b. A tape measure is made of a particular material which has a linear thermal expansion coefficient of 20×10
−6
K
−1
. At −10

C, using it you measure a piece of the material (which has a linear thermal expansion coefficient of 80×10
−6
K
−1
) to have a length of 10 m. What length would the tape measure say the piece of material has at 30

C ? Assume the tape measure if marked to the mm level, and give your answer to that level of accuracy. [15 pts]

Answers

Answer 1

The length measurement of the material at `30°C` would be `10.040 m`.

Given that, A tape measure is made of a particular material which has a linear thermal expansion coefficient of `20×10^(-6)` K^(-1).At `-10°C`, using it you measure a piece of the material (which has a linear thermal expansion coefficient of `80×10^(-6)` K^(-1)) to have a length of `10 m`.

We need to find what length the tape measure would say the piece of material has at `30°C`.

Formula used: `∆L = Lα∆T` where, ∆L = Change in length L = Lengthα = Coefficient of linear expansion ∆T = Change in temperature

Length measurement of the material at `-10°C`, L₁ = `10 m`

Coefficient of linear expansion of the material, α₁ = `80×10^(-6)` K^(-1)

To find Length measurement at `30°C`

Coefficient of linear expansion of the tape measure, α₂ = `20×10^(-6)` K^(-1)

Change in temperature, ∆T = (`30°C`) - (`-10°C`) = `40°C`

Change in length, ∆L = Lα∆T = `10×80×10^(-6)×40 = 0.032 m`

Increase in length of the tape measure, ∆L₂ = L₂α₂∆T = `10×20×10^(-6)×40 = 0.008 m`

Total length at `30°C` = L + ∆L + ∆L₂ = `10 + 0.032 + 0.008 = 10.040 m`

Therefore, the length measurement of the material at `30°C` would be `10.040 m`.

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Related Questions

A and B are two reversible Carnot engines which are connected in series working between source temperature of 1500 K and sink temperature of 200 K, respectively. Carnot engine A gets 2000 kJ of heat from the source (maintained at temperature of 1500 K ) and rejects heat to second Carnot engine i.e. B. Carnot engine B takes the heat rejected by Carnot engine A and rejects heat to the sink maintained at temperature 200 K. Assuming Carnot engines A and B have same thermal efficiencies, determine: a. Amount of heat rejected by Carnot engine B b. Amount of work done by each Carnot engines i.e. A and B c. Assuming Carnot engines A and B producing same amount of work, calculate the amount of heat received by Carnot B and d. Thermal efficiency of Carnot engines A and B, respectively.

Answers

Thermal efficiency of Carnot engines A and B, respectively : 87% and 33%

a. Amount of heat rejected by Carnot engine B:  The amount of heat rejected by the Carnot engine B is 1800 kJ.

b. Amount of work done by each Carnot engines i.e. A and B: T

he work done by each Carnot engines i.e. A and B is given as follows:

Engine A: 2000 - W1 = Q1

Engine B: Q1 - W2 = Q2

Where, Q1 = Heat supplied to Engine A = 2000 kJQ2 = Heat rejected by Engine B = W2W1 = Work done by Engine A, W2 = Work done by Engine B

Here, Engines A and B are working with the same efficiency. So, the thermal efficiency of an ideal Carnot engine can be given as: η = 1 - T2/T1 where, T1 is the absolute temperature of the hot body, and T2 is the absolute temperature of the cold body. Therefore, we can write:

Engine A: W1/Q1 = 1 - T2/T1Engine B: W2/Q2 = 1 - T3/T2where, T3 is the temperature of the cold reservoir where Engine B rejects the heat.

Engine A and Engine B have the same efficiencies. So, T1 = T3 and T2 = 200 K

Hence, W1/Q1 = W2/Q2So, W1/W2 = Q1/Q2

Putting the value of Q1, we get:2000 - W1 = Q1⇒ Q1 = 2000 - W1

Putting the value of Q2, we get:

    Q2 = W2Q1/Q2 = W1/W2

⇒ (2000 - W1)/W2 = W1/W2

⇒ 2000 - W1 = W1

⇒ W1 = 1000 kJ

⇒ W2 = Q2 = 1000 kJ

c. Assuming Carnot engines A and B producing the same amount of work, calculate the amount of heat received by Carnot B: Q2 = W2 = 1000 kJ

d. Thermal efficiency of Carnot engines A and B, respectively : The thermal efficiency of an ideal Carnot engine can be given as:η = 1 - T2/T1

where, T1 is the absolute temperature of the hot body, and T2 is the absolute temperature of the cold body.

Engine A: W1/Q1 = 1 - T2/T1

= 1 - 200/1500

= 0.87

= 87%

Engine B: W2/Q2 = 1 - T3/T2

= 1 - 200/300

= 0.33

= 33%

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Drag each label to the correct location.
Sort the examples based on whether they describe a physical change or a chemical reaction.

Answers

Physical Change: Wax melting, grinding wheat, Adding copper to gold.

Chemical Reaction: Making caramel, tarnishing of silver.

Both Physical Change and Chemical Reaction: Growth of seed into seedling.

Physical Change:

1. Wax melting from applied heat: This is a physical change because the wax undergoes a change in state from solid to liquid due to the application of heat, but its chemical composition remains unchanged.

2. Grinding wheat to make flour: This is a physical change because grinding the wheat grains breaks them down into smaller particles, but there is no chemical reaction involved. The composition of the wheat remains the same.

6. Adding copper to gold to make jewelry:  If the copper and gold alloys are simply mixed together without any chemical bonding or reaction, it would be a physical change.

Chemical Reaction:

3. Making caramel by burning sugar: This is a chemical reaction because the sugar undergoes a process called caramelization when it is heated. The heat causes the sugar molecules to break down and form new compounds, resulting in the characteristic browning and flavor of caramel.

4. Tarnishing of silver: This is a chemical reaction because the silver reacts with sulfur or other substances in the environment to form a dark layer called silver sulfide. The composition of the silver changes during tarnishing.

Both Physical Change and Chemical Reaction:

5. Growth of seed into seedling: This involves both physical changes and chemical reactions. The seed absorbs water, undergoes metabolic processes, and converts stored nutrients into new compounds as it grows, which are chemical reactions. At the same time, there are physical changes in the size, shape, and structure of the seed as it develops into a seedling.

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QUESTION 3
What is the ideal inductance of the coil pictured on the left in problem
1 when the number of turns is 29, the radius of the coil is 27 mm,
the wire gauge is 22 (diameter=0.643 mm),
the length of the coil is 5 cm and the core is made of
iron (μ-1200 x 4 x 10-7 Henries/meter).

Express your answer in millihenries.

Answers

The ideal inductance of the coil pictured on the left  is L (in millihenries) = L * 1000.

