An air-conditioning system located in a town somewhere in the Northern Cape consists of an evaporative cooler and a heater. Air enters the evaporator at 28°C, 30% RH and at a rate of 0.5-m³ per second. If the room has a sensible loss of 1.78-kW, and is to be maintained at 23°C and 60% RH, and assuming the atmospheric pressure to be 101.325-kPa, calculate: 3.1 The efficiency of the evaporative cooler. Calculate the efficiency by means of humidity ratios you had calculated. (9) 3.2 The temperature of the air entering the heater. Read this value from your psychrometric chart after you had drawn the cooling process on the chart. (1) 3.3 The total load on the heater. No enthalpy calculations may be used for this question. (8) 3.4 The temperature of the air exiting the heater. No enthalpy calculations may be used for this question. (3)

Answers

Answer 1

The efficiency of the evaporative cooler The efficiency of the evaporative cooler can be calculated using the formula:

The cooling effect refers to the amount of heat removed from the air. It can be calculated using the formula:

The efficiency is greater than 100% because the energy input does not take into account the energy required to evaporate the water, which is supplied by the ambient air. Therefore, the evaporative cooler is a naturally occurring cooling process that relies on the principles of thermodynamics.

The temperature of the air entering the heater The temperature of the air entering the heater can be determined by plotting the cooling process on a psychrometric chart.

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Related Questions

A 3.4-kg block is attached to a horizontal ideal spring with a spring constant of 241 N/m. When at its equilibrium length, the block attached to the spring is moving at 4.7 m/s. The maximum amount that the spring can stretch is m. Round your answer to the nearest hundredth.

Answers

The maximum amount that the spring can stretch is approximately 0.18 meters, as determined using the principle of conservation of mechanical energy.

The maximum amount that the spring can stretch can be determined using the principle of conservation of mechanical energy.

First, let's calculate the initial mechanical energy of the block-spring system. The initial mechanical energy is equal to the sum of the kinetic energy and potential energy.

The kinetic energy of the block is given by the formula: KE = (1/2)mv², where m is the mass of the block and v is its velocity. Plugging in the given values, we have KE = (1/2)(3.4 kg)(4.7 m/s)².

Next, the potential energy of the spring is given by the formula: PE = (1/2)kx², where k is the spring constant and x is the displacement of the block from its equilibrium position. Since the block is at its equilibrium length, the potential energy is zero.

Therefore, the initial mechanical energy is equal to the kinetic energy: E_initial = KE = (1/2)(3.4 kg)(4.7 m/s)².

Now, let's calculate the maximum amount that the spring can stretch. At the maximum stretch, all the initial mechanical energy is converted into potential energy of the spring.

Using the principle of conservation of mechanical energy, we can equate the initial mechanical energy to the potential energy at maximum stretch: E_initial = (1/2)kx².

Rearranging the equation, we can solve for x: x = √((2E_initial)/k).

Plugging in the given values, we have x = √((2[(1/2)(3.4 kg)(4.7 m/s)²])/241 N/m).

Simplifying the equation gives x = √(0.03376 m²) = 0.18 m (rounded to the nearest hundredth).

Therefore, the maximum amount that the spring can stretch is approximately 0.18 meters.

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Real mechanical systems may involve the deflection of nonlinear springs. As shown in Figure 1, a mass \( \boldsymbol{m} \) is released a distance \( \boldsymbol{h} \) above a nonlinear spring. \( \bol

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When mechanical systems may involve the deflection of nonlinear springs, it is difficult to calculate the displacement of a mass above a nonlinear spring because of the spring's nonlinear properties. Deflection of a spring with nonlinear properties changes as the applied force increases.

When the deflection of the spring is calculated, the force required to produce that deflection must also be calculated. It is not possible to calculate the deflection of a nonlinear spring without knowing the force required to produce that deflection. The deflection of the spring depends on the force applied to it, and the force applied to the spring depends on the deflection of the spring.

Nonlinear springs have a nonlinear spring constant. When a force is applied to the spring, the spring deflects in a nonlinear manner. In the case of a nonlinear spring, the force required to deflect the spring is not proportional to the deflection of the spring. In other words, a nonlinear spring does not obey Hooke's law. The deflection of a nonlinear spring is calculated using the force-deflection curve of the spring. The force-deflection curve is a graph of the force required to produce a certain deflection of the spring. The force-deflection curve is not a straight line but is curved.

When a mass is released above a nonlinear spring, the mass applies a force to the spring, which causes it to deflect. The deflection of the spring depends on the force applied to it. As the mass falls, the force applied to the spring increases, and the deflection of the spring increases. The force applied to the spring is not constant, and the deflection of the spring is not constant. Therefore, it is difficult to calculate the displacement of the mass above the nonlinear spring.

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The total current density in a semiconductor is constant and equal to ]=-10 A/cm². The total current is composed of a hole drift current density and electron diffusion current. Assume that the hole concentration is a constant and equal to 10¹6 cm-3 and the electron concentration is given by n(x) = 2 x 10¹5 ex/ cm³ where L = 15 µm. Given n = 1080 cm²/(V-s) and Hp = 420 cm²/(V-s). Assume the thermal equilibrium is not hold.
Find (a) the electron diffusion current density for x > 0; (b) the hole drift current density for x > 0, and (c) the required electric field for x > 0.

Answers

The required electric field is

[tex]E(x) = \frac{dV}{dx}

             = \frac{-10+8.186\times10^{-6} e^{\frac{2x}{L}}}{1.764\times10^{12}} V/cm[/tex]

(a) Electron Diffusion Current Density

The formula for the electron diffusion current density is given by;

[tex]Jn(x) = - qn(x)\frac{dp}{dx}[/tex]

Where, q is the charge of an electron, n(x) is the electron concentration, and dp/dx is the concentration gradient.

Given that;

n(x) = 2 x 10¹5 ex/ cm³

L = 15 µm

  = 0.015 cmn

   = 1080 cm²/(V-s)[tex]\begin{aligned}\frac{dn(x)}{dx} &

    = \frac{d}{dx}(2\times10^{15}e^{\frac{x}{L}}) \\&

    = 2\times10^{15}\frac{d}{dx}(e^{\frac{x}{L}}) \\&

    = 2\times10^{15}\frac{1}{L}(e^{\frac{x}{L}})\end{aligned}[/tex][tex]\begin{aligned}Jn(x) &

    = - qn(x)\frac{dp}{dx} \\&

     = -q n(x) \frac{d(n(x))}{dx} \\&

     = -q(2\times10^{15}e^{\frac{x}{L}})(2\times10^{15}\frac{1}{L})(e^{\frac{x}{L}}) \\&

     = -q\frac{4\times10^{30}}{L}e^{\frac{2x}{L}} \end{aligned}[/tex]

The electron diffusion current density is

[tex]Jn(x) = - 8.186\times10^{-6} e^{\frac{2x}{L}} A/cm²[/tex]

(b) Hole Drift Current Density

The hole drift current density is given by the equation;

[tex]Jp(x) = qp(x)\mu_pE(x)[/tex]

Where, p(x) is the hole concentration, µp is the hole mobility, E(x) is the electric field.

