An oven plate used for heating substances is 0.012m thick. The top surface of the oven is exposed to air flowing at 20°C. In an experiment, the plate is heated by electrical heater positioned on the underside of the plate and the temperature is maintained at 120°C. Calculate the temperature of the top surface. The plate is made of stainless steel with thermal conductivity of 16 W/m °C. The convective heat transfer coefficient of air is 2.5 W/m² °C and the total area of the plate is 1m²

Answers

Answer 1

The temperature of the top surface is 63°C.A stainless steel oven plate that is 0.012m thick is being used to heat substances in this scenario. The top surface of the oven plate is exposed to air flowing at 20°C, while an electric heater on the underside of the plate heats it and maintains it at 120°C.

The plate is 1m² in total area and has a thermal conductivity of 16 W/m°C. The convective heat transfer coefficient of air is 2.5 W/m² °C.

Calculate the temperature of the top surface:

Q/A = h(T - T∞) / L + k(T1 - T2) / LQ/A

= h(T - T∞) / L + k(T1 - T2) / LHere,

L = 0.012

m = 0.012 × 10³ mm

K = 16 W/m°CQ/A

= (2.5 W/m²°C) × (120°C - 20°C) / 0.012m + (16 W/m°C) × (T1 - 120°C) / 0.012m

This can be simplified to

104000 = 8333.3 + 1333.3(T1 - 120°C)104000 - 8333.3

= 1333.3(T1 - 120°C)95500

= 1333.3(T1 - 120°C)T1 - 120°C

= 71.3°C

As a result,

T1 = 120°C + 71.3°C

= 191.3°C

The temperature of the top surface is 63°C (191.3 - 120 - 20).

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Related Questions

A de shunt motor is connected to constant voltage mains and drives a load torque which is independent of speed Prove that, if E-0.5 V. increasing the air gap flux per pole decreases the speed of the motor, while, if E<0.5V increasing the air gap flux per pole increases the speed

Answers

In a de shunt motor connected to constant voltage mains, the relationship between air gap flux per pole and motor speed depends on the applied voltage (E).

If E is greater than or equal to 0.5 V, increasing the air gap flux per pole decreases the speed of the motor. On the other hand, if E is less than 0.5 V, increasing the air gap flux per pole increases the speed.

The speed of a de shunt motor is inversely proportional to the flux per pole. In a de shunt motor, the back EMF (E) is directly proportional to the flux per pole. When the motor is connected to constant voltage mains, the applied voltage (E) remains constant.

If E is greater than or equal to 0.5 V, increasing the air gap flux per pole will result in an increase in the back EMF (E). As the back EMF increases, the speed of the motor decreases because the torque required to overcome the load remains constant.

Conversely, if E is less than 0.5 V, increasing the air gap flux per pole will result in a decrease in the back EMF (E). In this case, the motor speed increases because the torque required to overcome the load remains constant, but the reduced back EMF allows the motor to rotate at a higher speed.
Therefore, the relationship between air gap flux per pole and motor speed in a de shunt motor depends on the applied voltage, with different effects observed based on whether E is greater than or less than 0.5 V.

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SINUSOIDAL OSCILLATOR: The following circuit is a sinusoidal oscillator. The band-pass filter is constructed using a GIC. a) Write the transfer function, \( \boldsymbol{V}_{\text {gic }} / \boldsymbol

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The circuit given below is a sinusoidal oscillator. The bandpass filter of this circuit is constructed using GIC. The transfer function of the GIC is used to determine the gain of the GIC.

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To find out the transfer function, [tex]\(\large\frac{V_{gic}}{V_o}\)[/tex] of the GIC, we need to know the transfer function of the GIC itself, which is given as,

[tex]\(\large V_{out} = \frac{Z_1}{Z_4} \cdot \frac{Z_3}{Z_2} \cdot V_{in}\)[/tex]

Here, \(Z_1\) and \(Z_4\) are the input and output impedances of the GIC, respectively. Similarly, \(Z_2\) and \(Z_3\) are the feedback components of the GIC.

Since the GIC is a differential amplifier, [tex]\(Z_1 = Z_4 = R\) and \(Z_2 = Z_3 = \frac{1}{sC}\)[/tex], which means the GIC transfer function is given as,

[tex]\(\large V_{out} = \frac{R}{\frac{1}{sC}} \cdot \frac{\frac{1}{sC}}{\frac{1}{sC}} \cdot V_{in} = RCs V_{in}\)[/tex]

Now, to find the transfer function of the bandpass filter, we need to determine the impedance of the capacitors and resistors used in the circuit. The impedance of the capacitor is given by \(\large\frac{1}{sC}\) and the impedance of the resistor is given by \(R\).

Now, the input impedance of the bandpass filter is given by,

[tex]\(\large Z_{in} = R + \frac{1}{sC}\)[/tex]

Similarly, the output impedance of the bandpass filter is given by,

[tex]\(\large Z_{out} = \frac{1}{sC}\)[/tex]
Therefore, the transfer function of the bandpass filter is given as,

[tex]\(\large \frac{V_{out}}{V_{in}} = \frac{\frac{1}{sC}}{R + \frac{1}{sC}} = \frac{1}{1 + sRC}\)[/tex]

Finally, we can determine the transfer function,[tex]\(\large\frac{V_{gic}}{V_o}\)[/tex]of the GIC using the transfer function of the bandpass filter.

[tex]\(\large\frac{V_{gic}}{V_o} = \frac{1}{1 + sRC}\)[/tex]

Therefore, the transfer function of the GIC is[tex]\(\large\frac{V_{gic}}{V_o} = \frac{1}{1 + sRC}\).[/tex]

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What is the purpose of placing a large electrolytic capacitor in the output side of a power supply? A. To hold a charge after the supply is turned off B. To remove AC ripple from the DC output C. To rectify the AC current D. To prevent the DC from reversing polarity

Answers

The purpose of placing a large electrolytic capacitor in the output side of a power supply is to remove AC ripple from the DC output.An electrolytic capacitor is a special type of capacitor that uses an electrolyte to achieve a larger capacitance than other capacitor types.

The construction of an electrolytic capacitor includes two aluminum foils separated by an electrolyte, where one foil works as the anode and the other as the cathode. Electrolytic capacitors can store more charge than a non-electrolytic capacitor of similar physical size.The Purpose of placing a large electrolytic capacitor in the output side of a power supplyThe main purpose of placing a large electrolytic capacitor in the output side of a power supply is to remove AC ripple from the DC output. When an AC voltage is rectified, some small AC voltage is still left, which is known as AC ripple.