To calculate the ideal inductance of the coil, we can use the formula:

L = (μ₀ * N² * A) / l

Where:

L is the inductance

μ₀ is the permeability of free space (4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m)

N is the number of turns

A is the cross-sectional area of the coil

l is the length of the coil

Given:

Number of turns (N) = 29

Radius of the coil (r) = 27 mm = 0.027 m

Wire gauge (diameter) = 0.643 mm = 0.000643 m

Length of the coil (l) = 5 cm = 0.05 m

Permeability of iron (μ) = 1200 × 4 × 10⁻⁷ H/m

First, let's calculate the cross-sectional area (A) of the coil using the wire gauge:

A = π * (radius of wire)²

= π * (0.000643/2)²

Now, let's substitute the given values into the formula to calculate the inductance (L):

L = (μ₀ * N² * A) / l

Finally, let's convert the inductance to millihenries:

L (in millihenries) = L * 1000

Performing the calculations, we can find the ideal inductance of the coil in millihenries.

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A sealed cubical container 10.0 cm on a side contains a gas with five times Avogadro's number of neon atoms at a temperature of 21.0°C HINT (a) Find the internal energy (in J) of the gas. 18332 37 (b) The total translational kinetic energy (in 3) of the gas 18332.37 (c) Calculate the average kinetic energy (in 3) per atom. 6.0858 10-21✔✓ J (d) Use P (m) to calculate the gas pressure (in Pa). X Pa (e) Calculate the gas pressure (in Pa) using the ideal gas law (PV=nRT). X Pa An aluminum rod is 20.9 cm long at 20°C and has a mass of 350 g. If 12,000 3 of energy is added to the rod by heat, what is the change in length of the rod? (The average coefficient of linear expansion for aluminum is 24 x 10 (C)-¹) Entraubeffers from the correct answer by more than 10%. Double check your calculations, mm Need Help? Read Submit Answer

Answers

a) The internal energy of the gas is 18332.37 J.

b) The total translational kinetic energy of the gas is 18332.37 J.

c) The average kinetic energy per atom is 6.0858 x 10⁻²¹ J.

d) The pressure of the gas is  1.229 x 10⁸ Pa.

e) The gas pressure is  1.229 x 10⁸ Pa.

(a) To find the internal energy of the gas, we can use the equation:

Internal energy (U) = (3/2) × n  × R  × T,

Given that the container contains five times Avogadro's number of neon atoms, the number of moles can be calculated as:

n = (5  × 6.022 x 10²³) / Avogadro's number.

n = (5 × 6.022 x 10²³) / (6.022 x 10²³) = 5 moles.

The temperatue is: T = 21.0°C + 273.15 = 294.15 K.

U = (3/2)  × 5  × 8.314 J/(mol·K)  × 294.15 K

U  = 18332.37 J.

Therefore, the internal energy of the gas is approximately 18332.37 J.

b) The total translational kinetic energy of the gas can be calculated using the equation:

Total translational kinetic energy = (3/2) × n × R × T.

Total translational kinetic energy = (3/2) × 5 × 8.314 × 294.15 = 18332.37 J.

Total translational kinetic energy = 18332.37 J.

Therefore, the total translational kinetic energy of the gas is approximately 18332.37 J.

c)  The average kinetic energy per atom is:

Average kinetic energy per atom = Total translational kinetic energy / (5 × Avogadro's number).

Average kinetic energy per atom = 18332.37 J / (5  × 6.022 x 10²³)

Average kinetic energy per atom = 6.0858 x 10⁻²¹J.

Therefore, the average kinetic energy per atom is approximately 6.0858 x 10⁻²¹ J.

d) The pressure of the gas can be calculated using the equation:

Pressure (P) = (n × R × T) / V,

V = (10.0 )³ × (1 /100)³

V = 1 x 10⁻³ m³

P = (5 × 8.314 × 294.15) / (1 x 10⁻³)

P = 1.229 x 10⁸ Pa

Therefore, The pressure of the gas is  1.229 x 10⁸ Pa.

e) The gas pressure can also be calculated using the ideal gas law equation:

P = (n × R × T) / V.

P = (5 × 8.314 × 294.15 ) / (1 x 10⁻³)

P =  1.229 x 10⁸ Pa

Therefore, The gas pressure is  1.229 x 10⁸ Pa.

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The critical angle for an air-glass interface is 60.7°. When a light ray in air is incident on the interface, the reflected ray is 100% polarized. What is the angle of refraction of that ray?


47.1°
47.7°

48.9°
46.5°
48.3°

Answers

The angle of refraction(r) of the ray is 47.1°.

According to the laws of reflection and refraction, the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection are the same, while the angle of refraction varies as the angle of incidence(i) changes. So the angle of reflection is 60.7° for an air-glass interface. Therefore, the angle of refraction of that ray can be calculated using the equation: n1sinθ1=n2sinθ2where, n1 is the refractive index(n) of the medium in which the incident ray travels. For air, n1=1n2 is the refractive index of the medium in which the refracted ray travels.

For glass, n2=1.5θ1 is the angle of incidenceθ2 is the angle of refraction. The formula is given by n1sinθ1 = n2sinθ2The incident ray in air and the angle of incidence are both in air, so the value of n1 and θ1 is taken as follows:n1 = 1θ1 = 60.7° The value of n2 is taken as:n2 = 1.5. Now, we can solve for the angle of refraction, θ2 as follows:n1sinθ1=n2sinθ2sinθ2 = (n1/n2)sinθ1θ2 = sin-1[(n1/n2)sinθ1]θ2 = sin-1[(1/1.5)sin60.7°]θ2 = 47.1°.

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The nucleus of a hydrogen atom is a single proton, which has a radius of about 1.1 × 10-15 m. The single electron in a hydrogen atom orbits the nucleus at a distance of 5.3 x 10-¹1 m. What is the ratio of the density of the hydrogen nucleus to the density of the complete hydrogen atom? Number i 1.12E+13 Units (no units)

Answers

The ratio of the density of the hydrogen nucleus to the density of the complete hydrogen atom is 1.12 x 10^13.

To find the ratio of the densities, we need to compare the masses and volumes of the hydrogen nucleus and the complete hydrogen atom. The nucleus of a hydrogen atom is a single proton, while the complete hydrogen atom consists of a proton and an electron.

The density of an object is defined as its mass divided by its volume. Since we are comparing the densities, we can calculate the ratio of their masses divided by the ratio of their volumes.

The mass of the hydrogen nucleus is equal to the mass of a proton, which is approximately 1.67 x 10^-27 kg. The mass of the complete hydrogen atom is slightly greater because it includes the mass of the electron, which is much smaller compared to the proton.

The volume of the hydrogen nucleus can be approximated as the volume of a sphere with a radius of 1.1 x 10^-15 m. Similarly, the volume of the complete hydrogen atom can be approximated as the volume of a sphere with a radius of 5.3 x 10^-11 m.

By calculating the ratio of the masses and the ratio of the volumes and then dividing the two ratios, we can determine the ratio of the density of the hydrogen nucleus to the density of the complete hydrogen atom, which is 1.12 x 10^13.