Given that;

p(x) = 10¹6 cm-3µp

       = 420 cm²/(V-s)[tex]\begin{aligned}Jp(x) &

       = qp(x)\mu_pE(x) \\&

       = q(10^{16})(420)\frac{dV}{dx} \end{aligned}[/tex]

The hole drift current density is

[tex]Jp(x) = 1.764\times10^{12}\frac{dV}{dx} A/cm²[/tex]

(c) Electric FieldThe total current density is the sum of the electron diffusion current density and the hole drift current density, so;

[tex]J(x) = Jn(x) + Jp(x)

             = - 8.186\times10^{-6} e^{\frac{2x}{L}} + 1.764\times10^{12}\frac{dV}{dx}[/tex]

The total current density is constant and equal to -10 A/cm², hence;

[tex]-10 = - 8.186\times10^{-6} e^{\frac{2x}{L}} + 1.764\times10^{12}\frac{dV}{dx}[/tex]

Solving for dV/dx, we have;

[tex]\frac{dV}{dx} = \frac{-10+8.186\times10^{-6} e^{\frac{2x}{L}}}{1.764\times10^{12}}[/tex]

The required electric field is

[tex]E(x) = \frac{dV}{dx}

             = \frac{-10+8.186\times10^{-6} e^{\frac{2x}{L}}}{1.764\times10^{12}} V/cm[/tex]

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To test driver reaction times a remotely controlled device which fires a paint pellet onto the road is mounted on the car's rear bumper. When the driver hears the device fire, he immediately depresses the brake pedal, causing the device to fire a second time. By measuring the distance between marks and adjusting for the known speed of the vehicle, the driver's reaction time can be measured. A driver is tested at 30 km/h and 60 km/h. The distance between paint marks is 4.5 m at 30 km/h and 9.0 m at 60 km/h. How do the driver's reaction times compare at 30 and 60 km/h ? A. At 60 km/h his reaction time was twice as fast. B. His reaction time was unchanged. C. At 30 km/h his reaction time was twice as fast. D. At 30 km/h his reaction time was twice as slow.

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The driver's reaction time was the same at both speeds. The correct answer is option B; his reaction time was unchanged. To measure driver's reaction time at different speeds, a remotely controlled device which fires a paint pellet onto the road is mounted on the car's rear bumper.

To measure driver's reaction time at different speeds, a remotely controlled device which fires a paint pellet onto the road is mounted on the car's rear bumper. When the driver hears the device fire, he immediately depresses the brake pedal, causing the device to fire a second time. By measuring the distance between marks and adjusting for the known speed of the vehicle, the driver's reaction time can be measured. Let's compare the driver's reaction times at 30 and 60 km/h given that the distance between paint marks is 4.5 m at 30 km/h and 9.0 m at 60 km/h.

At 30 km/h, the distance between paint marks is 4.5 m. Using the formula for speed, distance is given by;

distance = speed x time

4.5 = 30 x time

Time, t = 4.5/30 = 0.15 seconds

At 60 km/h, the distance between paint marks is 9.0 m.

Using the formula for speed, distance is given by;

distance = speed x time

9.0 = 60 x time

Time, t = 9.0/60 = 0.15 seconds

Therefore, the driver's reaction time was the same at both speeds. The correct answer is option B; his reaction time was unchanged.

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What is the average angular speed of the Earth in radians per second as it (i) orbits the Sun? (ii) rotates about its own axis? The radius of the Earth is 6400 km. (iii) At what speed is someone on the equator travelling relative to the centre of the Earth? (iv) Hamid lives in Pabna in Bangladesh; the latitude there is 24 ∘
N. At what speed does he travel relative to the centre of the Earth? Give your answer in kmh −1
to the nearest 10kmh −1
. (i) 1.99×10 −7
rads −1
(ii) 7.27×10 −5
rads −1
(iii) 465 m s −1
(iv) 1530kmh −1

Answers

The average angular speed of the Earth in radians per second as it (i) orbits the Sun is 1.99×10^(-7) radians per second. This is because the Earth takes approximately 365.25 days to complete one orbit around the Sun. Since there are 2π radians in a complete circle, we can calculate the average angular speed by dividing 2π by the number of seconds in a year (365.25 days * 24 hours * 60 minutes * 60 seconds).

(ii) The average angular speed of the Earth as it rotates about its own axis is 7.27×10^(-5) radians per second. This is because the Earth takes approximately 24 hours to complete one rotation. Again, we divide 2π by the number of seconds in a day (24 hours * 60 minutes * 60 seconds) to calculate the average angular speed.

(iii) Someone on the equator is traveling at a speed of 465 m/s relative to the center of the Earth. This is because the circumference of the Earth at the equator is approximately 40,075 km. To convert this to meters, we multiply by 1000. The speed is then calculated by dividing the circumference by the number of seconds in a day (24 hours * 60 minutes * 60 seconds).

(iv) Hamid, living in Pabna in Bangladesh at a latitude of 24° N, is traveling at a speed of 1530 km/h relative to the center of the Earth. This is because the speed at any latitude can be calculated by multiplying the speed at the equator by the cosine of the latitude. Using the speed at the equator calculated in part (iii), and the cosine of 24°, we can find the speed at Hamid's latitude.

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Designed for use in Turkey, the 50kW synchronous generator has a synchronous speed of 600 revolutions per minute. This generator will be to exported the United States, where power lines operate at 60 hertz. (a) What is the current pole count of the synchronous generator? (b) How many poles must the generator have to operate at the same synchronous speed in the United States?

Answers

 Therefore, the generator must have 12 poles to operate at the same synchronous speed in the United States.(a) Current pole count of the synchronous generator is 10 Pole(b) Number of poles that the generator must have to operate at the same synchronous speed in the United States are 12 poles.