This AC ripple is removed by the electrolytic capacitor present in the output side of the power supply.In addition to this, the electrolytic capacitor also helps to reduce the voltage variations in the DC output voltage. The capacitor helps to maintain a steady voltage level by supplying additional current to the output load during voltage drops, which in turn ensures that the DC output voltage doesn't drop below a certain level. As a result, the electrolytic capacitor helps to provide a stable and clean DC output voltage.The option that describes the purpose of placing a large electrolytic capacitor in the output side of a power supply is option B - to remove AC ripple from the DC output.

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In the hydrogen atom with n = 4, find the permitted values of the orbital magnetic quantum number m₁.

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the permitted values of the orbital magnetic quantum number m₁ for the hydrogen atom with n = 4 are 0, -1, 1, -2, 2, -3, and 3.

In the hydrogen atom, the orbital magnetic quantum number, denoted by m₁, specifies the orientation of the orbital within a given energy level. The permitted values of m₁ can range from -ℓ to +ℓ, where ℓ is the azimuthal quantum number.

For the hydrogen atom with n = 4, the possible values of ℓ range from 0 to n-1. So, for n = 4, we have ℓ = 0, 1, 2, and 3.

For each value of ℓ, the corresponding permitted values of m₁ range from -ℓ to +ℓ. Therefore, the permitted values of m₁ for n = 4 are:

For ℓ = 0: m₁ = 0

For ℓ = 1: m₁ = -1, 0, 1

For ℓ = 2: m₁ = -2, -1, 0, 1, 2

For ℓ = 3: m₁ = -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3

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Question 22 1 points
(CLO-3) A resistor is made of a material whose temperature coefficient of resistivity is α= 2.5×10-3(°C)-1. By how much the temperature increases (∆T= T.T0 in C (degree Celsius). If the resistance value increases from R0 to 1.07×Re?
Enter your answer as positive decimal number with 1 digital after the decimal point. Don't enter the unit "C".

Answers

Therefore, the temperature increase is 28°C.

Given the temperature coefficient of resistivity, α = 2.5 × 10⁻³ (°C)⁻¹

The temperature increase is ∆T = T - T₀

Let R₀ be the resistance at temperature T₀

Let R be the resistance at temperature, the formula for the resistance is given by;

R = R₀(1 + α∆T)

At temperature T, the resistance is 1.07 × R₀;

R = 1.07 × R₀

We can substitute this value of R into the formula above;

1.07R₀ = R₀(1 + α∆T)

We can cancel out the R₀ on both sides and simplify the equation to find the value of ∆T;1.07

= 1 + α∆Tα∆T

= 1.07 - 1α∆T

= 0.07∆T

= 0.07 / α∆T

= 0.07 / 2.5 × 10⁻³∆T

= 28°C (to one decimal place)

Therefore, the temperature increase is 28°C.

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Take a vector with components A=3.17i-hat +3.06j-hat. What is the magnitude of this vector and angle in degrees from the x-axis? Answer to 3 sig figs without units. A= magnitude angle deg.

Answers

The magnitude of this vector and angle in degrees from the x-axis Magnitude: |A| ≈ 4.31Angle: θ ≈ 46.3°

A = 3.17i-hat + 3.06j-hatTo find, Magnitude and angle in degree from the x-axis Magnitude:

The magnitude of the vector is given by,|A| = √(Ax2 + Ay2)

Ax = 3.17, Ay = 3.06|A| = √(3.17² + 3.06²)≈ 4.31 (rounded to 3 significant figures)

The magnitude of the vector is 4.31.

Angle θ which the vector makes with the x-axis can be calculated using the formula,θ = tan-1 (Ay / Ax)Where, Ax = 3.17, Ay = 3.06θ = tan-1 (3.06 / 3.17)≈ 46.3° (rounded to 3 significant figures)

The angle θ which the vector makes with the x-axis is 46.3°.

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Thermocouples are made from joining two wires with different compositions. When heated, the differences in the temperature dependence on resistivity results in a predictable potential difference across the junction allowing a temperature measurement. If you connect the thermocouple to the readout backwards, you get erroneous measurements, so it is important to know which wire is which even though they look identical. One way is to flick the wires and see how they respond. Softer wires will plastically deform, while stiffer wires will spring back when `flicked`. If you had a thermocouple made from wires of Pt metal and a Pt/Rh wire (both wires look identical), explain how the flick test would be useful for identifying each wire.

Answers

Thermocouples are temperature sensors that are made by joining two wires of dissimilar materials.

When heated, the temperature-dependent resistivity differences result in a predictable potential difference across the junction, which can be used to measure temperature.

When connected to the readout backwards, you will get erroneous measurements, so it is important to know which wire is which even though they look identical.

The flick test is one method for identifying the wires. When flicked, softer wires will plastically deform, while stiffer wires will spring back.

Pt metal and a Pt/Rh wire make up one thermocouple, and the flick test can be used to identify each wire if they look identical.

The wire of Pt will be stiffer when flicked than the Pt/Rh wire, and the wire of Pt will be plastically deformed when flicked than the Pt/Rh wire.

This is how the flick test may be helpful in identifying each wire.

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A circular waveguide (not mounted on a ground plane), operating in the dominant TE11 mode, is used as an antenna radiating in free-space. Write in simplified form the normalized far-zone electric field components radiated by the waveguide antenna. You do not have to derive them.

Answers

The normalized far-zone electric field components radiated by the waveguide antenna operating in the dominant TE11 mode can be given. The normalized far-zone electric field components radiated by the waveguide antenna are given as (sinθ/θ ).

In the dominant TE11 mode of a circular waveguide, the normalized far-zone electric field components radiated by the waveguide antenna are given by the function (sinθ/θ ) where θ represents the radiation angle from the normal of the antenna in the far zone.

The normalized far-zone electric field components radiated by the waveguide antenna are given as (sinθ/θ ).

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A particle undergoes damped harmonic motion. The spring constant is 74 N/m; the damping constant is 6.0 x 10-3 kg∙m/s, and the mass is 0.07 kg. If the particle starts at its maximum displacement, xm = 1.7m, at time t = 0 s, what is the amplitude of the motion at t = 3.0 s? .......... m, round to two decimal places.

Answers

The amplitude of the motion at t = 3.0 s is given by the magnitude of the displacement of the particle at that time:

|x(3.0)| = 1.7 e^(-9) cos(244.77)≈ 0.06 m (rounded to two decimal places)Therefore, the amplitude of the motion at t = 3.0 s is approximately 0.06 m (rounded to two decimal places).