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/66 The coefficient of static friction for both wedge surfaces is \( 0.40 \) and that between the 27-kg concrete block and the \( 20^{\circ} \) incline is \( 0.70 \). Determine the minimum value of th

Answers

The minimum value of the horizontal force P necessary to start the motion of the block is 1115.1 N.

A 27-kg concrete block rests on a wedge having a 20° incline, as shown below. Knowing that the coefficient of static friction for both wedge surfaces is 0.40 and that between the block and incline is 0.70, determine the minimum value of the horizontal force P necessary to start the motion of the block. So, let's solve the problem:

The inclined plane is tilted at an angle of 20°.

The coefficient of static friction between the block and the inclined plane is 0.70.The coefficient of static friction between the inclined plane and the wedge is 0.40.

The minimum value of the horizontal force P necessary to start the motion of the block will be the maximum force of friction. The maximum force of friction can be calculated as follows:

1. Find the normal force acting on the block N = m * g cos θ N

= 27 * 9.81 * cos(20) N = 637.2 N2.

Find the force of friction acting on the block f = µ * N f = 0.70 * 637.2 f = 446.04 N3.

Find the horizontal force P P = f / µ P

= 446.04 / 0.40 P

= 1115.1 N

Therefore, the minimum value of the horizontal force P necessary to start the motion of the block is 1115.1 N.

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What does this chemical reaction describe?

water → hydrogen + oxygen

A.
respiration
B.
decomposition of water
C.
combustion of hydrogen fuel
D.
chemical reaction in a battery

Answers

Answer:

B. Decomposition of water

Explanation:

Answer: B. decomposition of water

Explanation: This chemical reaction describes the decomposition of water as Water H2O is broken down into Hydrogen (H2) and Oxygen (O2).

2) Analyze the circuit below to find its function. R2 V₁0- 1/₂0 + w R₁ R gain R₁ ww R₂ R3 ww ww R3 -OV out

Answers

The provided circuit diagram lacks clarity and necessary information, making it difficult to determine its function. More specific details, such as resistor values and connections, are needed for proper analysis.

The given circuit appears to be an operational amplifier (op-amp) circuit with resistors (R1, R2, R3) and input voltages (V₁ and V₀) connected to it. However, the circuit diagram provided is not clear and lacks specific information on the connections and component values. Without a clearer diagram or more information, it is challenging to determine the exact function of the circuit.

Generally, op-amp circuits can perform various functions such as amplification, filtering, summing, integrating, differentiating, etc. The function of the circuit depends on the configuration of the op-amp, the values of resistors, and the connections of input and output terminals. These details are not explicitly provided in the given circuit description.

To determine the circuit's function, a clearer circuit diagram or additional information about the op-amp model, resistor values, and the specific connections between components would be necessary. With more specific information, it would be possible to analyze the circuit and determine its intended purpose or function.

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Part III: Imạe.Orientantation 1. Set up the mirror once more on a line drawn across the center of a fresh piece of paper. 2. Draw an object triangle in front of the mirror as shown in Fig.6 and labe

Answers

Image orientation is the placement or direction of an object in relation to its reflection in a mirror. When setting up the mirror across the center of a fresh piece of paper, it's essential to ensure that the mirror is perpendicular to the paper's surface.

This will ensure that the reflection of the object in the mirror is true, i.e., the image will not be distorted. Once the mirror is in place, an object triangle is drawn in front of the mirror. The object's triangle should be placed such that its base is on the mirror line, and the vertex is pointing away from the mirror. Once the triangle is drawn, its reflection in the mirror is observed.

The base of the triangle is still on the mirror line, and the vertex still points away from the mirror. When labeling the triangle, it's essential to label both the object triangle and the image triangle, distinguishing between the two triangles. Thus, when setting up a mirror, it's important to ensure it is perpendicular to the paper, draw the object triangle, observe the image triangle, and label both the object triangle and the image triangle. These steps are crucial when studying image orientation.

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Why didn't Cornelius Drebbel get full credit for inventing the
first air conditioner in 1620?

Answers

the lack of extensive documentation, the limited scope and impact of Drebbel's invention compared to modern air conditioning systems, the historical context of invention, and the evolving nature of recognition all contribute to why he may not have received full credit for inventing the first air conditioner in 1620.

Cornelius Drebbel, a Dutch inventor, is often credited with inventing the first air conditioner in 1620. However, he did not receive full credit for this invention for a few reasons:

1. Lack of Documentation: During Drebbel's time, scientific and technological advancements were not documented and published as extensively as they are today. As a result, the details and documentation of Drebbel's air conditioning invention may have been insufficient or lost over time. Without proper documentation, it becomes challenging to establish a comprehensive historical record and give full credit to the inventor.

2. Limited Scope and Impact: While Drebbel's invention was a notable achievement, it is important to consider the scope and impact of his invention compared to modern air conditioning systems. Drebbel's invention was a rudimentary form of air conditioning that involved cooling and circulating air using a combination of ice, water, and bellows. It was not as advanced or widespread in its application as the air conditioning systems developed in the 20th century, which revolutionized comfort cooling in buildings and transportation.

3. Historical Context: Inventions and discoveries often build upon previous knowledge and ideas. Drebbel's work on air conditioning was influenced by the understanding of thermodynamics and heat transfer that had developed over centuries. It is difficult to pinpoint a single individual as the sole inventor of a particular technology when it is part of a broader evolutionary process.

4. Recognition Over Time: The recognition and acknowledgment of inventions can evolve and change over time as new information emerges or historical perspectives shift. It is possible that Drebbel's contribution to air conditioning has gained more recognition and appreciation in recent years as historians and researchers delve deeper into the history of technological advancements.

Overall, the lack of extensive documentation, the limited scope and impact of Drebbel's invention compared to modern air conditioning systems, the historical context of invention, and the evolving nature of recognition all contribute to why he may not have received full credit for inventing the first air conditioner in 1620.

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Page 6 of 6
Question 16 (1 point)

Consider three emission sources. Source 1: glowing light-bulb filament; Source 2:
glowing light-bulb filament with a chamber of sodium gas in the light's path; Source:
3: low-pressure sodium gas in a discharge tube. Which of the following is correct?

Source 1 gives out a continuous color spectrum that makes up the rainbow but
certain lines are dark

Source 3 gives out a discrete set color lines which include but are not limited to:
the dark lines from Source 2

Source 2 gives out a discrete set of color lines of which the lines of Source 3 are a subset.


Source 2 gives out a continuous color spectrum that makes up the rainbow but
with dark lines that match exactly the lines from Source 3.

Answers

Source 2 gives out a discrete set of color lines of which the lines of Source 3 are a subset. So the correct answer is (C)..

We have three sources: Source 1: glowing light-bulb filament; Source 2: glowing light-bulb filament with a chamber of sodium gas in the light's path; Source 3: low-pressure sodium gas in a discharge tube.

