Alcohol change the brain functions and looks by interfering with the mind's communication networks. It becomes more difficult to think properly and move with precision these disturbances alter mood.
Explain what communication is?
Giving, collecting, and communicating knowledge are all an element of communication, which can occur orally, in writing, through listening or reading, or through any combination of these. Listen intently, talk or write effectively, and accept divergent viewpoints when communicating
What makes communication crucial?
In daily life, communication enables us to connect with people, share our experiences and needs, and strengthen our bonds. It gives us the opportunity to communicate our views, share information, and express our emotions.
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70. A 36-year-old woman has noted a nodule beneath the skin in her left groin since adolescence. On physical examination, the lesion has a 2-cm diameter and is nontender, soft, rubbery, and movable. Which of the following cell types is most likely to comprise this lesion? A. Adipocyte B. Endothelial cell C. Fibroblast D. Skeletal muscle E. Smooth muscle
The answer is the adipocyte, letter A.
substance abuse treatment typically begins with detoxification with or without the assistance of drugs.
In substance treatment, detoxification is usually the first step in therapy. Some drug treatment programs use chemicals either as the main treatment or as a supplement.
What is the meaning of substance drug?
The use of prescription pharmaceuticals, or over-the-counter medications for purposes other than those for which they were prescribed, or in excess. Problems with substance misuse can be social, physical, emotional, and employment-related.
What does "detoxification process" mean?
A series of procedures known as detoxification are used to treat acute intoxication and withdrawal. It indicates a removal of toxins from the patient's body who is very dependent on illicit drugs. The goal of detoxification is to lessen the bodily harm brought on by drug usage.
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when performing a physical examination on an anxious client, a nurse should expect to find which effect produced by the parasympathetic nervous system?
Hyperactive bowel sounds was produced by the parasympathetic nervous system.
The parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) is one of three divisions of the autonomic nervous system, along with the sympathetic and enteric nervous systems. The enteric nervous system is sometimes considered a component of the autonomic nervous system and other times as a separate system.
The autonomic nervous system is in charge of controlling the body's unconscious actions. The parasympathetic nervous system is in charge of stimulating "rest-and-digest" or "feed-and-breed" activities that occur when the body is at rest, particularly after eating, such as sexual arousal, salivation, lacrimation (tears), urination, digestion, and defecation. Its action is said to be complementary to that of the sympathetic nervous system, which is in charge of stimulating activities related to the fight-or-flight response.
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The ___ cells of pancreatic islets produce insulin.
The beta cells of pancreatic islets produce insulin.
A beta cell's primary job is to create and secrete insulin, the hormone in charge of controlling blood glucose levels. Beta cells swiftly react by secreting part of their stored insulin and increasing the secretion of the hormone when blood glucose levels start to rise (for instance, after digestion).
Normally, it takes around 10 minutes for this fast reaction to a blood glucose surge. However, in persons with diabetes, these cells are either unable to produce enough insulin for blood sugar regulation or are targeted and destroyed by the immune system (type 1 diabetes) ( type 2 diabetes ).
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Pinpoint hemorrhagic areas acquired during birth that may extend over the upper trunk and face; they are benign if they disappear within 2 to 3 days of birth and no new lesions appear.
Pinpoint hemorrhagic areas acquired during birth that may extend over the upper trunk and face; they are benign if they disappear within 2 to 3 days of birth and no new lesions appear Petechiae.
injuries, including traumatic brain damage, bone fractures, and cuts or puncture wounds. Physical abuse or acts of violence, such as a gunshot or knife wound. Blood vessel-attacking viruses, such as viral hemorrhagic fever. Some patients make a complete recovery. Possible adverse effects from drugs or treatments include stroke, loss of brain function, seizures, and stroke. Even with rapid medical care, death is still a possibility and can happen very fast. Hemorrhage that is uncontrolled is harmful and fatal. Hemorrhage may lead to the following complications: shock with haemorrhage. Coagulopathies.
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to design and implement a decubitus ulcer risk management protocol in the electronic health record, the informatics nurse would first perform which action?
Clinical health care informatics, clinical research informatics, public/population health informatics, and translational bioinformatics are examples of health informatics.
Conclusion Data, information management, human factors, project management, research skills/knowledge, leadership and management, systems development and evaluation, and health/healthcare were identified as eight key domains that cut across the various sub-disciplines of health informatics.
Nursing informatics is the integration of data, information, and knowledge to help patients, nurses, and other providers make decisions in all roles and settings. This assistance is provided by information structures, information processes, and information technology."
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which of the following is (are) not considered part of the three areas of centric contacts or centric stops?