The amplitude of the motion at t

= 3.0s for the given values of the spring constant, damping constant, mass and maximum displacement can be calculated as follows:Given that the mass of the particle is m

= 0.07 kg, the spring constant is k

= 74 N/m and the damping constant is c

= 6.0 × 10-3 kg.m/s.The equation of motion for a damped harmonic oscillator is given by:m(d2x/dt2) + c(dx/dt) + kx

= 0Where x is the displacement of the particle at time t and dx/dt and d2x/dt2 are the first and second derivatives of x with respect to time. For the given values, the solution to the above differential equation can be written as:x(t)

= A e^(-c/2m)t cos(wt + φ)where A is the amplitude, φ is the phase angle and w is the angular frequency of the motion which is given by:w

= sqrt(k/m - (c/2m)^2)We are given that the particle starts at its maximum displacement, xm

= 1.7 m at time t

= 0 s. Hence,x(0)

= A cos φ

= 1.7 m and dx/dt(0)

= -Aw sin φ

= 0

where w = square root(k/m - (c/2m)^2)

A = xm/cosφ

Let's find the value of A as follows:

A = xm/cos φ

= 1.7/cos φdx/dt(0)

= -Aw sin φ

= 0

Therefore,

sin φ

= 0

=> φ

= 0 (since cos φ cannot be zero)

Substituting the given values for m, c and k in the expression for w, we have:w

= square root(k/m - (c/2m)^2)

= square root(74/0.07 - (6.0 × 10^-3/2 × 0.07)^2)

= 81.59 rad/sNow, substituting the given values of A and φ in the expression for x(t), we have:

x(t) = A e^(-c/2m)t cos(wt + φ)

= 1.7 e^(-3t) cos(81.59t)

The amplitude of the motion at t

= 3.0 s is given by the magnitude of the displacement of the particle at that time:

|x(3.0)|

= 1.7 e^(-9) cos(244.77)

≈ 0.06 m (rounded to two decimal places)

Therefore, the amplitude of the motion at t

= 3.0 s is approximately 0.06 m (rounded to two decimal places).

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what is the rate at which the current though a 0.478-h coil is changing if an emf of 0.157 v is induced across the coil?

Answers

The rate at which the current though a 0.478-h coil is changing if an emf of 0.157 v is induced across the coil is 0.329 A/s.

According to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, a voltage is induced across a conductor that is exposed to a changing magnetic field. The magnitude of the induced emf is directly proportional to the rate of change of the magnetic field. The equation for this relationship is:ε = -N(dΦ/dt), where ε is the induced emf, N is the number of turns in the coil, and (dΦ/dt) is the rate of change of the magnetic flux through the coil.

In this case, the induced emf is given as 0.157 V. The number of turns in the coil is not given, but it is not necessary to know it in order to find the rate of change of the current. Therefore, the equation can be rewritten as:(dI/dt) = ε / L, where L is the inductance of the coil.

Substituting the given values gives:(dI/dt) = 0.157 / 0.478 = 0.329 A/s

Therefore, the rate at which the current through the 0.478 H coil is changing is 0.329 A/s.

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The kinetic energy of a spinning top can be written in terms of the Euler angles (ϕ,θ,ψ)

2
T-(siu* +6) + ++)
?,
т

(3)
, where I and I_3 are the moments of inertia, while the potential energy is of the form:

V = Mgh cose

(4)
where M is mass, g is gravity, and h is the height of the center of mass of the top.
a) This is a messy problem when it comes to solving the equations of motion for the three angles. Thus, a good strategy is to take the Lagrangian L and write the generalized moments conjugate to the coordinates. Deduce the form of p_ψ and p_ϕ.
b) Discuss how many constants of motion there are and why.

PLEASE WRITE THE STEP BY STEP WITH ALL THE ALGEBRA AND ANSWER ALL THE PARAGRAPHS. 2 T-(siu* +6") + ++) ?, т V = Mgh cose

Answers

a) Generalized moments conjugate to the coordinates are:pψ = I3(ϕ' - ψ') cosθpϕ = I2(ϕ' + ψ') sinθ ; b) There are three constants of motion.

a) The generalized momentum conjugate to ψ and ϕ respectively are pψ and pϕ. The Lagrangian is given by: L = T - V, where T is kinetic energy and V is potential energy.

The Euler angles (ϕ, θ, ψ) describe the orientation of a spinning top with respect to the reference frame. The Euler angles are not constant, but the angular momentum vector is constant, L. Let's first calculate T and V.

T = ½ I₁(θ')2 + ½ I₂((ϕ' + ψ')sinθ)2 + ½ I₃((ϕ' - ψ')cosθ)2 where I₁, I₂, and I₃ are the moments of inertia and θ', ϕ', and ψ' are the angular velocities. Potential energy V = Mgh cosθ

Thus, the Lagrangian is given b y L = ½ I₁(θ')2 + ½ I₂((ϕ' + ψ')sinθ)2 + ½ I₃((ϕ' - ψ')cosθ)2 - Mgh cosθ

The generalized momentum conjugate to a generalized coordinate q is defined as:pq = ∂L/∂q'

The generalized moments conjugate to the coordinates are:pψ = I₃(ϕ' - ψ') cosθpϕ

= I₂(ϕ' + ψ') sinθ

b) The constants of motion can be found from the generalized momenta. Since L is independent of ψ and θ, the generalized moments pψ and pθ are constants of motion. Since L is independent of ϕ, the generalized moment pϕ is also a constant of motion.

There are three constants of motion.

The conservation of energy is due to the time invariance of the Lagrangian and is a consequence of Noether's theorem. In other words, the Euler-Lagrange equations lead to three first integrals. The kinetic energy and potential energy are time-invariant, and so the sum is also time-invariant. Therefore, the total energy is constant.

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name five changes that are made to air to condition it

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The five changes made to air during the conditioning process are cooling, dehumidification, filtering, circulation, and sometimes humidification.

Air conditioning is the process of altering the properties of air to create a more comfortable and suitable environment. There are five changes made to air during the conditioning process:

cooling: Air is cooled by removing heat energy through a refrigeration cycle. This is achieved by passing the air over cold coils or using a heat pump system.dehumidification: Air is dehumidified to reduce the moisture content. This is important for maintaining a comfortable humidity level and preventing the growth of mold and mildew. Dehumidification is achieved by condensing the water vapor present in the air.filtering: Air is filtered to remove dust, pollen, and other airborne particles. This helps improve indoor air quality and reduces the risk of allergies and respiratory issues.circulation: Air is circulated or ventilated to ensure proper air movement and distribution. This helps maintain a consistent temperature throughout the conditioned space.humidification: In some cases, air is humidified to increase the moisture content in dry environments. This is important for preventing dryness of the skin, eyes, and respiratory system.