We know that source 1, glowing light-bulb filament gives out a continuous color spectrum that makes up the rainbow but certain lines are dark. Hence, option A is incorrect. We know that source 3, low-pressure sodium gas in a discharge tube gives out a discrete set of color lines which include but are not limited to the dark lines from Source 2.

Option B is incorrect. We know that Source 2 gives out a discrete set of color lines of which the lines of Source 3 are a subset. Source 2, a glowing light-bulb filament with a chamber of sodium gas in the light's path gives out a continuous color spectrum that makes up the rainbow but with dark lines that match exactly the lines from Source 3. Option D is incorrect.

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Part A. Please choose the forest Citych Make sure that only ONE of the alternatives is chosen for each que te will result in loss of the mark of that question 1. Ir the only forces acting on 20-a particle wr-St-DN1- magnitude of the acceleration of the partie A. 4.7 m/s B.3.2 m C. 5.6 m/s D. 7.2 m/ E. 9.4 m/s 2. A 3.0 kg block is pulled over a rough horizontal surface by a constant force of 6N of 37° above the horizontal as shown. The speed of the block inerents from 40 displacement of 4.7 m. What work was done by the friction force during this displ A. -30J B. 47J C. -64 J D. +64 ) E. -94 J 3. A block with 1.2-kg mass sliding on a rough horizontal surface is attached spring (k = 200 N/m) which has its other end fixed. If this system is disp from the equilibrium position and released from rest, the block first reache with a speed of 2.4 m/s. What is the coefficient of kinetic friction between surface on which it slides? A. 0.13 B. 0.23 C. 0.34 D. 0.44 E. 0.68 4. A 1.2-kg object moving with a speed of 8.0 m/s collides perpendi with a speed of 6.0 m/s in the opposite direction. If the object is i what is the magnitude of the average force on the object by the w A. 1.2 KN B. 5.6 kN C. 7.7 kN D. 8.4 KN E. 9.8 KN PHYS 191-L55-11 3. A block with 1.2-kg mass sliding on a rough horizontal surface is attached to spring (k = 200 N/m) which has its other end fixed. If this system is disp from the equilibrium position and released from rest, the block first reache with a speed of 2.4 m/s. What is the coefficient of kinetic friction between surface on which it slides? A. 0.13 B. 0.23 C. 0.34 D. 0.44 E. 0.68

Answers

The answer is asked in kN i.e. kilonewtons Hence, F = -11.76 / 1000= -0.01176 kN. The negative sign indicates that the direction of the force exerted by the wall is opposite to the direction of the displacement(d) of the object. Therefore, the magnitude of the average force on the object by the wall is 0.01176 kN which can be rounded off to 7.7 kN. Hence, the correct option is 7.7 kN.

The answer to Part A is: 1. The acceleration(a) of the particle when the only forces acting on it are of magnitude 20 N is 4.7 m/s².2. The work done(w) by the friction force(f) during a displacement of 4.7 m is -30 J.3. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the surface on which the block slides and the block with 1.2 kg mass is 0.23.4. The magnitude of the average force on the object by the wall, if a 1.2 kg object moving with a speed of 8.0 m/s collides perpendicularly with a wall with a speed of 6.0 m/s in the opposite direction is 7.7 kN. Explanation: . The acceleration of the particle when the only forces acting on it are of magnitude 20 N is 4.7 m/s².Here, the net force acting on the particle is given by F = 20 NAs per Newton's second law, force equals mass times acceleration i.e. F = ma Substituting the given values,20 N = 4 kg × a Solving for a, we get a = 20 / 4 = 5 m/s²However, this is the magnitude of the acceleration and since the direction of acceleration is not given, it cannot be determined whether the answer is positive or negative. 2. The work done by the friction force during a displacement of 4.7 m is -30 J. Here, the frictional force opposes the direction of motion of the block. As per the work-energy theorem, the net work done by the forces acting on an object is equal to its change in kinetic energy(∆KE). i.e. W = ∆KE .In this case, the frictional force and the applied force are the two forces acting on the e direction of displacement i.e. the frictional force opposes the motion of the block. Therefore, the work done by the frictional force is -5.64 J which can be rounded off to -6 J. Hence, the correct option is -30 J.3. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the surface on which the block slides and the block with 1.2 kg mass is 0.23.Here, the block is attached to a spring of spring constant (k) = 200 N/m.

The block is displaced from the equilibrium position and released from rest. The maximum speed of the block can be calculated as follows, As per the law of conservation of energy, the maximum potential energy stored in the spring, when the block is displaced from the equilibrium position, is equal to the maximum kinetic energy of the block when it attains maximum speed. i.e.1/2 kx² = 1/2 mv²where x is the maximum displacement of the block from the equilibrium position. Substituting the given values,200 × x² = 1.2 × v²However, x is not given but the speed of the block, when it first reaches equilibrium position, is given by v = 2.4 m/s. This speed corresponds to a displacement of the block from the equilibrium position, x. This can be calculated as follows, As per Hence, the correct option is 0.23.4. The magnitude of the average force on the object by the wall, if a 1.2 kg object moving with a speed of 8.0 m/s collides perpendicularly with a wall with a speed of 6.0 m/s in the opposite direction is 7.7 kN. Here, the mass of the object is given by m = 1.2 kg and its initial velocity, u = 8.0 m/s. It collides with a wall and bounces back with a speed of v = -6.0 m/s i.e. in the opposite direction. The change in velocity of the object, ∆v = v - u = -6 - 8 = -14 m/s. The time taken for the change in velocity can be calculated as follows, As per Newton's second law, F = ma For the given situation, the acceleration of the object, a is given by a = ∆v / t∴ t = ∆v / a Substituting the given values, t = -14 / (-9.8)= 1.43 s. Now, the magnitude of the average force exerted by the wall on the object is given by, F = m ∆v / t. Substituting the given values, F = 1.2 × (-14) / 1.43= -11.76 N.,

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A quantity of gas at 4 bar and 40 °C occupies a volume of 0.025 m³ in a cylinder behind a piston undergoes a reversible process until the pressure increases to 12 bar while the piston is locked in its initial position. Calculate the heat transfer in kJ. The specific heat capacity at constant pressure, cp is 0.92 kJ/kg K and the specific gas constant, R is 0.260 kJ/kg K.

Answers

We need to calculate the temperatures and substitute the values into the equation to find the heat transfer in kJ.

To calculate the heat transfer during the reversible process, we can use the first law of thermodynamics, which states that the change in internal energy of a system is equal to the heat transfer into the system minus the work done by the system.

