The type of side effects of cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) that nurses must teach elderly clients and their families is "After taking cyclobenzaprine it is likely to cause drowsiness, blurred vision, nausea or pain in the stomach."
What is cyclobenzaprine?
Cyclobenzaprine is a drug used on a short-term basis to treat muscle spasms. In order for the drug to work optimally, you should also do rest and physical therapy. This medication works by helping to relax tense muscles.
The most common side effects of using the drug cyclobenzaprine are:
Dry mouth or throatBlurred visionsleepyDizzyTired feelingLoss of appetiteNauseousAbdominal painBloatedDiarrhea or constipationNot everyone experiences these side effects.
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a female client with a nasogastric tube attached to low suction states that she is nauseated. the nurse assesses that there has been no drainage through the nasogastric tube in the last 2 hours. which action should the nurse take first?
Some patients may be allowed to suck on ice chips. If the patient complains of abdominal pain, discomfort, or nausea, or begins to vomit, report it immediately.
What causes abdominal pain?Common causes, such as gas and indigestion, menstrual cramps, or even food poisoning and the flu may be instantly recognizable. Other causes may be more mysterious. And sometimes stomach pain is a sign of an unsuspected or serious condition.
What is abdominal pain female?Abdominal pain can be cramp-like, localized, or colicky. Cramp-like pain. This type of abdominal pain may be associated with constipation, diarrhea, flatulence, or bloating. In women, however, the pain can be linked to miscarriage, menstruation, or complications in the female reproductive organs.
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an elderly woman experienced a closed head injury when she fell down five steps. she is responsive to painful stimuli and her breathing is irregular and shallow. when evaluating her airway, you note that she has both upper and lower dentures. her upper dentures are secure, but her lower dentures are loose. prior to providing positive pressure ventilation, you would:
To remove lower dentures, place your thumb and fingers on either side of the denture. Rocking them gently, pull your lower dentures to loosen them. You'll soon work out how to remove your dentures quickly and safely.
How do you remove lower partial dentures?
To remove a lower partial denture, hook your thumbnails or fingernails either side of the denture edge where it meets your gums, use a gentle wiggle or upward see-sawing motion to release it.
Which dentures should be removed first?
The upper may be harder to remove, especially the first time. If it is stubborn, take your index finger and place it between your denture and cheek moving up and back until you feel the back upper corner of the denture.
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if blood glucose levels are too high what hormone will this organ secrete
The pancreas releases more glucagon when blood glucose levels become dangerously low.
The pancreas releases more glucagon when blood glucose levels become dangerously low. This hormone assists in restoring blood glucose in a number of ways: It prompts the liver to transform saved glucose into a form that can be used, after which it is released into the bloodstream. Insulin lowers blood sugar levels while glucagon raises blood sugar levels.Insulin and glucagon are hormones secreted by the pancreas. They work together to keep blood sugar levels stable. A person's blood sugar levels may increase or decrease if a particular hormone is present in excess of or beneath the ideal range.Cells use blood glucose to produce energy when it enters the cells thanks to insulin.
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most common symptom of myocardial ischemia and infarction
When they do occur, the most common is chest pressure or pain, typically on the left side of the body angina pectoris.
Is angina pectoris a heart attack?Angina pectoris or angina is temporary chest pain or discomfort as a result of decreased blood flow to the heart muscle. Angina is not a heart attack, but it is a sign of increased risk for heart attack.
Is angina pectoris serious?Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscles. It's not usually life threatening, but it's a warning sign that you could be at risk of a heart attack or stroke. With treatment and healthy lifestyle changes, it's possible to control angina and reduce the risk of these more serious problems.
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x-rays can be used solely or together with other to provide causes for a condition, to identify the exact cause of a problem or rule out possible problems.
X -rays can be used solely or together with other to provide causes for a condition, to identify the exact cause of a problem or rule out possible problems.
This statement is True
How do X-rays work?
X-rays are a very helpful diagnostic tool for identifying abnormalities like fractures, bone spurs, and arthritis. X-rays can also be used to look for foreign objects that may have been ingested or inhaled, like coins or bullets.X-rays are also employed in the medical industry to identify diseases like cancer, pneumonia, and heart issues. X-rays have the ability to identify tumors and other abnormalities like calcifications, which can assist medical professionals in early disease diagnosis and treatment. X-rays can also be used to find obstructions in the digestive tract, like gallstones.To know more about x-rays click-
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x-rays can be used solely or together with other to provide causes for a condition, to identify the exact cause of a problem or rule out possible problems.