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Question 8 (Electrical power and reticulation) Explain why voltage is stepped up before being transmitted from a power station through overhead power lines to the consumer. [3] TOTAL MARKS = 70

Answers

The voltage is stepped up before being transmitted from a power station through overhead power lines to the consumer in order to reduce power loss and make the overhead power lines lighter, less expensive to build.

Here is the explanation why voltage is stepped up before being transmitted from a power station through overhead power lines to the consumer:

Power loss is inversely proportional to the square of the current. This means that if we can reduce the current, we can also reduce the power loss.

The current is inversely proportional to the voltage. This means that if we increase the voltage, we can reduce the current.

Therefore, by increasing the voltage, we can reduce the power loss.

In addition, the higher the voltage, the smaller the cross-sectional area of the conductors needed to transmit the same amount of power. This makes the overhead power lines lighter and less expensive to build.

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b. a.6 =w
−1
a C 1.:a QUESTIONT1 parsed a. 3.8=30
−1
A∣ b. 1.5+10
−2
A C
1

=.6×10
−1
A d. a,3=10
1
A QUESTION 12 A series R. circuit, with a resistor of 24Q and an inductor of 0.36H is hooked up to a 9.0 V battery at a time t=0. How long does it take for the current to reach 998 of its steady-state valie? a. 6.9×10
−2
= b. 8.8×10
−3
5 C. 8.65 1.5×10
−2
5
Previous question

Answers

The correct option is a. 6.9×10-2 = tau. The time taken for the current to reach 99.8% of its steady-state value is approximately 0.0104 seconds, which is 6.9×10-2.

First, we need to calculate the time constant of the circuit.

We can obtain it from the formula: τ = L/R, where L is the inductance and R is the resistance.τ = 0.36 H / 24 Ω = 0.015 s

At steady state, the current through the circuit is given by: I = V / RI = 9.0 V / 24 ΩI = 0.375 A

We need to determine the time taken to reach 99.8% of the steady-state value.

This is given by the formula: I = (I_0 - I_s) * e^(-t/tau) + I_s, where I_0 is the initial current (0), I_s is the steady-state current (0.375 A), t is the time elapsed, and tau is the time constant.

99.8% of the steady-state value is given by: I = 0.998 * 0.375 A = 0.37425 A

Substituting the values in the formula and solving for t: 0.37425 A = (0 - 0.375 A) * e^(-t/tau) + 0.375 A0.37425 A - 0.375 A = -0.00075 A = -0.375 A * e^(-t/tau)-0.00075 A / -0.375 A = e^(-t/tau)ln(2) = t / tau

We get: t = tau * ln(2) t = 0.015 s * ln(2) t = 0.0104 s

Thus, the time taken for the current to reach 99.8% of its steady-state value is approximately 0.0104 seconds, which is 6.9×10-2.

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If you have a reductive transformer that costs 7500 voltages in the primary connected to a distribution line of 13.2 KVolts, this in turn feeds to a factory that needs a 440 v voltage with a total current intensity of 70 Amp. Calculate:

a).- The number of flights in the secondary school

b).- The intensity of corriente en el primario

c).- The power of the transformer

Answers

The power of the transformer is 15.84 kW.

the number of turns in the primary is 17.The power of the transformer,

Power = VI

Where, V = voltage and I = current

Primary power, P1 = VP x IP

= 7500 x IP

Secondary power, P2 = VS x IS

= 440 x 70

We know that,

Transformer is a device which converts high voltage and low current into low voltage and high current and vice versa.

So,Power1 = Power2

P1 = P27500 x IP

= 440 x 70IP = 2.112 AP1

= 7500 x 2.112P1 = 15.84 kW

P1 = P2 = 15.84 kW

Therefore, the number of turns in the secondary is 30.The intensity of current in the primary is 2.112 A.

The power of the transformer is 15.84 kW.

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1) A photon of initial energy 0.1 MeV undergoes Compton scattering at an angle of 60°. Find (a) the kinetic energy of the electron after recoil, and the recoil angle of the electron. 2) A photon of violet light (= 4000 A) is backscattered in a Compton collision with an electron. How much energy is transferred to the electron in this collision? 3) Compare the de Broglie wavelength (a) of an electron having a K.E of 1 keV with that of X-rays of same energy. 4) If the position of a 5 keV electron is located within 2 A, what is the percentage uncertainty in its momentum? 5) A particle is confined between -L/2 < x < L/2 of an infinitely deep potential. Calculate the wave functions and probability densities for the states n=1, 2 and 3 and sketch them.

Answers

1) The recoil angle of the electron,

φ = 121.9°

2) The energy transferred to the electron in this collision is given by 2.49 × 10^-19 J

3) The de Broglie wavelength of an electron having a kinetic energy of 1 keV is much larger than that of X-rays of the same energy.

4) The percentage uncertainty in the momentum of the electron is given by 1.00%

1) The initial energy of the photon, E = 0.1 MeV

The recoil angle of the electron, θ = 60°

The kinetic energy of the electron after recoil is given by

K.E. = E1 - E2

where E1 is the initial energy of the photon and E2 is the energy of the scattered photon.

So, the energy of the scattered photon is given by

E2 = (E^2 + E1^2 - 2EE1cosθ)/ (1 + E/E1(1 - cosθ))

= (0.1^2 + 0.1^2 - 2(0.1)(0.1)cos60°)/(1 + 0.1/0.1(1 - cos60°))

= 0.074 MeV

Therefore, the kinetic energy of the electron after recoil is

K.E. = E1 - E2

= 0.1 - 0.074

= 0.026 MeV

The recoil angle of the electron,

φ = 180° - θ + sin^-1(h/mc)(1 - cosθ)

where h is Planck's constant, m is the mass of the electron, and c is the speed of light.

φ = 180° - 60° + sin^-1(4.136 × 10^-15/9.11 × 10^-31 × 3 × 10^8)(1 - cos60°)

= 120° + sin^-1(0.0333)

= 120° + 1.9°

= 121.9°

2) The energy of the photon,

E = hc/λ

= (6.63 × 10^-34 × 3 × 10^8)/(4000 × 10^-10)

= 4.97 × 10^-19 J

The energy of the scattered photon is given by

E2 = E/(1 + E/mc^2(1 - cosθ))

= 4.97 × 10^-19/(1 + 4.97 × 10^-19/(9.11 × 10^-31 × 3 × 10^8^2)(1 - cos180°))

= 2.48 × 10^-19 J

The energy transferred to the electron in this collision is given by

E1 - E2= 4.97 × 10^-19 - 2.48 × 10^-19

= 2.49 × 10^-19 J

3) The de Broglie wavelength of an electron having a kinetic energy of 1 keV is given by

λ = h/p

where p is the momentum of the electron.

So, the momentum of the electron is given by

p = √(2mK.E.)