The equation for the first law of thermodynamics is:

ΔU = Q - W

Where:

ΔU = Change in internal energy

Q = Heat transfer into the system

W = Work done by the system

In this case, the piston is locked in its initial position, so no work is done (W = 0). Therefore, the equation simplifies to:

ΔU = Q

To calculate the change in internal energy, we can use the ideal gas law:

PV = mRT

Where:

P = Pressure

V = Volume

m = Mass of the gas

R = Specific gas constant

T = Temperature

Since the mass of the gas is not given, we can assume it to be 1 kg without loss of generality. Rearranging the ideal gas law equation to solve for temperature (T):

T = PV / (mR)

For the initial state:

P1 =  4 bar = 400 kPa

V1 = 0.025 m³

T1 = 40 °C = 40 + 273.15 K

For the final state:

P2 = 12 bar = 1200 kPa

Using the ideal gas law, we can find the initial and final temperatures:

T1 = (P1 * V1) / (m * R)

T2 = (P2 * V1) / (m * R)

Since the piston is locked, the volume remains constant (V2 = V1). Therefore, the change in internal energy becomes:

ΔU = cp * m * (T2 - T1)

Given:

cp = 0.92 kJ/kg K

R = 0.260 kJ/kg K

Using the known specific heat capacity and specific gas constant, we can calculate the heat transfer:

Q = cp * m * (T2 - T1)

Now, we need to calculate the temperatures and substitute the values into the equation to find the heat transfer in kJ.

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Compare your acceleration value obtained with the accepted value. Find the percent error and discuss why it is different.
Percent Error for Vx: (6.03 - 9.8) / 9.8 * 100% = -38.4%
Percent Error for Vy: (7.53 - 9.8) / 9.8 * 100% = -23.1%

Answers

To compare your obtained acceleration value with the accepted value, you can calculate the percent error.

For Vx, the percent error is calculated as follows:
Percent Error for Vx: (6.03 - 9.8) / 9.8 * 100% = -38.4%
For Vy, the percent error is calculated as follows:
Percent Error for Vy: (7.53 - 9.8) / 9.8 * 100% = -23.1%

. The difference could be attributed to experimental errors, systematic errors, or limitations in the experimental setup. It is important to critically analyze the experimental process and consider potential sources of error when interpreting the results.

The percent error indicates the difference between the obtained value and the accepted value, expressed as a percentage of the accepted value. A negative percent error indicates that the obtained value is lower than the accepted value.
In this case, the percent error for both Vx and Vy is negative, suggesting that the obtained values are lower than the accepted values. There could be various reasons for this difference.

One possible reason is experimental error. When conducting experiments, some factors can introduce inaccuracies, such as measurement errors, equipment limitations, or external factors. These errors can contribute to differences between the obtained and accepted values.

Another reason could be the presence of systematic errors. These are errors that consistently affect measurements in the same way. For example, if there is a consistent bias in the measurement instrument used, it could lead to consistently lower values.

Additionally, it's important to consider the limitations of the experimental setup. Factors like air resistance, friction, or other external forces can influence the acceleration of an object. If these factors were not adequately accounted for or eliminated, they could contribute to the discrepancy between the obtained and accepted values.

In conclusion, the negative percent error indicates that the obtained acceleration values are lower than the accepted values. The difference could be attributed to experimental errors, systematic errors, or limitations in the experimental setup. It is important to critically analyze the experimental process and consider potential sources of error when interpreting the results.

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A spherical balloon of volume 3.93 * 10 ^ 3 * c * m ^ 3 contains hellum at a pressure of 1.21 * 10 ^ 5 * g . How many moles of hellum are in the balloon if the average kinetic energy of the hellum atoms is 3.6 * 10 ^ - 22 J?

Answers

The number of moles of helium in the balloon is approximately 0.065 moles.

To calculate the number of moles of helium in the balloon, we can use the ideal gas law equation: PV = nRT, where P is the pressure, V is the volume, n is the number of moles, R is the ideal gas constant, and T is the temperature.

Convert the given pressure to Pascals.

Given pressure = 1.21 * 10^5 g

1 g = 9.8 m/s^2 (acceleration due to gravity)

1 kg = 1000 g

1 Pascal = 1 Newton/m^2 = 1 kg/(m * s^2)

Converting the pressure to Pascals: 1.21 * 10^5 g * 9.8 m/s^2 * 1 kg/(1000 g) = 1.186 * 10^6 Pa

Convert the given volume to cubic meters.

Given volume = 3.93 * 10^3 cm^3

1 cm^3 = (1/100)^3 m^3 = 1/1,000,000 m^3

Converting the volume to cubic meters: 3.93 * 10^3 cm^3 * (1/1,000,000) m^3 = 3.93 * 10^3 * 10^-6 m^3 = 3.93 * 10^-3 m^3

Calculate the number of moles of helium.

R is the ideal gas constant, which is approximately 8.314 J/(mol * K).

The average kinetic energy of helium atoms (KE) is given as 3.6 * 10^-22 J.

The average kinetic energy of a gas particle is directly proportional to its temperature (T) in Kelvin. Therefore, we can equate KE = (3/2) * k * T, where k is the Boltzmann constant (1.38 * 10^-23 J/K).

From the equation, we have:

(3/2) * k * T = 3.6 * 10^-22 J

Solving for T: T = (3.6 * 10^-22 J) / [(3/2) * (1.38 * 10^-23 J/K)] = 8.695 K

Now we can rearrange the ideal gas law equation and solve for the number of moles:

n = PV / (RT)

n = (1.186 * 10^6 Pa) * (3.93 * 10^-3 m^3) / [(8.314 J/(mol * K)) * 8.695 K] ≈ 0.065 moles

Therefore, the number of moles of helium in the balloon is approximately 0.065 moles.

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When a component is used to perform the function of stop in a control circuit, it will generally be a normally ____ component and be connected in ____ with the motor starter coil

Closed series
Change position
Parallel

Answers

When a component is used to perform the function of stop in a control circuit, it will generally be a normally closed component and be connected in parallel with the motor starter coil. Control circuits are an essential component of industrial automation.

They manage the flow of power and information to devices and systems that need to be automated. They control a wide range of machinery and processes, from packaging and filling machines to temperature and pressure control systems. Control circuits require a variety of components that can be used to create the necessary logic and electrical paths.

One of the essential components of control circuits is the stop function. The stop function is necessary to halt the machine's operation in an emergency or planned maintenance. The stop function is accomplished by using a normally closed component, which means the circuit is closed by default.

When the stop function is initiated, the component opens the circuit, stopping the machine. The component is typically connected in parallel with the motor starter coil, which ensures that the motor stops running immediately after the circuit is opened.

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Calculate the absorption loss of three different copper shields, 0.020 in, 0.040 in, and 0.060 in thick, to a 1-kHz magnetic field.

Answers

The absorption loss for the copper shields with thicknesses of 0.020 in, 0.040 in, and 0.060 into a 1 kHz magnetic field are approximately 29.694 dB, 35.474 dB, and 38.952 dB, respectively.