True
False
a nurse is caring for a client with severe anemia. the client is tachycardic and reports dizziness and exertional dyspnea. what signs and symptoms might develop if this client goes into heart failure?
What signs and symptoms might develop if this patient goes into heart failure?
A)Peripheral edema
Patients with anemia should have their cardiac condition thoroughly evaluated. Low hemoglobin levels cause the heart to work harder and pump more quickly in an effort to compensate by getting more blood to hypoxic tissue. Tachycardia, palpitations, orthopnea, dyspnea, disorientation, and exertional dyspnea are just a few of the symptoms that can be brought on by this elevated cardiac strain. Peripheral edema and enlarged heart and liver (cardiomegaly and hepatomegaly) are indicators that heart failure may later develop. Heart failure is unrelated to nausea, migraines, or fever.
Anemia's symptoms and signs:
When your body doesn't have enough red blood cells to transport oxygen to all of its different regions, fatigue sets in. Additionally, a low red blood cell count might result in chest pain, pale or yellow complexion, headaches, cold hands and feet, and disorientation.
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A nurse is caring for a patient with severe anemia. The patient is tachycardic and complains of dizziness and exertional dyspnea. The nurse knows that in an effort to deliver more blood to hypoxic tissue, the workload on the heart is increased. What signs and symptoms might develop if this patient goes into heart failure?
A) Peripheral edema
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Migraine
D) Fever
A previously healthy, 70-kg (154-pound) man suffers an estimated acute blood loss of 2 liters.
Which one of the following statements applies to this patient?
Select one:
a. His pulse pressure will be widened.
b. His urinary output will be at the lower limits of normal.
c. He will have tachycardia, but no change in his systolic blood pressure.
d. An ABG would demonstrate a base deficit between -6 and -10 mEq/L
e. His systolic blood pressure will be maintained with an elevated diastolic pressure.
claims that apply to this patient include The base deficit on an ABG would vary from -6 and -10 §
How about you? To validate the location of the ET tube in the pulmonary and identify the resumption of based on varying during CPR, an ABG would show a base deficit approximately -6 and -10 mEq/L, right?The revised recommendations suggested routine use of precise waveform capnography during CPR and intubation. Capnography was granted a grade I recommendation for use in all hospital settings since it is the most efficient technique for verifying the insertion of the ETT.
When should a paramedic use a 15:2 ratio instead of a 3:1 ratio when performing CPR on a newborn patient?Conclusions: Those who use a 3:1 split as opposed to a 15:2 attain larger compression depth over the course of two minutes, with women being more affected. In comparison to the other ratios, 3:1 produced a more stable compression depth over time. As a result, the 3:2 ratio is suitable for newborn babies that need to be revived.
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when educating families on fire safety in the home, which information is important for the nurse to emphasize?
It's important for the nanny to emphasize the significance of having working bank admonitions in the home and to insure they're tested regularly.
Also, the nanny should emphasize that all family members know how to call 911 in the event of an exigency. The nanny should also emphasize the significance of having an escape plan in place in case of a fire, similar as relating two ways out of each room and a safe meeting place outdoors. The nanny should also emphasize that it's important for family members to check for fire hazards regularly and to noway leave cooking unattended. The nanny should also punctuate the significance of having a fire extinguisher in the home and icing all family members know how to use it. Eventually.
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a 1-month-old baby is severely ill and has been prescribed an injection as part of drug therapy. what is the preferred injection site?
A 1-month-old infant who is critically ill has been given an injection as part of their medication treatment. The vastus lateralis muscle is the most popular injection location.
Utilizing intramuscular injection (IM), drugs are injected deep within a number of chosen muscles. Because the large muscles have strong blood flow, the drug is injected fast, bypassing the first-pass metabolism, and enters the systemic circulation before entering the targeted area of action. One of the most frequent medical procedures is done yearly. However, there is currently a lack of global adherence to suggested criteria and an algorithm for administering IM. More than 95% of intramuscular injections (IM) are administered for curative purposes, with the remaining 5% administered for preventative reasons, such as immunization.
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a physician ordered a steroid to be administered at a dosage of 2.25 mg/kg body weight. the patient is 170.1 lb, and the available solution of the steroid is 11.9 mg/ml. how many ml of the solution will the patient receive? 1 kg
The patient receive 50 ml of the steroid solution.