= √(2 × 9.11 × 10^-31 × 1000 × 1.6 × 10^-19)

= 1.165 × 10^-24 kg m/s

Therefore, the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is given by

λ = h/p

= 6.63 × 10^-34/1.165 × 10^-24

= 5.70 × 10^-10 m

The de Broglie wavelength of X-rays of the same energy is given by

λ = hc/E

= (6.63 × 10^-34 × 3 × 10^8)/(1000 × 1.6 × 10^-19)

= 4.14 × 10^-12 m

Therefore, the de Broglie wavelength of an electron having a kinetic energy of 1 keV is much larger than that of X-rays of the same energy.

4) The uncertainty in the position of the electron is

Δx = 2 Å

= 2 × 10^-10 m

The uncertainty in the momentum of the electron is given by

Δp = h/2

Δx= (6.63 × 10^-34)/(2 × 2 × 10^-10)

= 1.66 × 10^-24 kg m/s

Therefore, the percentage uncertainty in the momentum of the electron is given by

% uncertainty

= (Δp/p) × 100%

= (1.66 × 10^-24/(9.11 × 10^-31 × 5000 × 3 × 10^8)) × 100%

= 1.00%

5) The wave functions for the states n = 1, 2, and 3 are given by

ψ1(x) = √(2/L)sin(πx/L)

ψ2(x) = √(2/L)sin(2πx/L)

ψ3(x) = √(2/L)sin(3πx/L)

The probability densities for the states n = 1, 2, and 3 are given by

|ψ1(x)|^2 = (2/L)sin^2(πx/L)

|ψ2(x)|^2 = (2/L)sin^2(2πx/L)

|ψ3(x)|^2 = (2/L)sin^2(3πx/L)

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Q1-a)- Design circuit to simulate the following differential equation \[ \frac{d y(t)}{d t}+y(t)=4 x(t) \] Where \( y(t) \) is the output and \( x(t) \) is the input b) - For the circuit shown in Figu

Answers

Given differential equation is:

\[\frac{dy(t)}{dt}+y(t)=4x(t)\]

In order to design a circuit to simulate the given differential equation, we can use Operational Amplifiers and its properties. Operational Amplifier has a property that it has infinite input resistance, which means that it will not load the input signal and also it has very high gain, which means it will amplify the signal to a very large extent.

We can use these properties to create a circuit that simulates the given differential equation.The differential equation can be written as:

\[\frac{dy(t)}{dt}=-y(t)+4x(t)\]

Now, taking Laplace Transform of both sides, we get:

\[sY(s)+y(0)=-Y(s)+4X(s)\]

Solving for Y(s), we get:

\[Y(s)=

\frac{4X(s)+y(0)}{s+1}\]

From the above equation, we can see that the Laplace Transform of the output signal is related to the Laplace Transform of the input signal, X(s), by a transfer function that has a pole at s=-1 and a zero at s=0. This suggests that we can create a circuit that has this transfer function by using an Operational Amplifier.In order to create a circuit with the given transfer function.

Now, taking the Inverse Laplace Transform of the above equation, we get:

\[v_{out}(t)=

\frac{R_2}{R_1}e^{-t}

\int_{0}^{t} e^{u}v_{in}(u) du\]

Comparing this with the equation for y(t), we can see that the circuit shown above simulates the given differential equation.

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how
far in minutes is earth from uranus
how long does it take light to
cross the diameter of ghe milky way galaxy

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In terms of minutes, it would take light about 160 minutes or 2 hours and 40 minutes to travel from Earth to Uranus. It would take light approximately 100,000 years to cross the diameter of the Milky Way galaxy.

The distance between Earth and Uranus and the time it takes for light to cross the diameter of the Milky Way galaxy are as follows:

Earth to Uranus: The average distance from Earth to Uranus varies depending on their positions in their respective orbits around the Sun. On average, the distance between Earth and Uranus is approximately 2.871 billion kilometers. In terms of minutes, it would take light about 160 minutes or 2 hours and 40 minutes to travel from Earth to Uranus.

Light crossing the diameter of the Milky Way: The Milky Way galaxy has a diameter of about 100,000 light-years. Since light travels at a speed of approximately 299,792 kilometers per second, we can calculate the time it takes for light to cross the diameter of the Milky Way.

Using the formula: Time = Distance / Speed

Distance = 100,000 light-years * 9.461 trillion kilometers (conversion factor)

Distance ≈ 946,100,000,000,000 kilometers

Time = 946,100,000,000,000 kilometers / 299,792 kilometers per second

Time ≈ 3,157,815,750 seconds

Converting seconds to years:

Time ≈ 100,000 years

Therefore, it would take light approximately 100,000 years to cross the diameter of the Milky Way galaxy.

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Calculate the values of g at Earth's surface for the following changes in Earth's properties. Note: use g = 9.8 m/s. You can do all calculations without actually knowing Earth's mass or radius try to do the problem without looking them up. Express all answers rounded to one decimal place. a. its mass is tripled and its radius is quartered 2 g 470.4 m/s Correct! b. its mass density is doubled and its radius is unchanged m/s 919.6 Correct! c. its mass density is doubled and its mass is unchanged. * m/s 919.6 X Incorrect.

Answers

a. The value of g at Earth's surface is 29.4 m/s².

b. The value of g at Earth's surface is 19.6 m/s².

c. The value of g at Earth's surface remains unchanged at 9.8 m/s².

In order to calculate the values of g at Earth's surface for the given changes in Earth's properties, we need to consider the gravitational acceleration formula:

g = G * (M / R²),

where G is the universal gravitational constant, M is the mass of the Earth, and R is the radius of the Earth.

When the mass of the Earth is tripled and its radius is quartered, we can see that the term M/R² increases by a factor of 9 (3²). Therefore, the value of g becomes 9.8 m/s² * 9 = 88.2 m/s². Rounded to one decimal place, it is approximately 29.4 m/s².

When the mass density of the Earth is doubled and its radius remains unchanged, the term M/R² remains the same, as only the mass density is affected. Therefore, the value of g remains unchanged at 9.8 m/s².

When the mass density of the Earth is doubled and its mass remains unchanged, we can observe that the term M/R² remains the same, as both the mass and the radius are unaffected. Therefore, the value of g also remains unchanged at 9.8 m/s².

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The pressure of sulfur dioxide (SO2) is 2.13 x 104 Pa. There are 402 moles of this gas in a volume of 56.8 m2. Find the translational rms speed of the sulfur dioxide molecules. Number Units

Answers

A. The translational rms speed of sulfur dioxide molecules is calculated by taking the square root of the ratio of the average kinetic energy to the mass of the molecule.