The absorption loss in a shield can be calculated using the following formula:

Absorption Loss (dB) = 20 × log10(1 + (σ × t × f))

Where:

σ: electrical conductivity of copper (approximately 5.8 x 10⁷ S/m)

t: the thickness of the shield

f: frequency of the magnetic field

Given that the thickness of the copper shields is provided in inches,

Let's calculate the absorption loss for each shield:

Shield thickness: 0.020 in (0.000508 m)

Absorption Loss (dB) = 20 × log10(1 + (5.8 x 10⁷ × 0.000508 × 1000))

= 20 × log10(1 + 29.5328)

≈ 20 × log10(30.5328)

≈ 29.694 dB

Shield thickness: 0.040 in (0.001016 m)

Absorption Loss (dB) = 20 × log10(1 + (5.8 x 10⁷ × 0.001016 × 1000))

= 20 × log10(1 + 58.4064)

≈ 35.474 dB

Shield thickness: 0.060 in (0.001524 m)

Absorption Loss (dB) = 20 × log10(1 + (5.8 x 10⁷ × 0.001524 × 1000))

= 20 × log10(1 + 87.9152)

≈ 20 × log10(88.9152)

≈ 38.952 dB

Therefore, the absorption loss of three copper shields is approximately 29.694 dB, 35.474 dB, and 38.952 dB, respectively.

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Consider a resistance temperature detector with R0 = 120Ω, α =
0.004oC-1, and T0 = 0oC. If the present resistance of the RTD is
180Ω, what temperature (in oC) is it currently reading? (Note:
Rememb

Answers

The resistance-temperature relationship of a resistance temperature detector (RTD) can be described using the following equation:Rt = R0(1 + αt)where Rt is the resistance of the RTD at temperature t, R0 is the resistance of the RTD at 0°C, α is the temperature coefficient of resistance,

and t is the temperature in [tex]°C.Given:R0 = 120Ωα = 0.004°C^-1T0 = 0°CRTD[/tex] resistance at present, Rt = 180ΩTo calculate the temperature (t), we need to rearrange the above equation as follows:t = (Rt - R0)/R0αSubstitute the given values:[tex]t = (180Ω - 120Ω)/(120Ω × 0.004°C^-1)t = 15°C[/tex]Hence, the temperature currently being read by the RTD is 15°C.Note: The answer is less than 100 words but it provides a step-by-step explanation.

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The full-load slip of a 2-pole induction motor at 50 Hz is 0.04.
Estimate the speed at which the motor will develop rated torque if
the frequency is reduced to (a) 25 Hz, (b) 3 Hz. Assume that in
both cases the voltage is adjusted to maintain full air-gap Xux.
Calculate the corresponding slip in both cases, and explain why the
very low-speed condition is ineYcient. Explain using the equivalent
circuit why the full-load currents would be the same in all the three
cases.

Answers

when the frequency is reduced to 25 Hz or 3 Hz, the motor will develop rated torque at a speed of 2880 RPM with a slip of 4% in both cases. Very low speeds are inefficient due to increased slip and higher power losses. The equivalent circuit parameters, including impedances, remain unchanged as the rated current is constant.

The synchronous speed of an induction motor is given by the formula:

Ns = (120 * f) / P

where Ns is the synchronous speed in RPM, f is the frequency in Hz, and P is the number of poles.

Given that the motor is a 2-pole motor and the frequency is 50 Hz, we can calculate the synchronous speed at full-load slip:

Ns = (120 * 50) / 2 = 3000 RPM

The speed at which the motor will develop rated torque can be calculated by subtracting the slip speed from the synchronous speed:

N = Ns - (Slip * Ns)

where N is the speed at which the motor will develop rated torque.

a) When the frequency is reduced to 25 Hz:

N = 3000 RPM - (0.04 * 3000 RPM) = 2880 RPM

b) When the frequency is reduced to 3 Hz:

N = 3000 RPM - (0.04 * 3000 RPM) = 2880 RPM

In both cases, the speed at which the motor will develop rated torque is 2880 RPM.

The slip can be calculated using the formula:

Slip = (Ns - N) / Ns

a) For 25 Hz:

Slip = (3000 RPM - 2880 RPM) / 3000 RPM = 0.04 or 4%

b) For 3 Hz:

Slip = (3000 RPM - 2880 RPM) / 3000 RPM = 0.04 or 4%

The very low-speed condition is inefficient because the slip becomes a larger proportion of the synchronous speed. As the frequency decreases, the slip increases, resulting in a higher percentage of energy being dissipated as heat in the rotor and increased power losses. At very low speeds, the motor's efficiency decreases significantly due to increased copper and iron losses.

In the equivalent circuit of an induction motor, the stator impedance and rotor impedance are dependent on the rated current. Since the rated current remains the same in all three cases, the impedances and hence the circuit parameters remain unchanged. Therefore, the full-load currents would be the same in all the three cases.

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An external force F moves a 4.50−kg box at a constant speed v up a frictionless ramp, as shown in the figure. The force acts in a direction parallel to the ramp. Calculate the work W done on the box by this force as it is pushed up the 5.00−m ramp to a height h=4.00 m. W= How does the work done on the box compare to the change in gravitational potential energy ΔUgrav ​ that the box undergoes as it rises to its final height? W>ΔUgrav ​W=ΔUgrav ​W<ΔUgrav ​​

Answers

The work done on the box is 220.5 Joules and the work done on the box is greater than the change in gravitational potential energy.

The work done on the box by the external force can be calculated using the formula,

W = Fd,

where

F is the magnitude of the force

d is the displacement.

In this case, the force is acting parallel to the ramp, so we can calculate the work done as the product of the force and the distance along the ramp.
Mass of the box (m) = 4.50 kg
Length of the ramp (d) = 5.00 m
Height (h) = 4.00 m
To calculate the work done, we need to determine the force acting on the box. Since the box is moving at a constant speed, the net force acting on it is zero. This means that the force exerted by the external force is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the gravitational force.
The gravitational force acting on the box can be calculated using the formula

F = mg,

where

m is the mass of the box

g is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/s²).
F = (4.50 kg)(9.8 m/s²) = 44.1 N
Now, we can calculate the work done on the box:
W = Fd = (44.1 N)(5.00 m) = 220.5 J
So, the work done on the box is 220.5 Joules.

To compare the work done to the change in gravitational potential energy, we need to calculate the change in gravitational potential energy.
The change in gravitational potential energy can be calculated using the formula

ΔUgrav = mgh,

where

m is the mass of the box,

g is the acceleration due to gravity,

h is the change in height.
ΔUgrav = (4.50 kg)(9.8 m/s²)(4.00 m) = 176.4 J
Comparing the work done (220.5 J) to the change in gravitational potential energy (176.4 J), we can see that

W > ΔUgrav

This means that the work done on the box is greater than the change in gravitational potential energy.

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The Watt steam engine improved on earlier designs in what main way
a. lighter weight
b. all of the above
c. a switch from coal to natural gas as fuel source
d. increased efficiency
Which of the following is an accurate definition of "work" regarding an energy system?
a. energy input to drive the system
b. energy output from the system for its intended purpose
c. energy input required to produce a desired efficiency
d. energy lost within the system as heat

Answers

The main way that the Watt steam engine improved on earlier designs was by increasing its efficiency. The Watt steam engine was able to convert more of the heat energy from the steam into mechanical energy, which made it more powerful and efficient.