Answer:
to have a water
candesartan (atacand), which is an angiotensin ii receptor blocker, is the preferred drug to treat hypertension during the 2nd and 3rd trimesters of pregnancy.
During the second and third trimesters of pregnancy, candesartan (atacand), an angiotensin ii receptor blocker, is the medication of choice for treating hypertension.
What is candesartan?
An oral angiotensin II receptor blocker is candesartan. Candesartan was given FDA approval to treat adult hypertension.
Is Atacand and candesartan the same?
A pharmaceutical medicine is called candesartan as a tablet for oral consumption. Atacand, a brand-name version of candesartan, is readily available.
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when assessing a client for possible adverse effects of direct-acting cholinergic agents, what might the nurse find?
The nurse might find Urinary urgency , while assessing a client for possible adverse effects of direct-acting cholinergic agents.
A frequent, abrupt urge to urinate that can be challenging to control is brought on by overactive bladder, commonly known as OAB. You might feel the urge to urinate frequently throughout the day and night, and you might also accidentally leak pee (urgency incontinence).
If you have an overactive bladder, you can experience embarrassment, loneliness, or restrictions in your career and social life. The good news is that a quick assessment can identify any particular causes of your overactive bladder symptoms.
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a depressed client in the psychiatric unit hasn't been getting adequate rest and sleep. to encourage restful sleep at night, the nurse should:
To encourage restful sleep at night for a depressed client, the nurse should gently yet firmly set limits on time spent in bed during the day for the patient.
Sleeping well, or having a restful sleep during the night, can ease one's depression. When a person is well-rested, not only they will have energy, but they are more likely to have a better (upbeat) view n life and focus.
There are some things that can be done to achieve better sleep, such as:
Limit the usage/intake of alcohol, caffeine, and smoking.Exercise regularly.Go outside and bask in sunlight during the day.Eat regularly. Don't skip meals.Take short naps, 20 to 30 minutes maximum.Learn more about restful sleep at https://brainly.com/question/25655819
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a gravid client develops maternal hypotension following regional anesthesia. what intervention(s) should the nurse implement? (select all that apply.)
The interventions that the nurse should implement in a gravid patient who develops maternal hypotension after regional anesthesia are:
Administer oxygen (1).Monitor fetal status (3).Place the client in a lateral position (4).Increase IV fluids (5).What is maternal hypotension?Maternal hypotension can be defined as a well-known and well-documented side effect of regional anesthesia caused by transient sympathectomy, which results in lower maternal average arterial blood pressure, or MABP, and decreased uteroplacental perfusion. Maternal hypotension might lead to nausea in the mother and affect the infant adversely. It can potentially result in stillbirth and severe birth complications.
Intravenous fluids, drugs (such as ephedrine, phenylephrine, and ondansetron), leg compression, or the mother sitting down or walking around before spinal anesthesia can all help to avoid hypotension.
This question should be provided with options that are:
Administer oxygenAssist the client to a sitting positionMonitor fetal statusPlace the client in a lateral positionIncrease IV fluidsPerform a vaginal examinationLearn more about hypotension here: brainly.com/question/28295598
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what will happen to the sensitivity and specificity of a screening test in a population of disease prevalence increases
Sensitivity and specificity are unaffected by disease prevalence. Keep in mind that this assertion is not universally accepted. A: As prevalence increases, the negative predictive value decreases. For example, if disease prevalence reaches 100%, any negative test result will be a false negative.
In all cases, a higher prevalence accompanied a lower specificity. In the 2 meta-analyses with a significant association between prevalence and sensitivity,27,33 sensitivity was higher with higher prevalence.
Sensitivity refers to a test's ability to designate an individual with disease as positive. A highly sensitive test means that there are few false negative results, and thus fewer cases of disease are missed. The specificity of a test is its ability to designate an individual who does not have a disease as negative.
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which respiratory infection became a global health threat in 2003 and 2004, with major outbreaks in several asian countries?
SARS became a global health threat in 2003 and 2004.
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a viral respiratory disease caused by a SARS-associated coronavirus. It was first identified at the end of February 2003 during an outbreak that emerged in China and spread to 4 other countries SARS appeared in 2002 in China. It spread worldwide within a few months, though it was quickly contained. SARS is a virus transmitted through droplets that enter the air when someone with the disease coughs, sneezes, or talks. No known transmission has occurred since 2004.Like most respiratory viruses, SARS appeared to spread from person to person through coughing, sneezing and close contact. Symptoms of the infection seen during the 2003 outbreak included those similar to the flu: fever, cough, chills, fatigue, shortness of breath, headache and diarrhea.