Explanation:The formula to calculate synchronous speed is given by;f = P × NSwhere,

f = Supply Frequency

P = Number of Poles

NS = Synchronous SpeedGiven that the synchronous generator has a synchronous speed of 600 revolutions per minute and the power lines in the United States operate at 60 hertz. Now,We know that supply frequency in the US is 60 HzSo, the synchronous speed of the generator a

t 60Hz = 120*60/2

= 3600 RPM(a) What is the current pole count of the synchronous generator?At 50Hz, the synchronous speed of the generator = 600 RPM,Therefore,

f = P * NSSo, the pole count

P = f/NS

= 50/600

= 1/12Then pole count

P = 1/frequency × NS= 1/50 × 600

= 12 polesTherefore, the current pole count of the synchronous generator is 10 Pole.(b)  

In the United States, the power line operates at a frequency of 60 Hz. Therefore, the synchronous speed of the generator at 60 Hz can be calculated as;f = P × NS60

= P * 600NS

= 600/PNow, as per the above equation, the generator will have to have fewer poles so that the synchronous speed remains constant. Therefore, the generator must have 12 poles to operate at the same synchronous speed in the United States.

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Measured values: Object distance do = 62 cm 320 cm image distance di = 1/62+1/320=1/1 f= 51.94 cm Calculated value: focal length f= 51 cm Comment on how well your measure and calculated values off agree. I think my measure and calcualtion, boyth are quite similar D. MAGNIFICATION You should have observed above that the size of the image changes depending on the position of the object. The magnification of the image is defined as the ratio of the image size to the object size, but it is also related to the image and object distances by: M=d/d. (2) Dan AE Using the equations (1) and (2), show that the image will be the same size as the object when de = di (.e. just substitute do = d). Then show that this occurs when do = di = 2f Is this conclusion confirmed by the simulation when do = di = 2f?

Answers

This occurs when du = dv = 2f. We know that the formula for finding the focal length(f) of a lens is given as: 1/f = 1/du + 1/dv. When du = dv = 2f, the above formula becomes,1/f = 1/2f + 1/2f => 1/f = 1/f => f = f Conclusion: Yes, this conclusion is confirmed by the simulation when du = dv = 2f.

Given, Measured values: Object distance(u) du = 62 cm. Image distance(v) dv = 1/62 + 1/320 = 1/1  f = 51.94 cm. Calculated value:  f = 51 cm. Comment on how well your measure and calculated values of agree : It is observed that both the measured and calculated values of the focal length agree with each other. Hence, they both are quite similar. Dan AE Using the equations (1) and (2), show that the image will be the same size as the object when du = dv, i.e. just substitute du = d. Then, we need to substitute du = d in equation (2). M = d/du. The magnification(M) will be 1 if the image and object are of the same size.

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You look into a mirror that has a radius of curvature magnitude of 84.0 cm. Depending on where you're standing, when you look in this mirror you sometimes see an upright image of yourself and sometimes see an inverted image. Is this mirror plane, concave, or convex? How do you know this? What is its focal length?

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The mirror is a concave mirror with a focal length of 42.0 cm.

The mirror is a concave mirror. This is due to the radius of curvature magnitude being positive. The focal length of the mirror can be found from the mirror equation, which is given as:

1/f = 1/p + 1/q

where f is the focal length, p is the object distance, and q is the image distance.In order to find the focal length, we need to know the object and image distances. From the given information, we know that the image can be either upright or inverted depending on where the observer is standing. This tells us that the object is located somewhere between the mirror and its focal point.

Therefore, we know that p is less than f.

Using the given radius of curvature, we can find the mirror's focal length as:

f = R/2

= 84.0 cm/2

= 42.0 cm

Therefore, the mirror is a concave mirror with a focal length of 42.0 cm.

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Calculate the deflection of a particle thrown up to reach a maximum height zo, and that of a particle dropped from rest from the same height, due to the Coriolis force. For simplicity, you can assume that the particle was thrown straight up from the equator.

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To calculate the deflection of a particle thrown up to reach a maximum height (zo) and that of a particle dropped from rest from the same height due to the Coriolis force, we need to consider the Coriolis effect.

The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the velocity of a moving object in a rotating reference frame. In this case, since the particle is thrown straight up from the equator, we are considering the Earth's rotation.

Let's assume the particle is thrown with an initial velocity (v0) straight up from the equator. The Coriolis force will act perpendicular to the velocity and to the Earth's rotation axis. The magnitude of the Coriolis force (Fc) can be given by:

Fc = 2mωv

where m is the mass of the particle, ω is the angular velocity of the Earth's rotation, and v is the velocity of the particle.

When the particle is thrown up, the Coriolis force will act to the east (in the Northern Hemisphere) or to the west (in the Southern Hemisphere), causing a deflection in the horizontal direction.

The deflection caused by the Coriolis force can be determined by integrating the Coriolis force over the time of flight of the particle.

For a particle thrown up, at the maximum height (zo), the vertical velocity (vz) will be zero. At this point, the only force acting on the particle is gravity, and there is no horizontal deflection due to the Coriolis force.

For a particle dropped from rest from the same height, the initial velocity (v0) is zero. As the particle falls, the Coriolis force will act to deflect it horizontally. The deflection can be calculated by integrating the Coriolis force over the time of flight from the maximum height (zo) to the ground.

It's important to note that the deflection due to the Coriolis force is generally small compared to other forces acting on objects in everyday scenarios. The Coriolis effect is more significant over large distances or long periods of time, such as in atmospheric or oceanic circulations.

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Listed following are locations and times at which different phases of the Moon are visible from Earth's Northern Hemisphere. Match these to the appropriate moon phase.
1. occurs 14 days after the new moon waning crescent moon
2. visible near eastern horson just before Sunrise
3. rises at about the time the Sun sets
4. sets 2-3 hours after the Sunsets
5. visible near western horizon about an hour after sunset
6. occurs about 3 days before new moon
7. visible due south at midnight

a. waxing crescent moon
b. waning crescent moon
c. full moon

Answers

a. Waxing crescent moon - visible near eastern horizon just before Sunrise

b. Waning crescent moon - occurs 14 days after the new moon

c. Full moon - rises at about the time the Sun sets

a. Waxing gibbous moon - sets 2-3 hours after the Sunsets

b. Waxing gibbous moon - visible near western horizon about an hour after sunset

c. Third quarter moon - visible due south at midnight.

Listed following are locations and times at which different phases of the Moon are visible from Earth's Northern Hemisphere.

Match these to the appropriate moon phase.

1. occurs 14 days after the new moon - waning crescent moon

2. visible near eastern horizon just before Sunrise - waxing crescent moon

3. rises at about the time the Sun sets - full moon

4. sets 2-3 hours after the Sun sets - waxing gibbous moon

5. visible near western horizon about an hour after sunset - waxing gibbous moon

6. occurs about 3 days before new moon - waning crescent moon

7. visible due south at midnight - third quarter moon

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Mr thupudi traveled in his car 5hours from Johannesburg to durban at an average speed of 120km/h how long will it take Mr thupudi to travel from Johannesburg to durban if the car travels at an average speed of 100km/h

Answers

Mr. Thupudi traveled a distance of 600 km from Johannesburg to Durban at a speed of 120 km/h.