B. The formula to calculate the translational rms speed of gas molecules is given by:

v_rms = √(3 * k * T / m)

Where v_rms is the rms speed, k is the Boltzmann constant, T is the temperature in Kelvin, and m is the molar mass of the gas.

First, we need to convert the pressure from pascals to atmospheres:

1 atm = 101325 Pa

P = 2.13 x 10^4 Pa / 101325 Pa/atm ≈ 0.210 atm

Next, we can use the ideal gas law to find the temperature:

PV = nRT

T = PV / (nR) = (0.210 atm) * (56.8 m^3) / (402 mol * 0.08206 atmm^3 / (molK)) ≈ 4.97 K

The molar mass of sulfur dioxide (SO2) is approximately 64 g/mol.

Now we can substitute the values into the formula:

v_rms = √(3 * k * T / m) = √(3 * 1.38 x 10^-23 J/K * 4.97 K / (0.064 kg/mol * 10^-3 kg/g * 1 mol/6.02 x 10^23 molecules) ≈ 457 m/s

Therefore, the translational rms speed of sulfur dioxide molecules is approximately 457 m/s.

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An SCR has a breakover voltage of 350 V, a trigger current of 12 mA and holding current of 12 mA. a) Explain your understanding. b) What will happen if gate current is made 20mA?

Answers

An SCR (Silicon Controlled Rectifier) is a four-layer PNPN device with three regions. The NPN transistor’s emitter, the P-base layer, and the PNP transistor’s emitter are the three areas. The region between the NPN transistor’s collector and the PNP transistor’s base is the fourth area. It has three terminals, namely the anode, cathode, and gate terminals.

a)ExplanationThe breakover voltage is the minimum voltage required across an SCR’s anode and cathode to turn it on. As a result, at a voltage of 350 V, the SCR will turn on. The holding current is the minimum current needed through the device to keep it in the conducting state after it has been turned on, which is 12m A.The current needed to initiate and keep an SCR conducting is referred to as trigger current. The trigger current, which is 12mA, is the minimum current required to maintain the SCR’s state of conduction.b)What happens if gate current is made 20mA?In SCR, the gate is used to control the flow of current through the device.

The gate current helps in breaking down the potential barrier, allowing the main current to flow. As a result, if the gate current is increased from 12mA to 20mA, the SCR will become conductive at a lower voltage and will be able to hold more current. This implies that an increase in gate current will result in an SCR conducting at lower voltages, which may result in a loss of control over the device. Therefore, it is critical to keep the gate current within the limits.

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please show complete
solution
In a storage ring the electron energy is 1.5 GeV and the radius of bending magnets is 3.5 m. What is the critical wavelength and the critical energy?

Answers

The radius of bending magnets is 3.5 m and the electron energy is 1.5 GeV. We need to determine the critical wavelength and the critical energy. Solution:

Given electron energy,[tex]E = 1.5 GeV = 1.5 × 10³ MeV = 1.5 × 10³ × 10⁶ eV[/tex]

The radius of bending magnets, R = 3.5 m Speed of light in vacuum, c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s

Charge of an electron, e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C

Planck's constant, h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J.s

The critical wavelength, λc is given by,λc = h / √2πmcE

where,m = mass of the electron = 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ kg

The critical energy, Ec is given by,Ec = hc / λc

where, c is the speed of light in vacuum, and λc is the critical wavelength.

Substituting the values in the above equations,

[tex]Ec = (6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J.s × 3 × 10⁸ m/s) / (0.035 × 10⁻⁹ m)≈ 180 GeV[/tex]

Therefore, the critical wavelength is approximately 0.035 nm, and the critical energy is approximately 180 GeV.

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Question 4 1 pts A hydrogen atom has an electron in the n =10 state. What is the speed of this electron in the Bohr model (in km)? Question 5 1 pts An element, X, has an atomic mass 413.215u. This element is unstable and decays by alpha decay. a, with a half life of 4d. The alpha particle is emitted with a kinetic energy of 6MeV. Initially there are 6.36x10¹2 atoms present in a sample. Determine the initial activity of the sample (in µCi) Question 6 1 pts A solid block of a certain material has a volume Vo at 20°C. The volume of the block increases by 1.445% when the temperature increases to Ty. The coefficient of volume expansion is = 129.101x10 6(C-¹). Determine the final temperature T, (in °C).

Answers

Question 4 In the Bohr model, the speed of an electron in the nth orbit is given by:

v = [(Z)(e^2)]/{4πε_o(n)h}Where, v is the speed of the electron, Z is the atomic number of the element, e is the charge on the electron, ε_o is the permittivity of free space, h is Planck's constant, and n is the principal quantum number.

For the hydrogen atom, Z = 1 and n = 10.So, v = [(1)(9 x 10^9 x (1.602 x 10^-19)^2)]/{4π(8.85 x 10^-12)(10)(6.626 x 10^-34)}= 2.19 x 10^6 m/s= 2190 km/s (approx.)Therefore, the speed of the electron in the Bohr model is approximately 2190 km/s.

Question 5 The radioactive decay law is given by:

N(t) = N₀e^(-λt)where, N₀ is the initial number of radioactive nuclei, N(t) is the number of radioactive nuclei after time t, and λ is the decay constant.

The initial activity of a sample is given by:

A₀ = λN₀where, A₀ is the initial activity of the sample.If the half-life of the radioactive decay is 4 days, then the decay constant, λ = 0.693/4 = 0.1735 day⁻¹.

The number of radioactive nuclei in the sample after time t is given by:

N(t) = N₀e^(-λt)The number of radioactive nuclei in the sample after the decay of one alpha particle is N(1) = N₀e^(-λ)At t = 4 days, the number of alpha particles decayed, n = t/T½= 4/4 = 1.

The remaining number of radioactive nuclei, N = N₀e^(-λ)So, the initial number of radioactive nuclei in the sample, N₀ = 6.36 x 10¹²The number of radioactive nuclei remaining in the sample after one alpha decay, N = N₀e^(-λ) = (6.36 x 10¹²)(e^(-0.1735 x 4))= 5.05 x 10¹²The activity of the sample after one alpha decay, A = λN₀e^(-λ)= (0.1735)(6.36 x 10¹²)(e^(-0.1735 x 4))= 3.99 x 10¹⁴ decay/sThe kinetic energy of the alpha particle, E = 6 MeV = 6 x 10⁶ eV= 6 x 10⁶ x 1.602 x 10^-19 JThe conversion factor of MeV to J is 1 MeV = 1.602 x 10^-13 J.So, E = 6 x 1.602 x 10^-13 J= 9.612 x 10^-13 JThe activity of the sample can be converted to microcurie using the following conversion factor:1 decay/s = 3.7 x 10⁻¹⁰ CiTherefore, the initial activity of the sample is A₀ = λN₀= (0.1735)(6.36 x 10¹²)= 1.15 x 10¹² decay/s= 1.15 x 10¹² x 3.7 x 10⁻¹⁰ = 425 µCi (approx.)Therefore, the initial activity of the sample is approximately 425 µCi.

Question 6 The volume expansion of a solid block due to temperature change is given by:

ΔV/V₀ = αΔTwhere, ΔV is the change in volume, V₀ is the initial volume, α is the coefficient of volume expansion, and ΔT is the change in temperature.The final volume, V = V₀ + ΔVThe final temperature, T = T₀ + ΔTwhere, T₀ is the initial temperature.ΔV/V₀ = 1.445/100= 0.01445α = 129.101 x 10⁻⁶ C⁻¹So, ΔT = ΔV/V₀α= (0.01445)/(129.101 x 10⁻⁶)= 112.01 K (approx.)The final temperature, T = T₀ + ΔT= 20 + 112.01= 132.01°C (approx.)Therefore, the final temperature of the solid block is approximately 132.01°C.

About Bohr model

Bohr model put forward Electrons in atoms move around the nucleus in certain trajectories, do not emit energy. These electron trajectories are called electron shells or energy levels. These observed spectral lines are formed due to electrons transitioning between two different energy levels in their atoms. Thus, Bohr explained the emission from the hydrogen atom when the electron jumps or transitions from high to low energy levels based on his atomic theory.

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(b) Examine the circuit diagram shown in Fig. 5 and answer the question that follows. (The transistor is a Si transistor with a beta value of 80 .) (i) Calculate the current \( I_{B} \). (ii) Calculat

Answers

The current, IB is 70μA; the collector current, IC is 5.6mA, and the voltage between the collector and emitter, VCE is 1.49V.

The transistor is properly biased, it can amplify an AC signal at its input while providing isolation between its input and output.The operation of a transistor as an amplifier is due to the characteristics of the transistor.

There are two types of transistor namely the NPN and PNP. In this case, the transistor is an NPN transistor, it is biased in such a way that the base-emitter junction is forward-biased and the collector-base junction is reverse-biased.

The general expression for the current gain (β) of a transistor is: β = IC/IB,

where IC is the collector current and IB is the base current.

(i) We can calculate IB from the equation below:IB = (VBE / RB) = (0.7 / 10,000) = 70μA

(ii) The collector current IC can be calculated using the expression: IC = βIB = (80 × 70μA) = 5.6mA

(iii) The voltage between the collector and emitter, VCE can be obtained from the formula: VCE = VC – VE = VCC – ICRC – VBE = 12V – (5.6mA × 2.2kΩ) – 0.7V = 1.49V

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in the thick segment of the ascending limb of the nephron loop, k reenters the cell from the interstitial fluid via the _________. k is then secreted into the tubular fluid.

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In the thick segment of the ascending limb of the nephron loop, K+ enters the cell from the interstitial fluid via the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

In the thick ascending limb of the nephron loop, the transport of ions across the luminal membrane is responsible for the secretion of potassium into the tubular fluid. The cells of the thick ascending limb reabsorb about 25% of the filtered load of NaCl. In the thick ascending limb, Na+ is reabsorbed via the Na+/K+/2Cl- co-transporter, while K+ is secreted via the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

The Na+/K+ ATPase pump plays a crucial role in maintaining the electrochemical gradient across the plasma membrane of cells. It uses ATP to pump 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell. The sodium-potassium pump is vital for several cellular functions, including muscle contraction, nerve transmission, and osmotic regulation.

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Potassium-40 has a half-life of 1.25 billion years. If a rock sample contains 1096 Potassium-40 atoms for every 1000 its daughter atoms, then how old is this rock sample? Your answer should be significant to three digits.

Answers

The given decay equation is K-40 → Ar-40, where Potassium-40 decays into Argon-40. The half-life of Potassium-40 is given as 1.25 billion years.

Now, consider a rock sample that contains 1096 Potassium-40 atoms for every 1000 its daughter atoms. This can be mathematically represented as follows:K-40/Ar-40 = 1096/1000

Simplifying the above equation, we get:K-40 = (1096/1000) × Ar-40

Since Potassium-40 and Argon-40 are isotopes, they have the same atomic mass, but their atomic numbers differ by 1. Hence, their atomic weights are slightly different. The atomic weight of Potassium-40 is 39.9624 u, and that of Argon-40 is 39.9624 u.

Hence, both isotopes have the same number of protons and electrons but differ in the number of neutrons in their nuclei.To find the age of the rock sample, we can use the following formula: t = (t1/2) × log(base 2) (N0/Nt), where:

N0 = initial number of radioactive nuclei

Nt = final number of radioactive nuclei (or number of radioactive nuclei after time t)t1/2

= half-life of the radioactive substancet

= age of the rock sampleSubstituting the given values in the formula,

t = (1.25 × 10^9) × log(base 2) (1096/1000)

t = 621.9 million years

Therefore, the age of the rock sample is 621.9 million years, significant to three digits.

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A cylinder fitted with a piston has a volume of 0.2 m? and contains 1 kg of steam at 300 kPa.
Heat is transferred to the steam until the temperature is 400 C, while the pressure remains
constant. Determine the heat transfer and the work for this process.

Answers

The heat transfer and work for this process are 554.1 kJ and 47,000 J, respectively. The gas law equation (PV = nRT) is used to calculate the final volume.

Step 1: Identify known values and convert them into SI units. Volume = 0.2 m³Pressure = 300 kPa, Temperature = 400 °C, Mass = 1 kg

Step 2: Find the final volume of the system since the pressure is constant. The gas law equation (PV = nRT) is used to calculate the final volume. V₁ = nRT / PInitial volume, V₂ = 0.2 m³, pressure P = 300 kPa = 300,000 Pa, R = 0.287 kJ/kg K (gas constant), and n = m/M, where m = 1 kg and M = 18.01528 kg/kmol (molar mass of steam)

Hence, V₁ = (1 kg × 0.287 kJ/kg K × 673 K) / (300,000 Pa × 18.01528 kg/kmol)

= 0.0435 m³

Step 3: Find the work done during the process.

The work done, W = PΔV, where ΔV is the change in volume.ΔV = V₁ - V₂

= 0.0435 m³ - 0.2 m³

= -0.1565 m³

Hence, W = -300,000 Pa × -0.1565 m³

= 47,000 J (work done by the gas)

Step 4: Determine the heat transfer during the process.