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the nurse is caring for a client with an endotracheal tube. which is the most effective way for the nurse to loosen respiratorysecretions
The most effective way for the nurse to loosen respiratory secretions is to humidify the prescribed oxygen.
What do you mean by respiratory secretions?
Respiratory secretions are the phlegm and mucus that is produced in the airways of the respiratory system. This includes saliva, nasal mucus, and bronchial secretions, which contain proteins, electrolytes, and other elements.
What is an Endotracheal tube?
An endotracheal tube (ET tube) is a thin, flexible tube that is inserted through the mouth or nose, down the windpipe (trachea) and into the lungs. It is used to deliver oxygen, anesthetics, and other medication to the patient, or to help the patient breathe during certain medical procedures. It is also used to provide a clear airway and to protect the lungs during surgery.
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a client beginning week 30 of gestation comes to the clinic for a routine visit. which observation by the nurse indicates a need for further teaching?
The client is wearing knee-high hose.
Gestation is the period of development during which an embryo, and later a fetus, is carried inside viviparous animals. It is common in mammals, but it also occurs in some non-mammals. Mammals can have one or more gestations at the same time during pregnancy, as in a multiple birth.
Between conception (the fertilization of an egg by a sperm) and birth, the fertilized egg develops in the uterus. Pregnancy lasts approximately 288 days in humans. A missed (or silent) miscarriage occurs when the baby dies or does not develop but is not physically miscarried. In many cases, there was no indication that anything was wrong, so the news can be shocking.
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T/F technology has led to an extreme decline in the physical activities of daily life, resulting in an increase of chronic diseases.
The given statement is true that technology has led to an extreme decline in the physical activities of daily life, resulting in an increase of chronic diseases.
Technology can be defined as the advancement that puts the knowledge into practice in order to make the human life easier and hassle-free. It involved the reduction of manual work which is done by the help of machines and equipment in reduced time periods.
Chronic diseases are those that are long0lasting and require constant medical care or attention. The disease should last for almost an year that can extend for lifetime to be called chronic. The example of chronic diseases are: heart disease, cancer, diabetes, etc.
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a young pregnant adolescent is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy? which risk factors may contribute to ectopic pregnancy?
The risk factors for ectopic pregnancy include the following: Previous ectopic pregnancy. Prior fallopian tube surgery. Previous pelvic or abdominal surgery.
Unfortunately, a foetal death results from an ectopic pregnancy. It is unable to endure outside of the uterus. To save the mother's life, an ectopic pregnancy must be treated right away. An ectopic pregnancy happens when a fertilised egg grows outside of the uterus. This can cause severe internal bleeding if the egg has implanted in the fallopian tube and the tube bursts. More than 90% of ectopic pregnancies take place in a fallopian tube. The tube may burst as the pregnancy progresses (rupture). A rupture may result in significant internal bleeding.
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Smoking behavior, fallopian tube damage,
pelvic inflammatory disease past.
Smoking increases the chance of ectopic pregnancy in adolescents. Risk factors include ovaries and fallopian tube inflammation as well as a history of pelvic inflammatory illness. Ectopic pregnancy is not linked to the use of contraceptive tablets or a history of irregular menstruation.)
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The term defined as the process of drawing away from the mid-line or middle is: o inversion o circumduction O abduction o adduction
The term defined as the process of drawing away from the mid-line or middle is abduction.
When the angle between the bones of the joint changes, angular movements are created. Angle-moving motions come in a variety of forms, such as flexion, extension, hyperextension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction.
When a bone deviates from the body's midline, abduction occurs. Abduction can be demonstrated by lateral movement of the arms or legs to lift them straight out to the side. A bone moves into adduction when it moves toward the body's midline. Adduction is exemplified by the inward movement of the limbs following the abduction. A limb is circumducted when it is moved in a circular manner, such as when the arm is moved in a circle.
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a nurse is caring for a client in acute addisonian crisis. which test result does the nurse expect to see?
serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L test result does the nurse expect to see.
A serum potassium test measures potassium levels in blood. Your healthcare supplier may also arrange an electrocardiogram (EKG). This test shows changes in heart beat caused by hyperkalemia
A serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can happen in adrenal deficiency as a result of decreased aldosterone emission. A BUN level of 2.3 mg/dl is lower than normal. A client in addisonian emergency is likely to have an increased BUN level because the glomerular filtration rate is diminished. A serum sodium level of 156 mEq/L indicates hypernatremia. Hyponatremia is almost certain in this client because of decreased aldosterone emission. A serum glucose level of 236 mg/dl indicates hyperglycemia. This client is likely to have hypoglycemia caused by diminished cortisol discharge, which impairs glyconeogenesis.