Mr. Thupudi will take 6 hours to travel from Johannesburg to Durban at an average speed of 100 km/h.

Mr. Thupudi traveled in his car for 5 hours from Johannesburg to Durban at an average speed of 120km/h.

To calculate the time, he would take if his car traveled at an average speed of 100 km/h from Johannesburg to Durban, we can use the formula: time = distance/speed

Given data: Time taken at a speed of 120 km/h = 5 hours Speed for the second time = 100 km/h

To calculate the distance covered, we can use: distance = speed × time

Using the first data, the distance covered when driving at 120 km/h: distance = speed × time

distance = 120 km/h × 5 hours

distance = 600 km

Therefore, Mr. Thupudi traveled a distance of 600 km from Johannesburg to Durban at a speed of 120 km/h.

To calculate the time he would take to travel from Johannesburg to Durban at an average speed of 100 km/h: time = distance/speed

time = 600 km/100 km/h

time = 6 hours

Therefore, Mr. Thupudi will take 6 hours to travel from Johannesburg to Durban at an average speed of 100 km/h.

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A glass box has an area of 0.95 m^2 and a thickness of 0.010 meters. The box inside is at a temperature of 10 °C. Calculate the heat flow rate to the inside of the box if the outside temperature is 30 ° C. (note: answer in Joules)

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the heat flow rate to the inside of the glass box is 190 joules per second (J/s).

To calculate the heat flow rate to the inside of the glass box, we can use the formula for heat transfer through a material:

Q = k * A * ΔT / d,

where:

Q is the heat flow rate,

k is the thermal conductivity of the material,

A is the area through which heat is transferred,

ΔT is the temperature difference across the material, and

d is the thickness of the material.

In this case, we are given:

A = 0.95 m^2 (area of the glass box)

ΔT = (30 °C - 10 °C) = 20 °C (temperature difference)

d = 0.010 meters (thickness of the glass box)

We need to determine the thermal conductivity, k, of the glass material. The thermal conductivity depends on the specific type of glass being used. Let's assume a typical value for ordinary glass, which is around 1 W/(m*K) (Watt per meter per Kelvin).

Substituting the values into the formula, we get:

Q = (1 W/(m*K)) * (0.95 [tex]m^2[/tex]) * (20 °C) / (0.010 m)

  = 190 W

Since the heat flow rate is given in watts, the answer is 190 joules per second (J/s) or 190 watts (W).

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1. 2. When preparing wiring diagrams for a bedroom circuit using the method presented in your reading material, the first step is to a. b. C. d. Volts X Amperes X Power Factor = a. b. d. draw the traveler conductors for any three-way switches draw a line between each switch and the outlet it controls draw a line from the grounded terminal on the lighting panel to each outlet make a cable layout of all lighting and receptacle outlets Overcurrent Ohms Milliamperes Watts

Answers

The correct option when preparing wiring diagrams for a bedroom circuit using the method presented in the reading material is to "make a cable layout of all lighting and receptacle outlets."

While preparing a wiring diagram for a bedroom circuit, the first step is to make a cable layout of all lighting and receptacle outlets. Making a cable layout of all outlets will help in planning the exact location of all the electrical devices and lighting. A floor plan and a site plan are helpful tools to help make an accurate layout for the circuit. After making the cable layout, the next step is to draw a line between each switch and the outlet it controls.

This will provide an idea of how the devices are connected with each other. Traveler conductors are only drawn for three-way switches. Finally, draw a line from the grounded terminal on the lighting panel to each outlet. The cable layout also helps to identify overcurrent, ohms, milliamperes, and watts needed for the circuit.

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The most common isotope of uranium, 238U, is an a-emitter with a half-life of 4.47 billion years. What mass of uranium would have the same activity as that of one gram of radium (1 curie)?

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The mass of uranium which has the same activity as that of 1g of Radium is 2.568 x 10¹³ g or 2.568 x 10¹⁰ kg.  Relationship between activity (A), decay constant (λ) and number of nuclei (N) of a radioactive sample is given by: A = λN

The relationship between activity (A), decay constant (λ) and number of nuclei (N) of a radioactive sample is given by: A = λN ....(1)

λ = 0.693 / T½....(2)

where, T½ = half-life of the isotope.

Substituting the value of λ in eq (1), we get, A = (0.693 / T½) N ....(3)

where, A is activity of the sample in becquerel (Bq).

The number of radioactive nuclei, N, can be calculated as: N = m / M ....(4)

where, m is the mass of the sample in gram and M is the molar mass of the sample.

Substituting eq (4) in eq (3), we get: A = (0.693 / T½) * (m / M) ....(5)

Rearranging, we get, m = (A * M * T½) / (0.693 * 2.303) ....(6)

The molar mass of Radium, Ra = 226 g/mol

The molar mass of Uranium, U = 238 g/mol

From eq (5),A (Uranium) = A (Radium)

m₂ = (A * M * T½) / (0.693 * 2.303)....(6)

m₂ = (1 * 238 * 4.47 x 10⁹) / (0.693 * 2.303)....(7)

m₂ = 2.568 x 10¹³ g or 2.568 x 10¹⁰ kg

Thus, the mass of uranium which has the same activity as that of 1g of Radium is 2.568 x 10¹³ g or 2.568 x 10¹⁰ kg.

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The armature and field resistance of a DC shunt generator is 0.05 Ω and 40 Ω respectively. It delivers 185 A at rated voltage of 240 V. The friction and iron losses are 450 W and 750 W respectively. Find (a) emf generated (b) copper losses (c) output of the prime-mover (d) commercial, mechanical and electrical efficiencies.

Answers

(a) The emf generated is 249.25 V.

(b) The copper losses are 3422.5 W.

(c) The output of the prime-mover is 43400 W.

(d) The commercial, mechanical, and electrical efficiencies are all 97.74%.