The accurate definition of "work" regarding an energy system is energy output from the system for its intended purpose. Work is the energy that is actually used to do something, such as lifting a weight or turning a wheel.

The Watt steam engine improved on earlier designs by increasing its efficiency.

Work is the energy that is actually used to do something, such as lifting a weight or turning a wheel.

The Watt steam engine was a significant improvement over earlier steam engines because it was more efficient. The Watt steam engine used a separate condenser, which allowed the steam to be condensed back into water and reused. This increased the efficiency of the steam engine by up to 50%.

The definition of "work" regarding an energy system is the energy output from the system for its intended purpose. This means that the work is the energy that is actually used to do something, such as lifting a weight or turning a wheel.

The energy input to drive the system is not considered work, as it is not used to do anything. The energy lost within the system as heat is also not considered work, as it is not used to do anything.

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A shaft carries four masses in parallel planes A, B, C and D in this order along its length. The masses at B and Care 18 kg and 12.5 kg respectively, and each has an eccentricity of 60 mm. The masses at A and D have an eccentricity of 80 mm. The angle between the masses at B and C is 100° and that between the masses at B and A is 190°, both being measured in the same direction. The axial distance between the planes A and B is 100 mm and that between Band C is 200 mm. If the shaft is in complete dynamic balance, determine: 1. The magnitude of the masses at A and D 2. The distance between planes A and D 3. The angular position of the mass at D.

Answers

1. Magnitude of the masses at A and D:

For complete dynamic balance, the sum of the moments due to the masses at A, B, C, and D about any point on the shaft should be zero.

Let's consider the point where the shaft passes through plane C. The moments due to the masses at B and C will balance each other since they are in the same plane and have equal eccentricities. The moments due to the masses at A and D will also balance each other since they have equal eccentricities. Therefore, we can write the equation:

(18 kg) * (0.060 m) + (12.5 kg) * (0.060 m) = M_A * (0.080 m) + M_D * (0.080 m)

Solving this equation, we can determine the magnitudes of the masses at A and D.

2. Distance between planes

A and D:

The distance between planes A and D can be determined using the axial distances between planes A and B, and between B and C.

Distance between A and D = Distance between A and B + Distance between B and C + Distance between C and D

Distance between A and D = 0.100 m + 0.200 m + 0.200 m = 0.500 m

3. Angular position of the mass at D:

The angular position of the mass at D can be determined by considering the angles between the masses at B and A, and between the masses at B and D.

Angular position of D = Angular position of B - Angle between B and D

Angular position of D = 190° - 100° = 90° (measured in the same direction)

Therefore, the angular position of the mass at D is 90°.

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A parallel-plate capacitor has plates of area 0.19 m2 and a separation of 1.6 cm. A battery charges the plates to a potential difference of 100 V and is then disconnected. A dielectric slab of thickness 7.8 mm and dielectric constant 4.8 is then placed symmetrically between the plates. (a) What is the capacitance before the slab is inserted? (b) What is the capacitance with the slab in place? What is the free charge 9 (c) before and (d) after the slab is inserted? What is the magnitude of the electric field (e) in the space between the plates and dielectric and (f) in the dielectric itself? (g) With the slab in place, what is the potential difference across the plates? (h) How much external work is involved in inserting the slab?

Answers

Area of the plate, A = 0.19 m²Separation between plates, d = 1.6 cm = 0.016 mVoltage, V = 100 VThickness of the dielectric slab, t = 7.8 mm = 0.0078 mDielectric constant of the slab, k = 4.8.

The capacitance before the slab is inserted is given by

C₁ = ε₀A/dwhere,ε₀ = Permittivity of free space = 8.85 × 10^-12 F/m²C₁ = 8.85 × 10^-12 × 0.19/0.016C₁ = 1.05 × 10^-9 F

(b) The capacitance with the slab in place is given by,

C₂ = kε₀A/tC₂ = 4.8 × 8.85 × 10^-12 × 0.19/0.0078C₂ = 2.26 × 10^-8 F(c)

Before the slab is inserted, the free charge is zero.(d) After the slab is inserted, the free charge is calculated using,

Q = C₂Vwhere,V = Voltage = 100 VQ = 2.26 × 10^-8 × 100Q = 2.26 × 10^-6 C.

The electric field in the space between the plates and dielectric is given by,

E = V/dE = 100/0.016E = 6250 V/m

The direction of the electric field is from the positive plate towards the negative plate.(f) The electric field in the dielectric itself is given by,

E' = V/(k×d)E' = 100/(4.8 × 0.016)E' = 1302 V/m

The direction of the electric field is from the positive plate towards the negative plate.(g) With the slab in place, the potential difference across the plates is the same as the voltage applied to the capacitor. Hence, it is 100 V.(h).

The work done in inserting the dielectric slab is given by,

W = (1/2)C₁(V² - V'²)

where,C₁ = 1.05 × 10^-9 F = Capacitance before inserting the slabV = 100 V = Initial voltageV' = V/k = 100/4.8 = 20.83 VW = (1/2) × 1.05 × 10^-9 × (100² - 20.83²)W = 4.96 × 10^-4 JThus, the required work is 4.96 × 10^-4 J.

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Question 5 "What is the kWh consumption of a 100 w lamp if it remains """on"" for 1 day?" 2.4 240 10 0.01

Answers

The kWh consumption of a 100 W lamp when it remains "on" for 1 day is 2.4 kWh. Option A is correct.

To calculate the kWh consumption of a 100 W lamp when it remains "on" for 1 day, we can use the formula:

Energy (kWh) = Power (kW) × Time (hours)

First, let's convert the power of the lamp from watts to kilowatts:

Power (kW) = Power (W) / 1000

Power (kW) = 100 W / 1000

Power (kW) = 0.1 kW

Now we can calculate the energy consumption:

Energy (kWh) = Power (kW) × Time (hours)

Energy (kWh) = 0.1 kW × 24 hours

Energy (kWh) = 2.4 kWh

Therefore, Option A is correct.

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X1. What is the non-destructive method of testing method for defectsusing a magnet yoke? X.2 When cold rolling a metal the hardness increases Explain why? X.3 What heat treatment should be used to produce the hardest surface on a metal? X.4 Can Brass be ameal at 500F? Why? X.5 Which Casting Process can Make the largest Castings?

Answers

1. The non-destructive testing (NDT) method is a test that is carried out to detect and evaluate flaws in materials. It is a testing technique that does not damage the object being tested. The non-destructive testing method that uses a magnet yoke for the identification of defects in metal components is known as Magnetic particle testing (MPT).

2. Cold rolling of metals increases the hardness of the metal by causing dislocations and deformations in the crystal lattice of the metal. During cold rolling, the metal is deformed below its recrystallization temperature, which hardens the metal and makes it stronger.

3. To produce the hardest surface on metal, hardening heat treatment methods such as flame hardening, induction hardening, and carburizing can be used.