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medical direction has advised you to place obese pt with sob in supine position. would increase sob. best action would be to?
best action would be to explain your concern to the physician and ask for clarification.
Orthopnea is the clinical term for windedness while lying down. It can result from a scope of health conditions, including cardiovascular breakdown and weight.
Treatment will rely upon the underlying reason. Be that as it may, laying down with the heads set up on pads might assist with overseeing side effects. For individuals with heftiness, shedding pounds can help.
An individual ought to look for clinical assistance in the event that they have unexpected or unexplained windedness or breathing hardships joined by chest torment, swooning, a fever, or nausea.
An individual who is experiencing issues breathing feels winded, experiences difficulty breathing in or breathing out, or feels like they can't get sufficient oxygen.
Frequently, individuals experience inconvenient breathing subsequent to practicing or when they feel restless. At times, breathing troubles can flag an ailment, so resolving the cause is fundamental.
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during infant cpr, you should push down ______ inches deep at a rate of at least ______ compressions per minute.
During infant cpr, you should push down 1 and a half inches deep at a rate of at least 100-120/minute compressions per minute.
What is CPR ?Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is a life-saving emergency procedure that involves giving someone who is having a cardiac arrest chest compressions and sometimes artificial ventilation in an effort to keep their brain functioning normally until additional steps are taken to bring back their breathing and spontaneous blood circulation.
At a rate of 100–120 per minute, apply mild chest compressions for 30 seconds. In the middle of the chest, beneath the nipples, place two or three fingers. One-third of the chest's depth should be pressed down (about 1 and a half inches).
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barry has just sustained an ischemic stroke. is an ideal treatment for barry, if administered within 3 to 5 hours.
Apraxia of speech patients can make significant progress with speech-language therapy. Even though it's challenging, you may regain your communication skills.
A motor-speech condition called acquired apraxia of speech (AOS) causes the inability to control the muscles needed to create words. The ability to move the lips and tongue properly to produce letter sounds is impaired when the signals travelling from the brain to the mouth are interfered with. The person frequently has no problems with the muscles, but has trouble controlling them. Because of this, it is challenging to start and order the sounds that form words. Speech apraxia can be severe and severely impair a person's ability to communicate, or it can be mild and have little to no impact. It can be really annoying.
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a client at 8-weeks gestation ask the nurse about the risk for a congenital heart defect (chd) in her baby. which response best explains when a chd may occur?
The heart develops in the third to fifth weeks after conception.
A congenital heart defect (CHD), also known as a congenital heart anomaly or congenital heart disease, is a birth defect in the structure of the heart or major vessels. A cardiovascular disease is a congenital heart defect. The signs and symptoms vary depending on the type of defect. Symptoms can range from non-existent to life-threatening. Symptoms may include rapid breathing, bluish skin (cyanosis), poor weight gain, and fatigue. Chest pain is not caused by CHD. The majority of congenital heart defects are unrelated to other diseases. Heart failure is a complication of CHD.
In the embryo, the cardiovascular system is the first organ system to develop and function. The formation of blood vessels and blood begins in the third week, and the heart is fully developed by the fifth week.
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most drugs have three different kinds of names. which of them belongs to a specific manufacturer? -chemical name -generic name -brand name -research name
The name of drug that specifically belong to manufacturer out of chemical name, generic name , brand name and research name is a brand name.
A pharmaceutical product that is marketed by a pharmaceutical business and is covered by a patent. Brand-name medications may be bought over the counter or with a prescription.
A generic drug has the same active component as a brand-name drug, is administered similarly, and has a comparable effect.
When a new chemical entity (NCE) is created, a chemical name is assigned. The medicine is hardly ever identified by its chemical name in clinical or commercial contexts because it is a scientific name based on the chemical structure of the substance (6-thioguanine, for example).
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which adult client should a nurse identify as exhibiting the characteristics of a dependant personality disorder
A physically healthy client who lives with parents and relies on public transportation.
A type of anxious personality disorder is dependent personality disorder (DPD). People suffering from DPD frequently feel helpless, submissive, or incapable of caring for themselves. They may struggle to make simple decisions. Someone with a dependent personality, on the other hand, can learn self-confidence and self-reliance with assistance.
Personality disorders, depression, or anxiety run in families. Surviving childhood abuse, such as suffocating parenting, withdrawing parenting, or having parents who punished independent thought. Being afflicted with a chronic physical illness as a child. The primary method of treatment for DPD is psychotherapy (a type of counseling). The goal of therapy is to assist the person with DPD in becoming more active and independent, as well as to learn how to form healthy relationships.
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5 Connect HW 0 Saved Match the potential outcome with the associated nutrient deficiency. lodine Deficiency Iron Deficiency Eye abnormalities and Impaired vision Decreased bone density Osteomalacia Calcium Deficiency Vitamin A Deficiency Neural tube detects Anemia Nickets Vitamin D Deficiency Folate Deficiency Crotnom Reset
The correct match would be:
rickets: Vitamin D; Anemia: Iron deficiency; Osteomalacia: Iodine deficiency; Eye abnormalities: Vitamin A deficiency; Decreased bon density: calcium deficiency; Neural tube abnormality: folate deficiency.
A long-term shortage of a vitamin causes the illness known as vitamin deficiency. A primary deficit is one brought on by insufficient vitamin consumption; a secondary deficiency is one brought on by an underlying condition, such as malabsorption.
The vitamins are known to be cofactors in various catabolic and anabolic reaction. In addition during development they play crucial role, thus, due to there deficiency, various developmental as well as acquired diseases emerge. These deficiencies can in turn prove fatal as well, if timely restoration of vitamins doesn't occur.
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Which medication is given to clients who are diagnosed with angina but are allergic to aspirin?
a. Amlodipine
b. Diltiazem
c. Clopidogrel
d. Felodipine
Answer: Clopidogrel
Explanation:
which health professional uses rehabilitative exercises, reconditioning, and physical education to treat patients who have problems moving in any way?
The health professionals who utilize rehabilitative exercises, reconditioning, and physical education in treating their patients are called kinesiotherapists.
Kinesiotherapy, also referred to as a movement therapy is a form of medical therapy in a form of rehabilitative exercises, reconditioning, and physical education that helps with recovery from various injuries or muscular diseases via exercises and and massages. The medical experts who specialize in the field of kinesiotherapy are called kinesiotherapists and their patients varies from athletes, seniors, as well as people recovering from injuries as a result from previous accidents who may have not yet be able to regain their full mobility, strength, and flexibility.
The reconditioning sessions may occur over a period of time and may include repetitive stretching, or lifting, and many other repetitive movements and motions in the targeted muscle area along with other physical education over a few different sessions until the patients regain full mobility and functions of their muscles.
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when teaching a client about digoxin which symptom will the nurse include as a reason to withhold digoxin
Blurred vision is included by the nurse as a reason to withhold digoxin.
Visual aggravations, like blurred or yellow vision, might be proof of digoxin toxicity. Chest torment is certainly not a harmful impact of digoxin. Relentless hiccups are not connected with digoxin toxicity. An expanded urinary result is definitely not an indication of digoxin toxicity; it very well might be an indication of a restorative reaction to the medication and a superior cardiovascular result.
Blurred vision can influence your whole view or simply aspects of your vision. This could incorporate your fringe vision, or how you see to the right or left of your field of vision. You can likewise encounter blurred vision in only one eye.
There can be many reasons for blurred vision. Instances of normal causes are:
refractive blunders, like partial blindness, far-sightedness, or astigmatismscraped spots to the corneaage-related macular degenerationwaterfallscorneal opacification, or scarringirresistible retinitisheadacheoptic neuritisretinopathy, like diabetic retinopathystrokeinjury or injury to the eyesto know more about cornea click here:
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A patient weighing 5,000 g is prescribed Rocephin. The recommended dose for this medication is 50 to 100 mg/kg/day in two equally divided doses. Which is the recommended range of mg of medication for this patient each day?
The recommended range of mg of medication for this patient each day would be 250 mg to 500 mg.
What is Rocephin?
Rocephin is an antibiotic injection that is used to treat bacterial infections. It is a combination of ceftriaxone, a cephalosporin antibiotic, and a solvent called lidocaine. It is typically used to treat infections of the skin, urinary tract, and respiratory system.
What are Antibiotic injections?
Antibiotic injections are injections of antibiotics that are given directly into a person's body. They are typically used to treat severe bacterial infections, such as sepsis, urinary tract infections, pneumonia, and some skin infections. Antibiotic injections are usually given intravenously (into a vein) or intramuscularly (into a muscle).
What are Bacterial infections?
Bacterial infections are caused by bacteria, which are microscopic single-celled organisms that can cause a variety of illnesses ranging from mild to life-threatening. Antibiotics can be used to treat bacterial infections. Examples of bacterial infections include strep throat, urinary tract infections, and pneumonia.
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