(a) Calculating EMF:

EMF = Rated voltage + Armature current * Armature resistance

EMF = 240 V + 185 A * 0.05 Ω

EMF = 240 V + 9.25 V

EMF = 249.25 V

(b) Calculating copper losses:

Copper losses = Armature current^2 * Armature resistance

Copper losses = 185 A^2 * 0.05 Ω

Copper losses = 3422.5 W

(c) Calculating output of the prime-mover:

Output of prime-mover = Rated voltage * Armature current - Friction losses - Iron losses

Output of prime-mover = 240 V * 185 A - 450 W - 750 W

Output of prime-mover = 44400 W - 450 W - 750 W

Output of prime-mover = 43400 W

(d) Calculating efficiencies:

Input power = Rated voltage * Armature current

Input power = 240 V * 185 A

Input power = 44400 W

Commercial efficiency = (Output power / Input power) * 100%

Commercial efficiency = (43400 W / 44400 W) * 100%

Commercial efficiency = 97.74%

Mechanical efficiency = (Output power / Input power) * 100%

Mechanical efficiency = (43400 W / 44400 W) * 100%

Mechanical efficiency = 97.74%

Electrical efficiency = (Output power / Input power) * 100%

Electrical efficiency = (43400 W / 44400 W) * 100%

Electrical efficiency = 97.74%

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A 64 kg solid sphere with a 14 cm radius is suspended by a vertical wire. A torque of 0.64 N·m is required to rotate the sphere through an angle of 0.52 rad and then maintain that orientation. What is the period of the oscillations that result when the sphere is then released?

Answers

Thus, the period of the oscillations that result when the sphere is then released is 1.5 s.

The period of the oscillations that result when the sphere is then released is 1.5 s.

The equation for the period of oscillations of a pendulum or sphere is:

T = 2π √(I / mgd)

Where T is the period,

I is the moment of inertia,

m is the mass of the object,

g is the acceleration due to gravity,

and d is the distance from the center of mass to the axis of rotation.

The formula is applicable for small angles of rotation.
Torque is given by τ = Iα

where τ is the torque,

I is the moment of inertia,

and α is the angular acceleration.

From this expression, we can determine the moment of inertia of the sphere as follows:

I = τ / α

= 0.64 Nm / (0.52 rad / s²)I

= 1.231 kg m²

Now we can apply the formula for the period of oscillations:

T = 2π √(I / mgd)

We know the mass of the sphere is 64 kg, the radius is 14 cm, which is 0.14 m, and the distance from the center of mass to the axis of rotation is equal to the radius, or 0.14 m.

The acceleration due to gravity is

9.8 m/s².T

= 2π √(1.231 / (64 x 9.8 x 0.14))T

= 1.5 s

Thus, the period of the oscillations that result when the sphere is then released is 1.5 s.

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Flow switches are used to detect the movement of air, but not liquid, through a duct or pipe.

Answers

Flow switches are devices specifically designed to detect the movement of air or other gases through a duct or pipe. They are typically used in HVAC systems, industrial processes, and ventilation systems to monitor airflow and ensure proper operation.

Flow switches work on the principle of differential pressure. They consist of a sensing element, such as a paddle or vane, that is placed in the airflow path. When there is sufficient air movement, the flow exerts a force on the sensing element, causing it to move or rotate. This motion is then detected by a switch mechanism inside the device, which changes the electrical state of the switch contacts.
The key feature of flow switches is their ability to distinguish between the flow of air and the flow of liquid. This is achieved through the design and configuration of the sensing element. The sensing element is specifically designed to be sensitive to the low-density and low-viscosity characteristics of air, while being less responsive to the denser and more viscous nature of liquids.
By utilizing this design, flow switches can accurately detect and monitor the movement of air while disregarding liquid flow. This feature is important in applications where it is necessary to differentiate between the two, such as preventing false alarms or protecting equipment from damage caused by liquid flow.
Overall, flow switches provide a reliable and efficient method for detecting the movement of air in ducts and pipes, offering valuable control and monitoring capabilities in various industrial and HVAC applications.

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Use the worked example above to help you solve this problem. In an effort to be the star of the half-time show, a majorette twirls an unusual baton made up of four spheres fastened to the end of very light rods (see figure). Each rod is 1.20 m long.

(a) Find the moment of inertia of the baton about an axis perpendicular to the page and passing through the point where the rods cross.

(b) The majorette tries spinning her strange baton about the axis OO', as shown in the figure. Calculate the moment of inertia of the baton about this axis.

Answers

The distance from the point where the rods cross to the center of each sphere is L = 0.6 m. Since the axis OO' passes through the center of each sphere, the distance from the point where the rods cross to the axis OO' is d = 0.6 m. Therefore,I = 0.449 kg.m² + (4)(0.6 m)²(2.4 kg) = 4.343 kg.m².The moment of inertia of the baton about the axis OO' is 4.343 kg.m².

(a) Moment of inertia of the baton about an axis perpendicular to the page and passing through the point where the rods cross can be calculated as follows.The distance of the spheres from the point of intersection of the rods is L

= 1.20m / 2

= 0.6m .The moment of inertia of a sphere around a diameter is I

= (2/5) mr² where m is the mass of the sphere and r is the radius. Let M be the mass of each sphere and R the radius of each sphere. Let the mass of each rod be negligible and let the rods be of equal length L. Hence, the total moment of inertia of the baton isI

= 2(2/5) M R² + 2ML²where2M

= 0.6 kg(4)

= 2.4 kg, and M R²

= (1/2)(0.18 m)²(0.6 kg)

= 0.00972 kg.m² (two of them).2ML²

= 2(0.6 kg)(0.6 m)²

= 0.432 kg.m²Therefore, I

= 0.0172 + 0.432

= 0.449 kg.m²(b) For finding the moment of inertia of the baton about the axis OO', the axis is parallel to the axis passing through the point where the rods cross. Therefore, the parallel axis theorem states that I

= I' + Md²where M is the mass of the baton, I' is the moment of inertia of the baton about the axis passing through the point where the rods cross, and d is the distance between the two parallel axes.We have calculated the value of I' in part (a).The distance between the two parallel axes is equal to the distance between the point where the rods cross and the axis OO'. The distance from the point where the rods cross to the center of each sphere is L

= 0.6 m. Since the axis OO' passes through the center of each sphere, the distance from the point where the rods cross to the axis OO' is d

= 0.6 m. Therefore,I

= 0.449 kg.m² + (4)(0.6 m)²(2.4 kg)

= 4.343 kg.m².The moment of inertia of the baton about the axis OO' is 4.343 kg.m².

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SMO ANO Wallachination design occurs whenig kesa surface at a wide angle and it provides even lighting on a vertical space, Increase Luminances of wall surfaces and extend the space.

a. True
b. False

Answers

The statement "SMO ANO Wallachination design occurs when kesa surface at a wide angle and it provides even lighting on a vertical space, Increase Luminances of wall surfaces and extend the space." is False

Wallwashers are lighting fixtures designed to evenly illuminate vertical surfaces, such as walls, with a wide-angle beam of light. The purpose of wallwashing is to enhance the appearance of the wall, increase the perceived brightness of the space, and create a sense of openness and depth.

Wallwashing does not extend the physical space but rather enhances the visual perception of the space. It can make a room or area appear larger and more inviting by providing uniform lighting on vertical surfaces and reducing shadows.

