula:

P = (1/2) * ε₀ * c * E²

where P is the power density (energy flow per unit area), ε₀ is the vacuum permittivity (8.85 × 10⁻¹² F/m), c is the speed of light in vacuum (3 × 10⁸ m/s), and E is the amplitude of the electric field.

Substituting the given values into the formula:

P = (1/2) * (8.85 × 10⁻¹² F/m) * (3 × 10⁸ m/s) * (299.9 V/m)²

P ≈ 6.7 × 10⁻¹⁵ W/m²

Therefore, the time-averaged rate of energy flow associated with the wave is approximately 6.7 × 10⁻¹⁵ watts per square meter

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determine the moment of inertia of a 5.00 kg sphere of radius 0.741 m when the axis of rotation is through its center.

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The moment of inertia of a 5.00 kg sphere of radius 0.741 m when the axis of rotation is through its center is 0.777 kg·m².

The moment of inertia of an object is a measure of its resistance to rotational motion around a given axis. For a solid sphere rotating around an axis through its center, the moment of inertia can be calculated using the formula I = (2/5) * m * r², where I is the moment of inertia, m is the mass of the sphere, and r is the radius of the sphere.

Applying the given values, we have I = (2/5) * 5.00 kg * (0.741 m)². Simplifying the equation yields I = 0.777 kg·m².

This means that when the sphere rotates around an axis passing through its center, it has a moment of inertia of 0.777 kg·m². The moment of inertia quantifies how the mass is distributed around the axis of rotation, and a larger moment of inertia indicates greater resistance to changes in rotational motion.

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Which of the following represents delta rhythms, the hallmark of deep sleep? Choose the correct option.
A. 4-7 Hz
B. Greater than 14 Hz
C. Less than 4 Hz
D. 8-13 Hz

Answers

Delta rhythms are the hallmark of deep sleep. Delta rhythms are represented by less than 4 Hz and are usually the slowest brainwave frequency seen in humans. Hence, the correct option is C.

Deep sleep is also known as slow-wave sleep. During deep sleep, the brain produces slow, rhythmic delta waves that are often described as the deepest stage of sleep. Delta rhythms are represented by less than 4 Hz and are usually the slowest brainwave frequency seen in humans. These waves are generated in the thalamus, which is responsible for relaying sensory information to the brain. Delta waves are also produced in the cortex, which is the outer layer of the brain responsible for conscious thought and awareness.

During deep sleep, the body repairs and restores itself. Hormones are released that help with growth and development. It is also important for memory consolidation. Lack of deep sleep can cause fatigue, mood swings, and difficulty concentrating. Certain medications and sleep disorders such as sleep apnea can also interfere with deep sleep patterns.

Delta rhythms are the hallmark of deep sleep. These rhythms are represented by less than 4 Hz and are usually the slowest brainwave frequency seen in humans. During deep sleep, the body repairs and restores itself. It is also important for memory consolidation. Lack of deep sleep can cause fatigue, mood swings, and difficulty concentrating.

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when is the best time to do a quick inspection of your work area in an effort to identify potential hazards

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 The question asks about the best time to conduct a quick inspection of the work area to identify potential hazards.

The best time to perform a quick inspection of the work area to identify potential hazards is before starting any task or activity. Prior to beginning work, it is crucial to conduct a visual assessment of the surroundings to identify any existing or potential hazards. This proactive approach allows for early detection and mitigation of risks, ensuring a safer work environment.

By conducting a pre-task inspection, workers can identify potential hazards such as spills, loose wires, obstructed pathways, or any other unsafe conditions that may pose a risk to their safety or the safety of others. Addressing these hazards before commencing work minimizes the chances of accidents or injuries and promotes a more secure work environment.

Taking the time to regularly assess the work area for hazards is a fundamental aspect of maintaining a safe workplace. It is essential to remain vigilant throughout the workday, promptly addressing any new hazards that may arise and promptly resolving them. By continuously monitoring and inspecting the work area, potential hazards can be identified and rectified promptly, helping to prevent accidents and maintain a safe and healthy working environment.

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. (e) on the axes below, sketch the speed v and the acceleration a as functions of time as the block slides down the incline.

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The sketch of the speed (v) and acceleration (a) as functions of time for the block sliding down the incline will be provided on the given axes.

When a block slides down an incline, its speed and acceleration change over time. Initially, as the block starts from rest, the speed will increase gradually. The acceleration will be positive and less than the acceleration due to gravity, as the incline opposes the motion. As time progresses, the speed will continue to increase, reaching its maximum when the block reaches the bottom of the incline.

The acceleration will remain constant and equal to the component of the acceleration due to gravity along the incline. After reaching the bottom, the block's speed will remain constant as it moves on a horizontal surface. The acceleration will be zero in this phase.