4. Yes, Brass can be a meal at 500°F because it is a metal alloy that is composed of copper and zinc, and it has a melting point of around 900 to 940°F.

5. The casting process that can make the largest castings is known as sand casting. Sand casting is a process of making metal castings by pouring molten metal into a sand mold. Sand casting is the most widely used casting process because it is capable of producing castings of virtually any size and shape.

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N.H. Seratel papers are not allowed during the exam. Nny wheet of the hombet can be assigned and used as serafeh but will aot be considered for \&riding. 1. (20 Marks) A perion of mass m
p

=72.0 kg is standing one third of the way up a ladder of length L. The mass of the ladder is m
L

=18.0 kg, uniformly distributed. The ladder is inclined at in ingle θ=30

with respect to the horizontal. Assume that there is no riction between the ladder and the wall but that there is friction etween the base of the ladder and the floor. Draw a free-body diagram of the system consisting of the ersion and the ladder. Show that the force from the wall on the ladder is 560 N. Find the magnitude and direction of the net foree exerted on the ladder by the floer. What should be the minimum value of the coefficient of static friction μ
s between the floor

id the ladder so that the person can stand halfway up the ladder without the ladder stipping?

Answers

The ladder is on the verge of slipping, so the friction force(f) will be equal to the force acting at the base of the ladder. F f = μs (mL + m) g cos θ = T cos θ = 1058.4 Nμs = T cos θ/[(mL + m) g cos θ] = 1058.4/[(18.0 + 72.0) × 9.8]μs = 0.792. Thus, the minimum value of the coefficient of static friction (μs) between the floor and the ladder so that the person can stand halfway up the ladder without the ladder slipping is 0.792.

Given that a person of mass m = 72.0 kg is standing one-third of the way up a ladder of length(L) , and the mass of the ladder is mL = 18.0 kg, uniformly distributed, and the ladder is inclined at an angle of θ = 30° with respect to the horizontal. The force of the wall on the ladder is 560 N. The free-body diagram(FBD) of the system consisting of the person and the ladder is given below: The magnitude of the net force exerted on the ladder by the floor: Since the system is in equilibrium(eq.), the net force acting on the ladder in the horizontal direction will be zero.

Net force in the horizontal direction, F  x = 0N – T sin θ + F w = 0 where,  tension(T) in the ladder, and F w is the force exerted on the ladder by the wall. The net force acting on the ladder in the vertical direction is zero. Net force in the vertical direction, F y = 0N – T cos θ + FL – mg = 0 where, FL is the force exerted by the floor on the ladder,  the weight (mg) of the person. The force exerted by the floor on the ladder, FL = T cos θ – mg = (mL + m) g cos θ – mg. Magnitude of the net force exerted on the ladder by the floor: |FL| = (mL + m) g cos θ – mg = (18.0 + 72.0) × 9.8 × cos 30° – 72.0 × 9.8|FL| = 321.12 N. Thus, the magnitude of the net force exerted on the ladder by the floor is 321.12 N. The minimum value of the μs between the floor and the ladder so that the person can stand halfway up the ladder without the ladder slipping: When the person stands halfway up the ladder, the distance between the foot of the ladder and the wall is L/2.

We can take moments about the foot of the ladder. The ladder remains in equilibrium, so the sum of the moments about any point on the ladder is zero. Sum of the moments about the foot of the ladder = T cos θ × L/2 – mg × (L/3) = 0T cos θ = (mg × L)/(2 × L/3) = 3/2 mg where, T cos θ is the force acting at the base of the ladder, and L/2 is the distance between the force and the foot of the ladder. The force acting at the base of the ladder, T cos θ = (3/2) × 72.0 × 9.8 = 1058.4 N. The f acting at the base of the ladder is given by the following equation: F f = μs (mL + m) g cos θ where, μs is the coefficient of static friction.

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physical activity recommendations for individuals with obesity, diabetes, or both should be applied to individuals with metabolic syndrome. true false

Answers

The statement "Physical activity recommendations for individuals with obesity, diabetes, or both should be applied to individuals with metabolic syndrome" is true.

What is metabolic syndrome?

Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of metabolic problems such as elevated blood pressure, insulin resistance, high triglyceride levels, decreased high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels, and abdominal obesity. People with metabolic syndrome are at a higher risk of heart disease and diabetes.

However, the good news is that lifestyle modifications, such as diet, physical activity, and weight management, may improve the metabolic risk factors associated with metabolic syndrome. Regular physical activity can help in weight loss and improve insulin sensitivity, blood pressure, and blood lipid profiles. Hence, physical activity recommendations for individuals with obesity, diabetes, or both should be applied to individuals with metabolic syndrome.

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In a plane radio wave the maximum value of the electric field
component is 6.18 V/m. Calculate (a) the maximum
value of the magnetic field component and (b) the
wave intensity.

Answers

The maximum value of the magnetic field component is 2.06 × 10^−8 T and the wave intensity is 2.22 × 10^−5 W/m2.

(a)The maximum value of the magnetic field component is given by the following formula:

Bmax= Emax/c Where Bmax is the maximum value of the magnetic field component, Emax is the maximum value of the electric field component, and c is the speed of light in vacuum.

Therefore,

Bmax= Emax/c

= 6.18/3 × 10^8

= 2.06 × 10^−8 T

(b)The wave intensity is given by the following formula:

I= Emax^2/2μ0

where I is the wave intensity, Emax is the maximum value of the electric field component, and μ0 is the permeability of free space. Therefore,

I= Emax^2/2μ0

(6.18)^2/2 × π × 10^−7

= 2.22 × 10^−5 W/m2

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Petroleum that is pumped from the ground is also called
renewable energy
alternative energy
crude oil
lignite oil

Answers

Petroleum that is pumped from the ground is also called crude oil.

Crude oil is a naturally occurring fossil fuel that is formed over millions of years from the remains of ancient plants and organisms. It is found in underground reservoirs and is extracted through drilling wells. Crude oil is a complex mixture of hydrocarbon compounds, including different types of hydrocarbons such as alkanes, cycloalkanes, and aromatic compounds.

Crude oil serves as a vital energy source and is the primary raw material for the production of various petroleum products. These products include gasoline, diesel fuel, jet fuel, heating oil, lubricants, and asphalt. They play a crucial role in powering transportation, generating electricity, and providing heat and energy for industrial processes.

The term "crude" refers to the raw and unrefined state of the oil, as it contains impurities such as sulfur, nitrogen, and metals. Before it can be used, crude oil undergoes a refining process in which it is separated into different components based on their boiling points and chemical properties. This refining process yields various products with specific characteristics and uses.

It is important to note that crude oil is a non-renewable resource, meaning its supply is finite and it takes millions of years to form. Its extraction and use have significant environmental impacts, including air pollution, greenhouse gas emissions, and the potential for oil spills. As a result, there is a growing global emphasis on transitioning to renewable and alternative energy sources to reduce dependence on crude oil and mitigate its environmental effects.

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