So, the correct answer is b. False. Wallwashing does not extend the space but enhances the lighting and visual perception of the space.

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A planet of mass m=3.15×10²⁴ kg is orbiting in a circular path a star of mass M=2.55×10²⁹ kg. The radius of the orbit is R=2.95×10⁷ km What is the orbital period (in Earth days) of the planet Pplanet ?
Express your answer to three significant figures.

Answers

The orbital period of the planet is approximately 29.3 Earth days, based on Kepler's Third Law and given the masses of the planet and star, and the radius of the orbit.

To calculate the orbital period of the planet, we can use Kepler's Third Law, which states that the square of the orbital period (T) of a planet is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit.

The formula for Kepler's Third Law is:

T^2 = (4π^2 / GM) * R^3

Where:

T is the orbital period of the planet (what we want to find)

G is the gravitational constant (approximately 6.67430 × 10^-11 m^3 kg^-1 s^-2)

M is the mass of the star

R is the radius of the orbit

Given:

Mass of the planet (m) = 3.15 × 10^24 kg

Mass of the star (M) = 2.55 × 10^29 kg

Radius of the orbit (R) = 2.95 × 10^7 km

First, we need to convert the radius from kilometers to meters:

R = 2.95 × 10^7 km = 2.95 × 10^10 m

Now we can substitute the values into the formula and solve for T:

T^2 = (4π^2 / GM) * R^3

T^2 = (4π^2 / ((6.67430 × 10^-11) * (2.55 × 10^29))) * (2.95 × 10^10)^3

Simplifying the expression and solving for T:

T = √[((4π^2) * (2.95 × 10^10)^3) / ((6.67430 × 10^-11) * (2.55 × 10^29))]

Evaluating the expression on a calculator, we find that the orbital period (Pplanet) of the planet is approximately 2.53 × 10^6 seconds.

To convert this to Earth days, we divide by the number of seconds in a day:

Pplanet (in Earth days) = (2.53 × 10^6 seconds) / (24 * 60 * 60 seconds)

Evaluating the expression, we find that the orbital period of the planet is approximately 29.3 Earth days (to three significant figures).

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A projectile is fired with an initial muzzle speed 360 m/s at an angle 25∘ from a position 6 meters above the ground level. Find the horizontal displacement from the firing position to the point of impact.

Answers

The horizontal displacement from the firing position to the point of impact is approximately 11,432.78 meters when a projectile is fired with an initial muzzle speed of 360 m/s at an angle of 25 degrees from a position 6 meters above the ground level.

To calculate the horizontal displacement, we can use the formula Horizontal Displacement = Initial Velocity * Time of Flight * Cosine(Angle). Firstly, we need to find the time of flight. Using the formula Time of Flight = 2 * Initial Velocity * Sine(Angle) / Acceleration due to Gravity, where the acceleration due to gravity is approximately 9.8 m/s², we can calculate the time of flight. Plugging in the given values, we obtain a time of flight of approximately 36.28 seconds. Now, with the time of flight known, we can proceed to calculate the horizontal displacement. By substituting the initial velocity, time of flight, and angle into the formula, we find the horizontal displacement to be approximately 11,432.78 meters. This value represents the distance between the firing position and the point of impact. It is important to note that the calculation assumes ideal projectile motion with no air resistance and a uniform gravitational field.

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many of the brightest stars we see are only a few million years old. (True or False)

Answers

False. Many of the brightest stars we see in the night sky are actually several million to billions of years old.

These stars have gone through various stages of stellar evolution, including their formation, main sequence phase, and possibly later stages such as red giant or supernova. The brightest stars we see often belong to different spectral types and luminosity classes, indicating their varying stages of evolution. Young stars, such as protostars and T Tauri stars, may appear bright during their early formation phases, but they are not typically among the brightest stars visible to us without the aid of telescopes.

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If someone could do this for me so I can get a better
grasp I'd be much appreciative
The wave passes through a thin sheet of a reversible weakly dielectric material that is also non-magnetic and insulating. It is several wavelengths long and wide and orientated such that the electric

Answers

The wave passes through a thin sheet of a reversible weakly dielectric material that is also non-magnetic and insulating. It is several wavelengths long and wide and orientated such that the electric field is parallel to the plane of the sheet.

A plane wave is an electromagnetic wave that propagates in a certain direction and oscillates perpendicular to that direction. This plane wave passes through a thin sheet of a reversible weakly dielectric material that is non-magnetic and insulating. This sheet is several wavelengths long and wide and is orientated in such a way that the electric field is parallel to the plane of the sheet.

Therefore, the wave passes through a thin sheet of a reversible weakly dielectric material that is also non-magnetic and insulating, and is several wavelengths long and wide and is orientated in such a way that the electric field is parallel to the plane of the sheet.

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what are types of dooing used to control conductivity in semi
conductors and their effects on fermi level

Answers

The two types of doping used to control conductivity in semiconductors are N-type and P-type doping. The effects on the Fermi level differ between the two types of doping.

In semiconductors, doping refers to the intentional introduction of impurities to control conductivity. N-type doping is accomplished by introducing impurities into the semiconductor that have more valence electrons than the semiconductor's atoms. Phosphorus or arsenic, for example, are commonly used as doping agents in silicon.

When these impurities are introduced, they create extra electrons in the conduction band, resulting in n-type doping. The Fermi level is shifted closer to the conduction band as a result of the additional electrons. P-type doping, on the other hand, involves introducing impurities into the semiconductor that have fewer valence electrons than the semiconductor's atoms. Boron, for example, is a common p-type dopant for silicon. When boron is introduced, it creates holes in the valence band, resulting in p-type doping. As a result of the additional holes, the Fermi level is shifted closer to the valence band.

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Compare the kinetic energy of a 21,000 kg truck moving at 105 km/h with that of an 80.5 kg astronaut in orbit moving at 28,000 km/h. KEastronaut ​KEtruck ​​=

Answers

KE_astronaut ≈ 5.26 * 10^10 joules

To compare the kinetic energy of the truck and the astronaut, we can use the formula for kinetic energy:

KE = (1/2) * mass * velocity^2.

Given:
Mass of the truck (mtruck) = 21,000 kg
Velocity of the truck (vtruck) = 105 km/h

Mass of the astronaut (mastronaut) = 80.5 kg
Velocity of the astronaut (vastronaut) = 28,000 km/h

Let's calculate the kinetic energy for each:

For the truck:
KEtruck = (1/2) * mtruck * vtruck^2
KEtruck = (1/2) * 21,000 kg * (105 km/h)^2

For the astronaut:
KEastronaut = (1/2) * mastronaut * vastronaut^2
KEastronaut = (1/2) * 80.5 kg * (28,000 km/h)^2

Now we can calculate the kinetic energy for both:

KEtruck
= (1/2) * 21,000 kg * (105 km/h)^2
KEtruck ≈ 1.16 * 10^8 joules

KEastronaut = (1/2) * 80.5 kg * (28,000 km/h)^2
KEastronaut ≈ 5.26 * 10^10 joules

Therefore, the kinetic energy of the astronaut in orbit is greater than the kinetic energy of the truck.