Q = mCΔT, where C is the specific heat capacity of steam at constant pressure. C = 1.847 kJ/kg KΔT

= T₂ - T₁

= 400 °C - 100 °C

= 300 K

Hence, Q = 1 kg × 1.847 kJ/kg K × 300 K

= 554.1 kJ (heat absorbed by the gas)

Therefore, the heat transfer and work for this process are 554.1 kJ and 47,000 J, respectively.

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The Schwarzschild radius is the distance from the singularity of a black hole to the event horizon. What is the event horizon? The stream of X-rays emitted by a black hole The hypothetical edge of a black hole where the escape velocity is the speed of light. The region of space just outside the black hole The region of space inside a black hole The center of a black hole.

Answers

The event horizon is the hypothetical edge of a black hole where the escape velocity is the speed of light.

The event horizon is the boundary around a black hole beyond which nothing, not even light, can escape. It is the point of no return, where the gravitational pull of the black hole becomes so strong that the escape velocity required to overcome it exceeds the speed of light.

Any object or radiation that crosses the event horizon is effectively trapped within the black hole's gravitational field and cannot escape. The event horizon is considered the boundary between the region of space just outside the black hole and the region inside the black hole, where the singularity is located at the center.

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The early refrigerant compressor design resembled Automobile engines O Steam engines O Water pumps O None of the above O

Answers

The compressor design, however, has come a long way over the years. Nowadays, compressors are more efficient and compact, and are designed to fit into small spaces. They also require less maintenance than their predecessors.

The early refrigerant compressor design resembled the water pumps. A refrigerant compressor is a mechanical component of a refrigeration system that is used to compress the refrigerant into a high-pressure gas. This compressed gas flows through the condenser, where it is converted back into a liquid.The early refrigerant compressor design resembled water pumps. In the early days of refrigeration, the compressors were bulky and less efficient. The design of the refrigerant compressors of those days was much similar to that of the water pumps.The compressor design, however, has come a long way over the years. Nowadays, compressors are more efficient and compact, and are designed to fit into small spaces. They also require less maintenance than their predecessors.

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1. In the figure below, what is the energy transformation after the generator to heating of water?

a. electrical to thermal

b. electrical to mechanical

c. mechanical to thermal

d. mechanical to electrical

2. In the figure below, what is the starting form of energy for the water to be boiled?

a. thermal

b. mechanical

c. chemical

d. electrical

2.1. What are the type/s of energy that is/are present in the figure below?

a. electrical

b. thermal

c. solar

d. mechanical

e. chemical

Answers

1. After the generator to heating of water, the energy transformation is: electrical to thermal. When the water passes through the generator, it rotates a magnet inside a wire coil, which causes the generation of electricity. The electrical energy from the generator is then transmitted to an electric kettle.

2. The starting form of energy for the water to be boiled is: thermal. The water to be boiled has a thermal form of energy, which is then transformed into thermal energy again.

2.1. The type/s of energy that is/are present in the figure below are: electrical and thermal. Electrical energy is present because the generator uses magnetism and electricity to generate electricity. Thermal energy is present because the electric kettle converts electrical energy into thermal energy to heat water.

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please help (due in 3 days) please help i'm desperate. i've posted this so many times but no one actually does it how its asking. Most ppl say "Sorry but I can only provide a description" blah blah blah. please help me. Calculate the weighted average cost of capital from following data:Source market cost of specific source of capitalDebt 18,000 3.70Preference 9,000 7.0Equity 40,000 9.5Retained earnings 5,000 8.31 A company that produces tracking devices for computer disk drives finds that if it produces a devices per week, its costs will be C(x)= 180x+11,000 and its revenue will be R(x)=-2x^2 +500x (both in dollars).(a) Find the company's break-even points. (Enter your answers as a comma-separated list.) Devices per week __________(b) Find the number of devices that will maximize profit devices per week find the maximum profit ___________ which transport layer feature is used to guarantee session establishment? Write short notes about the Rusternburg Layered Suite of the Bushveld Complex of Southern Africa Assess the extent system involved(organisational,social,,legaland political ) had required supports in place to provide thenecessary support to a result based leader Red blood cell count is typically decreased in HDN because... O a. ...the cells are recognized by the antibodies and destroyed Ob....the antibodies interfere with blood clotting pathways C. ...the newborn child loses a lot of blood during birth O d....blood vessels become fragile and damage more easily Which type of food related activity has been banned entirely in most European countries?Group of answer choicesa Bottom trawlingb Long line fishingc GMO'sd A and B above According to communication researchers, the ideal group size involves how many members?A) 5 to 7 membersB) 15 to 17 membersC) 11 to 13 membersD) 3 to 4 membersE) 8 to 10 members Elevator speeches: (1.5 Points) a. are typically 60 seconds in length. b. are an appropriate response to the question, "What do you do?" c. should focus on your accomplishments in your current position. d. should clarify your professional title. help with proof techniques from discrete mathematics pleaseH3) Prove by counter example: If a sum of two integers is even, then one of the summands is even. #4) Prove by contradiction: if \( 3 n+2 \) is an odd integer, then \( n \) is odd (Hint: odd integer i The 3 main financial statements are Balance Sheet, Income Statement and Cash Flow Statement. Which one of the above 3 is most resistant to accounting shenanigans and why?" From the list below, which is NOT a primary characteristic oforganizational culture?Multiple ChoiceControlTeam emphasisProfitabilityConflict toleranceRisk tolerance which concept, by the end of the zhou era, become the guiding force in nearly every major chinese religious and philosophical tradition? qi shangdi tian shi Determine the location and order of the zeros. (z^2 81)? Home Depot advertises its spring lawn and garden sale on the website as "Close Out Sales." Steve, who lives in Burien, goes into the Tukwila HD store and buys the advertised self-propelled Honda mower for $299. Later that same day, Steve returns to that store and buys the advertised Ryobi battery-operated weed trimmer for $99 and pays for it with his debit card. Steve later discovers the Honda lawn mower is not self-propelled, and the trimmer does not accept the advertised battery size. Home Depot refuses to accept the return for these items claiming the mower was used, the trimmer is part of the close-out sale, and returns are not accepted on those sale items. What are Steves options? what are the specific laws he can utilize against HomeDepot? The IEC 61131 ladder logic symbol library has onlyinput contacts and output symbols available. True or False electronic brainstorming generates more ideas than regular brainstorming groups because: Give the domain and range. x 3 0 3 y 6 0 6 a. domain {3, 0, 3}, range: {6, 0, 6} b. domain {6, 0, 6}, range {3, 0, 3} c. domain {3, 0, 3}, range {6, 0, 6} d. domain {6, 0, 6}, range {3, 0, 3} Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D TRUE / FALSE.Because they are smaller, independent record companies are reluctant to invest in commercially unproven artists.