What is an appropriate dose?We must constantly question what the precise dose of the medication we select is when administering care to a patient or even just taking it on our own. And the truth is, from preparing meals to taking prescriptions, we dose (or should dose) almost everything in our lives! However, there are several drug dosages that vary depending on the particular drug and/or the patient.
1. One dosage: Medicines with a single fixed dosage are the simplest to use; you simply take them and go on (e.g., vaccines). No dose calculating methods are required!
2. Distinct, fixed dosages: The doctor typically determines the dosage of these medications based on the patient's needs or age (e.g., hypotensive drugs).
3. Various, varying dosages: In this instance, the doctor typically recommends a sample dosage, which the patient subsequently modifies in accordance with his or her needs and the circumstances (e.g., insulin).
4. Doses based on blood concentration: This subset of medications is relatively tiny. Depending on the serum level of the drug's active ingredient, different doses are required (e.g., vitamin K antagonists, lithium, etc.).
5. The patient's body weight affects the drug's dosage: The patient's weight affects the drug's dosage. It implies that two people with the same illness can receive varying dosages of the same medication!
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what would the nurse identify as the desired response of the combination of codeine and acetaminophen rather than each given separately?
When codeine and acetaminophen are administered together rather than individually, the cumulative impact results in greater pain control, which is the desired outcome, according to the nurse.
An opioid analgesic is codeine. It works by activating opioid receptors that are present all over the body. The gastrointestinal system is also impacted by opioid receptors, which causes unwanted, off-target effects. The target areas for the desirable effects are receptors in the central nervous system. A prodrug called codeine only interacts to the mu opioid receptor very sluggishly. Its analgesic effects depend on its conversion to morphine, which has a 200-fold stronger affinity for the mu opioid receptor than codeine. When using an opioid analgesic is appropriate, codeine is advised for the treatment of mild to moderately severe pain. There is a chance of overuse and misuse with codeine, a Schedule II prohibited substance.
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first word part identified when defining medical terms
Medical terms do not always have a prefix, but when they do, it is usually found at the start of the word. A root and a suffix are always present in medical terms. The best way to analyse the parts of a word is from the suffix to the prefix to the root.
What is suffix?A suffix is an affix that comes after the stem of a word in linguistics. Case endings, which indicate the grammatical case of nouns and adjectives, and verb endings, which form the conjugation of verbs, are common examples.
Suffixes can carry grammatical or lexical information (inflectional or derivational/lexical suffixes). A grammatical suffix or an inflectional suffix. Such inflection alters a word's grammatical properties within its syntactic category.
There are two types of derivational suffixes: class-changing derivation and class-maintaining derivation. Because they can change the form of words, suffixes are known as affirmatives in the study of Semitic languages.
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Complete question: How to Identify Word Parts When Defining Medical Terms?
which arterial blood gas (abg) result would the nurse anticipate in a client who develops metabolic alkalosis after profuse vomiting for 2 days?
In a client who develops metabolic alkalosis after profuse vomiting for 2 days, the nurse would anticipate an arterial blood gas (ABG) result that shows a high pH (above 7.45) and increased bicarbonate (above 24 mEq/L).
This is due to the excessive loss of hydrochloric acid (HCl) from the stomach and the resulting decreased hydrogen ion concentration, which increases the alkalinity of the blood.
This leads to the kidneys working to restore the electrolyte balance and hence increasing bicarbonate in the blood. At the same time, the decreased hydrogen ion concentration decreases the amount of carbon dioxide that needs to be excreted, resulting in a decreased partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2). The nurse would also expect to see a decreased chloride level and an increased oxygen level.
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This reference is updated annually and has different versions for different professions as well as pictures to assist in identifying drugs.PDR
The PDR reference includes images to assist with drug identification, is updated annually, and includes editions for numerous professions.
What source does not provide images of the drugs but classifies them according to off-label uses?medical literature and compendia are cited. Compendia and reference books on drugs are published by non-manufacturer-affiliated businesses or organizations. These references frequently cover both off-label and labeled usage.
How frequently are PDRs released?The PDR is released each year. As new products enter the market, periodic supplements are released throughout the year. The PDR is divided into color-coded sections. A list of all manufacturers that provided information about their prescription drugs.
Question incomplete:This reference is updated annually and has different versions for different professions as well as pictures to assist in identifying drugs.
A. PDR
B. AHFS
C. DEA
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if a healthcare provider is accused of breaching the privacy and confidentiality of a patient what resource may a patient rely on to substantiate the provider's responsibility
Professional Code of Ethics. Confidentiality involves data, but privacy concerns persons.
Although keeping medical records or information totally private is extremely uncommon, it frequently happens when doctors release patient information to others and use it as one of their case studies. The research proposal should describe privacy protection measures, such as how the researcher will access data from or about participants. If you violate confidentially, you may be subject to legal action to recover damages. Discipline from the organisations that represent healthcare professionals may also follow. If consent is acquired, along with additional specific conditions, you may release confidential information as a health care practitioner.
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the community health nurse is providing care to a community group. to provide culturally sensitive care, which the nurse should avoid?
A community group is receiving care from the community health nurse. Ethnocentrism should be avoided by the nurse in order to give treatment that is culturally sensitive.
Clients of community health come from a range of cultural backgrounds. A culture is a way of life; it offers norms and values that give individuals of a society stability and security and are a significant driver of behavior. The proliferation and wide range of cultural groups emphasize how important it is for community health nurses to comprehend and value cultural diversity. The prejudice that one's own culture is superior and all others are bad or inferior is known as ethnocentrism. It may erect significant obstacles to providing appropriate nursing care. Effective community health interventions frequently depend on having a thorough understanding of cultural diversity and being attentive to the beliefs and behaviors of different ethnic groups. The five qualities of culture are that it is acquired from others, it is a common system of traits and conventions, it is tacit and it is dynamic.
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explain how the inegumentary system, skeletal, muscular systems work together to maintain good health
The integumentary system is the skin's protective covering. Your skin, hair, nails, and glands make up your body. These systems and parts serve as your body's initial line of defense against microorganisms as well as your defense against harm and the sun.
Your body's integumentary system collaborates with other bodily systems to maintain balance. The integumentary system is the skin's protective covering. It is composed of your skin, hair, nails, and skin-surface glands and nerves. Your body is shielded from bacteria, infections, injuries, and sunlight by your integumentary system, which also serves as a physical barrier. It also enables you to experience hot and cold skin sensations and helps control your body's temperature.
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according to evolutionary perspectivists, sensory adaptation is probably a behavioral adaptation that allows people to
Behavioral adaptations that enable people to maintain stability, in the opinion of evolutionary theorists, include sensory adaption.
Which of the subsequent is an illustration of sensory adaptation?Calvin generally brushes his fingertips over the surface of the fabric to admire the texture. He does this because holding the fabric still would create a rapid process of sensory adaptation to its feel.
Of the following, which one is a sensory adaptation?The procedure of deciding how to organize and interpret sensory data is referred to as sensory adaptation. decreasing sensitivity to a constant stimulus The lens's shape changes as it sharpens its focus on objects. the method by which stimulus energy is converted into neuronal impulses.
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a postpartum client suspected of having an infection is informed that she will be unable to have the newborn present in the room with her. the nurse plans care, knowing that which problem is the highest priority at this time?
The nurse knows the problem that is the highest priority at the moment is that the mother cannot breastfeed her baby because of the mastitis infection she is experiencing.
what is postpartum infection?Postpartum infections are various infections that occur after vaginal delivery, cesarean section, or while breastfeeding.
The pain experienced by many women after giving birth makes it difficult to distinguish postpartum infection from postpartum pain.
Some of the most common postpartum infections are:
Endometritis is an infection of the endometrium (lining of the uterus)Mastitis, breast infectionInfected incisionUrinary tract infection.Mothers who experience mastitis infection cannot meet their babies temporarily because the infection occurs in the breast tissue so they cannot breastfeed.
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How will you decrease the social stigma brought about by the mental disorder of your patient?
Educate both yourself and others, and share experiences and facts in response to misconceptions or unfavorable remarks. Be mindful of your language and remind others that what you say matters.
What mental health stigmas?Respond to misunderstandings or unfavorable remarks by educating yourself and others and by sharing your experiences and facts. By disseminating factual knowledge about how the virus spreads, one can correct stigma-causing bad language.
Opposing harmful actions and words, particularly those made on social media. ensuring that communication-related pictures depict diverse groups and do not support stereotypes.
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This type of muscle blends into tendinous insertions that attached to bones pulling them which produces the desired movement
The required movement is created when skeletal muscle fuses with tendinous insertions that connect to bones and pull them.
Muscle confusion is a practise among bodybuilders for what reason?The phrase "muscle confusion" is frequently used in the bodybuilding community. It is typically used as an excuse to switch up your workouts to give your body something new to get used to.
What kind of exercise produces myofibrillar hypertrophy, which increases muscle strength, the most effectively?The biggest improvements in myofibrillar volume and density result with strength training at 80%+ of your 1-RM, rep ranges of 3–8, and 2-4 minutes of recovery. Therefore, you must lift heavy if you want to develop myofibril hypertrophy. the more muscle fibres are activated when you lift higher weights.
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after reading chapter 1, compare and contrast the definitions of exercise, physical activity, physical education, physical fitness, and sport. how are they interrelated and does one supersede another?
Exercise and bodily mobility necessitate an increase in physical activity. Exercise is intentional movement done with the aim of enhancing health and fitness.
What distinguishes physical education from physical activity?Physical education programs (physical ed, or PE) use physical exercise to teach kids how to start and maintain an active lifestyle. Physical activity is any sort of body movement. Both are crucial for the prevention of obesity and the healthy development of students.
What kind of exercise is crucial?Aerobic exercise lowers the chances of depression, falls, breast as well as colon cancer, type 2 diabetes, heart disease, and stroke over the long term. 150 mins max per week of brisk walking is your goal. Try swimming, sprinting, cycling, dancing, or step aerobics programs. Also try brisk walking.
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carlos is a healthy but sedentary college student. he weighs 175 pounds. about how many grams of protein should he consume each day? a. 64 grams b. 84 grams c. 55 grams d. 75 grams
According to question, 64 grams of Proteins is a healthy for college student he weighs 175 pounds .
Complete proteins are defined as foods that include all nine essential amino acids. Beef, poultry, fish, eggs, dairy products, soy products, quinoa, and buckwheat are a few of these foods. Given that they all include all nine of the required amino acids, red meat, chicken, and salmon are all fantastic sources of high-quality protein. These incomplete protein variations are present in a variety of foods, including grains, almonds, and green peas.
Only about 200 milligrammes of sodium are actually required in the diet since the kidneys aggressively reabsorb sodium. The hormonal regulation of sodium renal reabsorption allows for a relatively steady sodium level in the blood.
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nurse observes that a client is out of breath from running up a flight of stairs just prior to conducting a general survey. what is the best action of the nurse?
Bronchodilation occurs as a result of the respiratory tract's smooth muscles being relaxed by the drug albuterol (Proventil). The goal of this intervention is to facilitate breathing, and it adheres to the emergency care ABCs of airway, breathing, & circulation. After the initial episode of breathing difficulties has subsided, the use of a incentive aspirator may be taught.
The respiratory system consists of what three components?Throat-to-lungs passage known as the trachea. The bronchial tubes are tubes that connect to each lung at the base of the windpipe. The two lung organs are responsible for removing oxygen and transferring it to your blood.
The respiratory system include what organs?Lungs are the primary respiratory organs. The nose, trachea, diaphragm, and intercostal muscles are some more respiratory organs.
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he usual way to obtain a prolonged effect of a drug is to take an additional dose when the first dose blank .multiple choice question.has gradual effectshas started to declineis yet to reach its maximum concentrationis yet to be metabolized by the liver
The usual way to achieve a prolonged effect of a drug is to take an additional dose when the first dose is empty because the concentration has not been metabolized by the liver
Is that a side effect of the drug?Drug side effects are unwanted reactions that occur when we take a drug. These side effects can worsen the patient's illness, even leading to death.
Drug interactions can also be one of the causes of side effects. Each drug will react differently to everyone because everyone has different conditions.
If someone takes an additional dose when the first dose is empty it will increase the side effects of the drug because the concentration of the drug has not been metabolized by the liver
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a client with a diagnosis of tonic-clonic seizures is being admitted to the hospital, and the nurse needs to institute seizure precautions. during a seizure, which items are inappropriate to use and could cause harm to the client?
During a seizure, objects that are not appropriate to use and can harm the client are spoons or towels that are put in the mouth.
What is a seizure?Seizures are disturbances of electrical activity in the brain that occur spontaneously. This condition is generally characterized by uncontrolled body movements, which can even cause a loss of consciousness. Seizures can be a symptom of brain disease or other conditions that affect the brain.
The duration of the seizure is usually short, between 30 seconds and 2 minutes. If it lasts more than 2 minutes, the seizure is classified as an emergency and requires immediate medical attention.
When someone is having a seizure, do not put any object such as a spoon or towel into your mouth because it will block your airway and endanger your life.
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medication order reads: zoloft 50 mg po daily. supply on hand: zoloft 100 mg/tablet. give tab(s)
As we only have in supply double the dose, 1/2 a tablet has to be taken everyday. The number of tablets can be decided only if the number of days are provided. We should give 1/2 a tablet for each day.
We first can try to read the prescription, Zoloft 50 mg po daily.
Zoloft is the name of the medication. Zoloft (Sertraline) is a a prescription medicine used for chronic depression, OCD, PTSD, and a severe case of menstrual disorder called Premenstrual dysphoric disorder. Tablets are available as 25mg, 50mg and 100mg tablets. Dosage varies accordingly, but it is usually taken once daily, orally, after food.
Here the dose determined is 50 mg, which is to be taken orally (PO stands for that), one daily.
The number of tablets in this case is determined by the number of days the dosage is prescribed.
For a week we could give 4 tablets, 1/2 each for 7 days .
For a month we give 15 tablets, 1/2 each for 30 days.
So the number of tablets can be determined by the number of days, and a physician is solely responsible for prescribing the dosage.
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Which of the following is the most effective form of AIDS treatment, even though it does not completely eliminate the virus from the patient's body?
The use of a combination of drugs that target different stages of the HIV life cycle
HIV is treated with antiretroviral therapy, which consists of one or more medications. ART does not cure HIV, but it does reduce its replication in the blood, reducing the viral load to undetectable levels.
What is HIV ?The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) attacks immune system cells, increasing a person's susceptibility to other diseases and infections. Sharing injection supplies or coming into direct contact with an infected person's bodily fluids can spread it, with unprotected sex being the most common way to do so (sex without the use of a condom or HIV medication to prevent or treat HIV).
If HIV is not treated effectively, AIDS can develop. There is no HIV treatment that works, and HIV cannot be gotten rid of by the human body. Consequently, once you have HIV, you always have HIV.
Thankfully, there is an effective HIV treatment option called antiretroviral therapy, or ART.
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Which of the following is the most effective form of AIDS treatment, even though it does not completely eliminate the virus from the patient's body?
HIV is treated with antiretroviral therapy or
The use of a combination of drugs that target different stages of the HIV life cycle.
level of consciousness (loc) can be assessed based on criteria in the glasgow coma scale (gcs). which of the following indicators are assessed in the gcs? select all that apply.
All forms of acute illness and trauma patients are evaluated using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) to determine the degree of impaired consciousness.
All forms of acute illness and trauma patients are evaluated using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) to determine the degree of impaired consciousness. The scale rates patients based on their verbal, motor, and eye-opening responses, which are the three dimensions of responsiveness. Each of these can be reported independently to give a distinct, understandable image of the patient. A total Glasgow Coma Score, which gives a less thorough description but can be a useful assessment of the overall severity, can be calculated using the results from each component of the scale. Since then, various clinical standards and scoring systems for patients with critical illnesses or trauma have adopted the Glasgow Coma Scale and its overall score.In order for the interprofessional team to effectively communicate a patient's status, this activity discusses the use of the Glasgow Coma Scale and describes how to apply it.
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some older adults are at risk for medication-related problems. which group(s) are at highest risk for these problems? (select all that apply.)
Older adult groups at risk for treatment-related problems:
older adults with six chronic medical conditions.older adults taking one or more medications or more than 12 doses of medication per day.adults over 85 years of age.Older adults are at risk for medication-related problems. The dangers of giving multiple drugs or polypharmacy to elderly patients must be understood by the doctor who is authorized to give the prescription. Polypharmacy is often found in the elderly population, namely aged> 60 years. The prevalence of polypharmacy increases substantially with increasing age, especially in patients with chronic diseases.
The process of homeostasis in elderly patients causes dysfunction of various organ systems, multipath logical conditions, and decreased ability to tolerate drugs. The complexity of drug administration in elderly patients is a challenge, which requires consideration of the potential harms and benefits of all medical therapies.
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