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the behavior of a wildfire is typically described
by:
a) spread and recurrence
b) intensity and spread
c) temperature and location
d) severity and seasonality
e) recurrence and fuel composition

Answers

The behavior of a wildfire is typically described by b) intensity and spread.

Wildfire behavior refers to the way the fire responds to the various factors that influence its spread and movement. The behavior of a wildfire is typically described by two main characteristics, which are intensity and spread. Intensity refers to the heat output of the fire and its potential for ignition and combustion. Spread, on the other hand, is the rate at which the fire is moving and how far it has spread. The intensity of a wildfire is influenced by several factors, including the type of fuel, weather conditions, and topography.

High-intensity wildfires tend to occur in areas with abundant and dry fuel, high temperatures, low humidity, and high winds, they can be dangerous and difficult to control, and they often result in significant damage to the environment and human communities. Spread is influenced by the same factors as intensity, as well as the presence of firebreaks, the availability of resources, and the tactics used by firefighting personnel. The speed and direction of the fire can vary greatly depending on the surrounding conditions, and it is important to monitor and assess these factors in order to manage the fire effectively. So therefore the behavior of a wildfire is typically described by b) intensity and spread.

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P4. (20 points) If it takes a time \( T \) for an object starting from speed \( v_{0} \) and icy surface to come to rest, prove that the coefficient of friction is \( \nu_{o} / g T \).

Answers

The coefficient of friction is [tex]\( \frac{v_{0}}{g T} \).[/tex]

To prove that the coefficient of friction is [tex]\( \nu_{0} / g T \)[/tex], let's break down the problem step by step.

1. The initial velocity of the object is [tex]\( v_{0} \)[/tex].
2. The object comes to rest, which means its final velocity is 0.
3. The time it takes for the object to come to rest is [tex]\( T \)[/tex].

Now, let's use the equation of motion to solve for the coefficient of friction.

The equation of motion for an object sliding on an icy surface is:

[tex]\( v = v_{0} + \mu g t \)[/tex]

where [tex]\( v \)[/tex] is the final velocity, [tex]\( \mu \)[/tex] is the coefficient of friction, [tex]\( g \)[/tex] is the acceleration due to gravity, and [tex]\( t \)[/tex] is the time.

In this case, we know that [tex]\( v = 0 \) and \( t = T \),[/tex] so the equation becomes:

[tex]\( 0 = v_{0} + \mu g T \)[/tex]

Rearranging the equation, we get:

[tex]\( \mu = \frac{-v_{0}}{g T} \)[/tex]

Since the coefficient of friction cannot be negative, we can write the equation as:

[tex]\( \mu = \frac{v_{0}}{g T} \)[/tex]

Therefore, the coefficient of friction is [tex]\( \frac{v_{0}}{g T} \).[/tex]

This proves that the coefficient of friction is [tex]\( \frac{v_{0}}{g T} \)[/tex].

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Q. What is geometric distortion in remote
sensing imagery? Briefly explain the five main factors affecting
the image geometry.

Answers

Geometric distortion refers to the misrepresentation of an object's shape, position, and size in a remote sensing image. The five main factors affecting the image geometry are:

1. Sensor Resolution, 2. Sensor Geometry, 3. Earth's Rotation and Revolution, 4. Relief Displacement, 5. Map Projection

Sensor resolution - The number of pixels in the sensor array determines the sensor resolution. The smaller the pixel size, the higher the resolution, and the less geometric distortion.

Sensor geometry - The angle of observation, the location of the image center, and the direction of the image scanning have a significant impact on the image geometry.

Earth's rotation and revolution - The rotation of the earth on its axis and its revolution around the sun can cause image distortions.

Relief displacement - The displacement of features, typically mountainous or hilly terrain, caused by the angle of observation, is referred to as relief displacement.

Map projection - When a three-dimensional globe is projected onto a two-dimensional plane, map projection distortion occurs.

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How much heat is required to completely vaporize 250 g of water at 35.0 °C and raise the temperature to 125 °C ? The heat capacity of ice is 0.50 cal/g°C The heat capacity of water is 1.00 cal/g °C The heat capacity of steam is 0.48 cal/g°C The heat of fusion is 80.0 cal/g The heat of vaporization is 539 cal/g

Answers

The heat required to completely vaporize 250 g of water at 35.0°C and raise the temperature to 125°C is 157250 cal.

First, we will calculate the heat required to raise the temperature from 35.0°C to 100°C using the formula,

Q = m × c × ΔT where, Q = heat required m = mass of water c = specific heat of water

ΔT = change in temperature

ΔT = T₂ - T₁ΔT = 125°C - 35.0°CΔT = 90.0°CQ = 250 g × 1.00 cal/g °C × 90.0°CQ = 22500 cal

The heat required to raise the temperature of 250 g of water from 35.0°C to 100°C is 22500 cal.

Now, we will calculate the heat required to vaporize the water using the formula,

Q = m × L where, Q = heat required m = mass of water L = heat of vaporization

L = 539 cal/g

Q = 250 g × 539 cal/g

Q = 134750 cal

The heat required to vaporize 250 g of water is 134750 cal.

The total heat required is the sum of both these heats,

Q = 22500 cal + 134750 cal

Q = 157250 cal

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A physical system in resonance

[Consider a situation in which any physical system enters resonance. Take as an example the fact that a platoon of marching released stops the march just before crossing a bridge and resumes it after having passed it. What physical phenomenon is the platoon avoiding or is this behavior traditionally practiced without any basic physical reason? Base your posture with concepts of physics

Answers

Resonance is a phenomenon in which a physical system oscillates at maximum amplitude when a driving force is applied to it at its natural frequency. Consider a platoon of marching soldiers who are close to crossing a bridge; this situation demonstrates how a physical system enters resonance.

Resonance is a phenomenon in which a physical system oscillates at maximum amplitude when a driving force is applied to it at its natural frequency. Consider a platoon of marching soldiers who are close to crossing a bridge; this situation demonstrates how a physical system enters resonance. The physical phenomenon that the platoon of marching soldiers is avoiding is the phenomenon of resonance. A physical system in resonance is a phenomenon in which a physical system oscillates at maximum amplitude when a driving force is applied to it at its natural frequency. A physical system in resonance can have catastrophic consequences on the physical system that is in resonance with it.