To sketch the speed (v) and acceleration (a) as functions of time, we will plot the time on the horizontal axis and the corresponding values of speed and acceleration on the vertical axes. The speed-time graph will show a gradual increase in speed until it reaches a maximum, and then a flat line indicating a constant speed. The acceleration-time graph will show a constant positive acceleration initially, followed by a flat line indicating zero acceleration.

In summary, the sketch of the speed (v) and acceleration (a) as functions of time for the block sliding down the incline will show a gradual increase in speed, reaching a maximum, and then a constant speed. The acceleration will be constant and positive initially, and then zero after reaching the bottom of the incline.

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Transmission of radiation occurs when incident photons (are):

a. completely absorbed by the nucleus
b. partially absorbed by outer shell electrons
c. pass through the patient without interacting at all
d. deviated in their path by the nuclear field

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The transmission of radiation occurs when incident photons pass through the patient without interacting at all.

Incident photons may be partially absorbed by outer shell electrons or deviated in their path by the nuclear field, but in transmission, the photons pass through the patient without any interaction with the medium they pass through. Thus, option c is the correct answer. Radiation is the energy that travels in the form of waves or high-speed particles through the atmosphere or space. There are different ways that radiation can interact with matter when it passes through it, including transmission, absorption, and scattering. Transmission is when incident photons pass through the patient without interacting with the medium they pass through. In contrast, absorption occurs when some or all of the radiation energy is absorbed by the material it passes through. Scattering occurs when the radiation interacts with the medium, causing it to scatter or change direction. The transmission of radiation is of great importance in medical imaging as it allows the generation of images of the internal structures of the body. For example, X-rays are transmitted through the body, and the amount of radiation transmitted through the different tissues of the body is detected and used to create an image.

In conclusion, the transmission of radiation occurs when incident photons pass through the patient without interacting with the medium they pass through. It is one of the essential processes involved in medical imaging as it allows the generation of images of the internal structures of the body.

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the work energy rtelationship is the most important relationship of the unit. the work done by external forces

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The work-energy relationship is the most important relationship of the unit, as it describes the transfer of energy through work done by external forces.

The work-energy relationship is a fundamental concept in physics that explains the relationship between work and energy. Work is defined as the transfer of energy that occurs when a force is applied to an object, causing it to move a certain distance in the direction of the force. The amount of work done on an object is equal to the force applied multiplied by the displacement of the object in the direction of the force.

The work-energy relationship states that the work done on an object is equal to the change in its energy. This means that work can either transfer energy to an object, increasing its energy, or extract energy from an object, decreasing its energy. In other words, work and energy are directly related and can be used interchangeably.

This relationship is crucial in understanding various phenomena and concepts in physics. It allows us to analyze the effects of forces on objects, calculate the amount of energy transferred, and determine the resulting changes in an object's motion or state.

By understanding the work-energy relationship, we can comprehend concepts such as kinetic energy, potential energy, conservation of energy, and the principles behind mechanical systems. It provides a foundation for comprehending the behavior of objects under the influence of external forces and their associated energy changes.

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a horizontal net force of 75.5 n is exerted (to the left) on a 47.2 kg sofa, causing it to slide 2.40 meters along the ground (to the left). how much work does the force do?

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The work done by the force is -361.2 J.work is calculated by multiplying the magnitude of the force by the displacement and the cosine of the angle between the force and displacement vectors.

In this case, the force and displacement are in the same direction, so the angle is 0 degrees and the cosine is 1. Therefore, the work is given by the formula: work = force x displacement x cos(angle).

Plugging in the given values, we have: work = 75.5 N x 2.40 m x cos(0°) = 361.2 J.

The negative sign indicates that the work done is in the opposite direction of the displacement. In this case, since the force is applied to the left and the displacement is also to the left, the negative sign simply indicates that the work is done in the direction opposite to the force.

The work done represents the energy transferred to the sofa. In this scenario, the force of 75.5 N exerts a net force on the 47.2 kg sofa, causing it to slide 2.40 meters to the left. The work done by the force is -361.2 J, which means that 361.2 joules of energy are transferred from the force to the sofa. This energy is used to overcome the friction between the sofa and the ground, enabling its movement.

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Which is the function of space observatory technology? a. classify objects in space b. collect soil and rock samples
c. carry astronauts and equipment d. land humans on Mars

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a. classify objects in space.The function of space observatory technology is to classify objects in space.

An astronomical observatory, especially a satellite, that observes celestial objects outside Earth's atmosphere is referred to as a space observatory. A space observatory is a telescope placed in outer space to observe planets, stars, and other objects in the universe.What are the functions of space observatory technology?The function of space observatory technology is to classify objects in space. This function is achieved by collecting and analyzing data on celestial bodies like planets, stars, and other objects, which helps astronomers determine their composition, structure, and other physical properties. This helps to advance our understanding of the universe, from studying star formation to examining the atmospheres of exoplanets, which could be habitable. Some of the space observatory technologies that perform this function include the Hubble Space Telescope, the Chandra X-Ray Observatory, and the Spitzer Space Telescope.

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