In the situation where a platoon of marching soldiers approaches a bridge, they stop marching just before they reach it and then resume marching after they have passed the bridge. This behavior is practiced to avoid the bridge's natural frequency. If the soldiers continued to march while on the bridge, their marching would cause the bridge to resonate at its natural frequency, which would cause the bridge to collapse.The phenomenon of resonance can be observed in various other physical systems as well, such as electrical circuits, musical instruments, and pendulums. The frequency of the system must be known to prevent resonance. This knowledge is essential in the design of buildings, bridges, and other structures that could experience resonance. In conclusion, the platoon of marching soldiers is avoiding resonance, and this behavior is practiced with a sound physical reason.

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Please help with 2.3 and 2.42.1 Explain the capabilities that a circuit breaker must display during a fault. (3) 2.2 Describe the operation of a circuit breaker under fault conditions. (4) 2.3 Illustrate by means of a sketch the QUESTION 1 In the short run, the ATC curve is _____ above the AVC curve. A. always B. sometimes C. never2 pointsQUESTION 2 As output rises, A. AFC rises. B. AFC falls. C. AFC remains the same. D. there is no way of determining what happens to AFC.2 pointsQUESTION 3 When average total cost is declining, then A. marginal cost must be less than average total cost. B. marginal cost must be greater than average total cost. C. average total cost must be greater than average fixed cost. D. average variable cost must be declining.2 pointsQUESTION 4 Which statement is true? A. The marginal cost curve intersects both the average variable cost curve and the average total cost curve at their minimum points. B. The marginal cost curve intersects neither the average variable cost curve nor the average total cost curve at their minimum points. C. The marginal cost curve intersects the average variable cost curve at its minimum point, but it does not intersect the average total cost curve at its minimum point. D. The marginal cost curve intersects the average total cost curve at its minimum point, but it does not intersect the average variable cost curve at its minimum point.2 pointsQUESTION 5 The law of diminishing returns states that as output rises, eventually _____ output will decline. A. total B. average C. fixed D. marginal2 pointsQUESTION 6 The law of diminishing marginal returns implies A. the more hours you spend studying economics the less you will know. B. your understanding of economics will be increased by decreasing your marginal study time. C. after a certain point, the more hours you spend studying economics per day, the less you will learn with each added hour. D. the more hours you spend studying economics per day, the more you will learn with each added hour.2 pointsQUESTION 7 The law of diminishing returns A. is completely invalid. B. states that if units of a resource are added to a fixed proportion of other resources, eventually marginal output will decline. C. states that if any two resources are combined, production will fall. D. states that profit margins decline as output rises.2 pointsQUESTION 8 If marginal output is rising it is possible to have A. diminishing returns. B. negative returns. C. both diminishing returns and negative returns. D. neither diminishing returns nor negative returns.2 pointsQUESTION 9 If fixed cost is P5,000, and, at an output of 3 variable cost is P4,000, how much is average total cost at an output of 3? A. P1,333.33 B. P3,000 C. P4,500 D. P9,000 E. 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Criteria: 1) The regular diodes (choose between Ge, Si, GaAs), Zener diode, and resistors can be used to construct the circuit. 2) The PIV of the diode must exceed the peak value of the AC input. 3) An overcharge protection must be implemented to keep your mobile phone charge from being damaged from spikes in the voltage. Based on this criterion, prepare the following: i) Identify and analyze the circuit with the help of diode application theories and examine the operations of the identified circuit with appropriate connections and adequate labeling. [5] ii) Analyze the appropriate label of the input and output voltage wave shapes of the designed circuit with proper explanations. 0 [5] Note: Copied/identical submissions will be graded as 0 for all parties concerned. A system with excitation x() and response y() is described by y(0) = 3sin(x()). Identify the characteristics of the given system. Multiple Choice Linear, time invariant, BIBO stable, static, and non-causal Linear, time invariant, BIBO stable, dynamic, and non-causal Non-linear, time invariant, BIBO stable, static, and causal Non-linear, time invariant, BIBO stable, static, and non-causal why is the area of a trapezoid irrational? Sketch the following functions a) rect(x/8) b. (/10) c) rect (t-3/4) d) sinc(t). rect(t/4) find the fraction if a circle subtended by the following angle324 An angle of 324 subtends of a circle (Simplify your answer.) Consider the upper half of the ellipsoid f(x, y) = (1-x^2/9-y^2/16) and the point p(0,22) on the given level curve f(x,y)= 2/ 2Compute the slope of the line tangent to the level curve at P, and verify that the tangent line is orthogonal to the gradient at that point. As a project manager you need to use the estimating data and other inputs to create a project schedule that you will be able to stake your reputation on meeting. Explain in few bullet points steps you need to take to create a finalized schedule? 3. Tentbook problem \( 2.16 \) PROBLEM 2.16. The rod AMCD is tade of an aluminum for which \( 2=70 \) OPa. Por the loadery samen, determine the defiection of (a) paint \( A,(b) \) point \( D \) A lift calling system is to be programmed for an organization building having 4 floors. The CEO of the organization sits at the 3rd floor. The marketing head sits at the 1st floor and the staffs of the organization sit at the 2nd floor. The lift calling system should have the most priority for the 3rd floor, then the priority should be given to 1st floor, then 2nd floor should be given priority and Ground floor will have the least priority.Construct the truth table as per the priority the invasion of socialist countries that seemed to be moving toward reform was justified by the soviet union under an interventionist policy called the What is a post-audit, why do firms use them, and what problemscan arise when they are used?( make sure your answer is 100 words or more) What is the Big-Oh order of the following code fragment? The size of the problem is expressed as \( n \). for (int \( i=100 ; i Write one paragraph comparing the memoir and thearticle. Compare how the writers present similar ideas tothe reader. Include evidence from the text to support yourcomparison. Edge XYZ Inc. owns 55% of DEF Inc.'s 100,000 outstanding voting shares. Another company, GHI Inc., owns 40%, with the remaining shares being held by many individual investors. GHI Inc. also owns $25,000,000 worth of DEF Inc.'s $1,000 par value bonds, each of which is convertible to one voting share of DEF Inc. Which of the following statements regarding the control of DEF Inc. is correct? Question 5 options: XYZ Inc. has control over DEF Inc. as it owns a majority of DEF Inc.'s currently outstanding voting shares. XYZ Inc. does not have control over DEF Inc., as it cannot exercise control over DEF's strategic operating, investing and Financing activities without the cooperation of GHI Inc. XYZ Inc. has de facto control over DEF Inc. As long as GHI Inc. does not exercise its option to convert its bonds to voting shares, XYZ Inc. has control over DEF Inc. an example of a noninvasive cardiology procedure/service is: