Hi! Based on the first organ system typically affected by Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS), a nurse should prioritize monitoring the client for symptoms related to the respiratory system. This includes observing for signs of respiratory distress, such as increased respiratory rate, shortness of breath, oxygen saturation, and changes in lung sounds, such as crackles or decreased wheezes.
Early detection and intervention are crucial to prevent further complications and progression of MODS to other organ systems. Alongside respiratory monitoring, the nurse should also assess vital signs, including heart rate, blood pressure, and temperature, as well as evaluate the client's mental status and level of consciousness.
Additionally, the nurse should closely monitor laboratory results, particularly arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis, to identify any imbalances in oxygenation and acid-base status. This information will help guide the healthcare team in determining the most appropriate treatment plan to manage the client's condition and mitigate the effects of MODS on other organ systems.
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Drugs alter body chemistry. Prescription drugs and non-prescription drugs have been developed by pharmaceutical companies and approved for public consumption by the Food and Drug Administration.T/F
Drugs alter body chemistry. Prescription drugs and non-prescription drugs have been developed by pharmaceutical companies and approved for public consumption by the Food and Drug Administration. True
Drugs have the ability to alter the chemical processes that occur within the body, and this can have both positive and negative effects on an individual's health. Prescription drugs are those that are legally available only with a doctor's prescription, while non-prescription drugs, also known as over-the-counter drugs, can be purchased without a prescription.
Both prescription and non-prescription drugs are developed by pharmaceutical companies and undergo a rigorous testing and approval process by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in the United States before they are made available to the public. This process is designed to ensure that drugs are safe, effective, and properly labeled for their intended use.
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Anger, depression, and excitement combined with alcohol increases risk and can be unpredictable.T/F
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What features suggest abd malignancy that has mets to liver?
Abdominal malignancy with metastasis to the liver can present with various features, including Hepatomegaly, Elevated liver enzymes, vaccines, Jaundice, Weight loss, and Abdominal pain.
Hepatomegaly: An enlarged liver may be palpable on physical exam, and confirmed on imaging studies such as ultrasound, CT, or MRI.
Elevated liver enzymes: Metastasis in the liver can cause damage to liver cells leading to elevated liver enzymes such as alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST).
Ascites: Fluid accumulation in the abdomen can occur due to liver dysfunction caused by metastasis.
Jaundice: Obstruction of the bile ducts by metastatic lesions can lead to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, causing yellowing of the skin and eyes.
Weight loss: Patients may experience significant weight loss due to cancer-related cachexia or malabsorption from liver dysfunction.
Abdominal pain: Pain can occur due to the liver capsule stretching as the liver enlarges, or due to direct invasion by the cancer cells.
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it is important to restore body weight and fat stores in athletes who have irregular menstrual cycles to .
It is important to restore body weight and fat stores in athletes who have irregular menstrual cycles to improve their overall health and reduce the risk of long-term health consequences.
Irregular menstrual cycles are often associated with low body weight and low body fat, which can disrupt hormone levels and impair reproductive function. This can lead to decreased bone density, increased risk of stress fractures, and increased risk of developing osteoporosis later in life.
By restoring body weight and fat stores through proper nutrition and exercise, athletes can improve their hormonal balance, support healthy bone density, and reduce their risk of long-term health consequences.
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-Panic disorder, drug activates benzodiazepine binding sites on GABA. what is the drug?
The drug that activates benzodiazepine binding sites on GABA is a benzodiazepine itself. Benzodiazepines, such as alprazolam, diazepam, and lorazepam, are commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, including panic disorder.
These drugs bind to the GABA-A receptor, which is a type of receptor for gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. By binding to these receptors, benzodiazepines enhance the effects of GABA, resulting in sedative, anxiolytic, and muscle relaxant effects.
These drugs are effective for the short-term management of panic disorder and other anxiety disorders, but their long-term use can lead to dependence and withdrawal symptoms
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Branches of the maxillary artery (that comes from the external carotid)
The maxillary artery, a branch of the external carotid artery, gives off several branches, including the middle meningeal artery, inferior alveolar artery, posterior superior alveolar artery, and infraorbital artery.
The maxillary artery is one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery and is responsible for supplying blood to various structures in the face, jaws, and oral cavity. As it passes through the infratemporal fossa, it divides into several branches, including the middle meningeal artery, the inferior alveolar artery, the deep temporal arteries, and the pterygoid arteries. The middle meningeal artery supplies blood to the dura mater, a thick membrane that covers the brain and can be a source of significant bleeding if injured. The inferior alveolar artery enters the mandibular canal and supplies blood to the mandibular teeth and associated structures. The deep temporal arteries supply blood to the temporalis muscle, which is responsible for jaw movement, and the pterygoid arteries supply blood to the muscles of mastication.
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If you combine similar drugs, for example, two depressants, the effect of combining two might be similar to taking three. This is especially true with alcohol.T/F
If you combine similar drugs, for example, two depressants, the effect of combining two might be similar to taking three. This is especially true with alcohol.T
Combining similar drugs, such as two depressants, can be particularly dangerous, as it can increase the intensity and duration of the drug's effects. This is because the combination of drugs can result in a synergistic effect, meaning that the combined effect is greater than the sum of their individual effects.
In the case of alcohol, combining it with other depressants, such as benzodiazepines or barbiturates, can lead to a range of side effects, including extreme drowsiness, impaired judgment, slowed breathing, and even coma or death. Therefore, it is essential to avoid combining similar drugs and to use medications only as directed by a healthcare provider.
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For General Population, lifetime risk of developing bipolar disorder is ____
The lifetime risk of developing bipolar disorder is estimated to be around 2-3% for the general population. However, the risk is higher in individuals with a family history of the disorder.
Bipolar disorder is a chronic and complex mental illness characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and depression, which can significantly impair a person's ability to function in their daily life.
Treatment options include medications, psychotherapy, and lifestyle changes, but finding the right treatment can be challenging, and ongoing management and monitoring are often required to help individuals with bipolar disorder maintain stability and improve their quality of lif
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Hep C is RF for what diseases?
Hepatitis C (HCV) is a viral infection that primarily affects the liver. Chronic HCV infection can lead to progressive liver damage, cirrhosis, and liver cancer.
In addition to its effects on the liver, HCV infection is also associated with an increased risk of developing several extrahepatic manifestations, including:
Cryoglobulinemia: a condition where abnormal proteins (cryoglobulins) form in the blood and can cause damage to small blood vessels.
Type 2 diabetes: HCV infection has been associated with insulin resistance and an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes.Cardiovascular disease: HCV infection has been linked to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease, including coronary artery disease and stroke.Kidney disease: HCV infection has been associated with an increased risk of developing kidney disease, including glomerulonephritis and kidney failure.Lymphoma: HCV infection has been linked to an increased risk of developing certain types of lymphoma, such as marginal zone lymphoma.Learn more about Hepatitis C (HCV)
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medication that primarily enhances the activity of gamma-aminobutyric acid (gaba) in the brain would likely be used for the treatment of which disorder?
A medication that primarily enhances the activity of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain would likely be used for the treatment of anxiety disorders.
GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system that helps to reduce neuronal excitability and promote relaxation. Medications that enhance GABA activity can help to alleviate the symptoms of anxiety disorders by promoting a sense of calm and relaxation. Some common examples of these medications include benzodiazepines, such as diazepam (Valium) and alprazolam (Xanax), which are frequently prescribed for the treatment of anxiety disorders.
Enhancing GABA activity in the brain through medications like benzodiazepines is an effective treatment strategy for anxiety disorders.
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a client who is going to be dicharged has been receiving 3 mg of risperidone 3 times a day. which information should the nurse give about the medication
The nurse should provide the client with information about the medication, including dosage, administration, side effects, and any necessary precautions.
Risperidone is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and other mental health conditions. It works by changing the activity of certain natural substances in the brain, which helps to reduce symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking.
The nurse should inform the client about the dosage and administration of the medication, explaining that they have been receiving 3 mg of risperidone 3 times a day. They should also discuss the potential side effects of the medication, such as drowsiness, dizziness, weight gain, and dry mouth. The nurse should also provide information on any precautions that the client should take, such as avoiding alcohol and other medications that may interact with risperidone.
In summary, the nurse should provide the client with comprehensive information about their medication, including dosage, administration, side effects, and precautions. This will help to ensure that the client can safely and effectively manage their mental health condition after discharge.
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If you suspect pancreatic carcinoma - whats next step?
If you suspect pancreatic carcinoma, the next step is to confirm the diagnosis through imaging studies such as computed tomography (CT) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the abdomen. These imaging studies can provide detailed information about the pancreas and can help identify any tumors or abnormalities.
If a tumor is found, a biopsy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis. A biopsy involves taking a small sample of tissue from the pancreas and examining it under a microscope to determine whether it is cancerous or not.
Once the diagnosis is confirmed, further tests may be needed to determine the stage and extent of the cancer. This can include additional imaging studies, blood tests, and possibly other procedures such as endoscopic ultrasound (EUS).
Treatment options for pancreatic carcinoma may include surgery, radiation therapy, chemotherapy, or a combination of these approaches. The specific treatment plan will depend on factors such as the stage of the cancer, the location and size of the tumor, and the patient's overall health and medical history.
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How do you diagnose radial head injury? How do you treat it?
Radial head injury is usually diagnosed through a combination of a physical exam and imaging tests, such as X-rays, CT scans, or MRI. During a physical exam, the doctor may check for swelling, tenderness, or deformity around the elbow, and test the range of motion in the affected arm.
The treatment of a radial head injury depends on the severity of the injury. For mild injuries, conservative treatment such as rest, ice, and pain relief medication may be recommended. For more severe injuries, immobilization of the affected arm in a sling or cast may be necessary, and physical therapy may be recommended to help restore the range of motion and strengthen the muscles around the elbow joint. In some cases, surgery may be required to repair or replace the damaged radial head.
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A diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is established in which of the following clinical scenarios?
AHuman immunodeficiency virus positive with a CD4 count of 300 cells/µL and acute herpes simplex infection under 1 month duration
BHuman immunodeficiency virus positive with a CD4 count of 350 cells/µL and community acquired pneumonia
CHuman immunodeficiency virus positive with a CD4 count of 400 cells/µL and oral candidiasis
DHuman immunodeficiency virus positive with a CD4 count of 450 cells/µL and disseminated mycobactererium avium complex infection
A diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is established in a person who is HIV positive and has a CD4 count less than 200 cells/µL, or who has an AIDS-defining illness. Option E.
Based on the given options, none of the scenarios clearly meets the criteria for a diagnosis of AIDS.
Option A: The CD4 count of 300 cells/µL is above the threshold of 200 cells/µL, and herpes simplex infection is not an AIDS-defining illness.
Option B: The CD4 count of 350 cells/µL is above the threshold of 200 cells/µL, and community acquired pneumonia is not an AIDS-defining illness.
Option C: The CD4 count of 400 cells/µL is above the threshold of 200 cells/µL, and oral candidiasis alone is not an AIDS-defining illness.
Option D: Although disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex infection is an AIDS-defining illness, the CD4 count of 450 cells/µL is above the threshold of 200 cells/µL.
Therefore, none of the options meets the criteria for a diagnosis of AIDS.
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Full Question ;
A diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is established in which of the following clinical scenarios?
AHuman immunodeficiency virus positive with a CD4 count of 300 cells/µL and acute herpes simplex infection under 1 month duration
BHuman immunodeficiency virus positive with a CD4 count of 350 cells/µL and community acquired pneumonia
CHuman immunodeficiency virus positive with a CD4 count of 400 cells/µL and oral candidiasis
DHuman immunodeficiency virus positive with a CD4 count of 450 cells/µL and disseminated mycobactererium avium complex infection
ENone of the options
For the lac operon, when glucose is present and lactose is presenta) None of the optionsb) cAMP-CAP is bound to the promoter and the repressor is bound to the operatorc) cAMP-CAP is not bound to the promoter and the repressor is not bound to the operatord) cAMP-CAP is bound to the operator and the repressor is bound to the promoter
For the lac operon, when glucose is present and lactose is present, the cAMP-CAP complex is not bound to the promoter, and the repressor is not bound to the operator.
In this case, the lac operon is not actively transcribed. This is because glucose inhibits the formation of cAMP, which is necessary for the cAMP-CAP complex to bind to the promoter and initiate transcription.
Additionally, the presence of lactose causes the repressor to undergo a conformational change that prevents it from binding to the operator, further allowing for transcription of the lac operon. Therefore, the lac operon is only transcribed when glucose is absent and lactose is present.
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it has recently been discovered that people who suffer from diabetes are more likely to develop which disorders?
Recent studies have shown that individuals who suffer from diabetes are more likely to develop several disorders, including cardiovascular disease, neuropathy, nephropathy, retinopathy, and peripheral artery disease.
Diabetes can lead to damage in the blood vessels throughout the body, which can cause these complications. Cardiovascular disease is one of the most common complications of diabetes and can lead to heart attacks and strokes. Neuropathy is nerve damage that can cause numbness, tingling, and pain in the extremities, while nephropathy is kidney damage that can lead to kidney failure.
Retinopathy is damage to the blood vessels in the retina, which can cause vision problems, while peripheral artery disease can cause reduced blood flow to the limbs.
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Many medications react with alcohol and some people may be more sensitive than others. When used in combination with alcohol, legal medications and illegal drugs can have serious drug interactions and sometimes fatal effects.T/F
Many medications react with alcohol and some people may be more sensitive than others. When used in combination with alcohol, legal medications, and illegal drugs can have serious drug interactions and sometimes fatal effects - True.
A synergistic effect is exhibited when alcohol is consumed during the medication course. The effect of combined drugs is higher comparatively with single drug administration in synergistic drug interactions. The effect of alcohol is elevated because of drugs taken along with alcohol.Many medications can react with alcohol, and some people may be more sensitive than others. Combining alcohol with legal medications or illegal drugs can lead to serious drug interactions and sometimes fatal effects.Know more about synergistic effect here
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which of the following is most likely to cause a person to choke? small toy ice cream apple sauce toothpaste.
A) Small toy is most likely to cause a person to choke, as it can be difficult to chew and can quickly melt in the mouth, increasing the risk of it sliding down the throat before it is fully chewed.
Small toys, apple sauce, and toothpaste are generally not considered choking hazards unless they are used improperly or consumed in large quantities. However, it's important to remember that any food or object that is not chewed properly can become a choking hazard, especially in young children or individuals with certain medical conditions.
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Full Question;
Which of the following is most likely to cause a person to choke?
a) Small toy
b) Ice cream
c) Apple sauce
d) Toothpaste
what are the 2 primary purposes of MBS study?
Modified Barium Swallow (MBS) study is a type of imaging study that is used to assess the swallow function and the oral and pharyngeal phases of swallowing. The two primary purposes of MBS study are:
1. To identify the presence of any swallowing difficulties: The study helps to identify if there are any difficulties in swallowing, and if so, what type of difficulties exist. The study is particularly helpful in identifying the cause of dysphagia in patients who have difficulties with swallowing.
2. To determine the best treatment plan: Once the cause of dysphagia has been identified, MBS study can help to determine the best treatment plan for the patient. The study can help to identify the most appropriate rehabilitation techniques, such as postural changes or specific exercises, to help improve swallowing function. It can also help to determine if certain foods or textures need to be avoided to prevent aspiration.
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the nurse is caring for a preterm neonate with physiological jaundice who requires phototherapy. which is the physiological mechani
The physiological mechanism involved in this case is the immature liver's inability to effectively process and excrete bilirubin, which is addressed through the use of phototherapy.
Physiological jaundice in preterm neonates is caused by the immaturity of the liver, which results in the accumulation of bilirubin in the bloodstream. Bilirubin is a byproduct of the breakdown of red blood cells and is normally metabolized by the liver and excreted in the faeces. However, in preterm neonates, the liver is not yet fully developed, and the bilirubin is not effectively cleared from the bloodstream.
Phototherapy is a common treatment for physiological jaundice, which works by using special blue lights to convert the bilirubin into a form that can be more easily excreted by the body. The light breaks down the bilirubin into water-soluble isomers that can be eliminated through urine and stool.
The infant is placed under a special light called a phototherapy unit, with the unaided eye protected by eye pads or masks, and sometimes the skin is exposed as well. The infant may require additional treatments until their liver function improves and the bilirubin levels return to normal.
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What are red flags for secondary causes of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (secondary or central hypogonadism)?
Red flags for secondary causes of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, also known as secondary or central hypogonadism, include:
Sudden onset of symptoms: A sudden onset of symptoms such as decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, and fatigue can indicate a secondary cause of hypogonadism.
Hypothalamic-pituitary lesions: Tumors or lesions in the hypothalamus or pituitary gland can cause hypogonadism by disrupting the production and regulation of hormones.
Previous head trauma or surgery: Trauma or surgery to the head can cause damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to hypogonadism.
Chronic medical conditions: Chronic medical conditions such as obesity, type 2 diabetes, and obstructive sleep apnea have been associated with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.
Medications: Certain medications such as opioids, glucocorticoids, and antipsychotics can interfere with the production and regulation of hormones, leading to hypogonadism.
If you are experiencing symptoms of hypogonadism, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
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Optic neuritis is a SE of what drugs?
Optic neuritis is a possible side effect of several medications, including ethambutol (an anti-tuberculosis drug), isoniazid (also an anti-tuberculosis drug), quinidine (used to treat certain heart rhythm problems), chloramphenicol (an antibiotic), and some anti-inflammatory drugs such as sulfasalazine and indomethacin.
It has also been reported as a rare side effect of some immunomodulatory drugs used to treat autoimmune diseases such as multiple sclerosis, including interferon beta-1a and natalizumab. However, it's important to note that not all patients who take these medications will experience optic neuritis as a side effect, and the risk of developing this condition may depend on several factors, including the individual's medical history and other medications they may be taking.
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a patient who is taking clopidogrel (plavix) requests medication to treat a tension headache. the nurse will obtain an order for:
The nurse would obtain an order for a medication that does not interact with clopidogrel and does not increase the risk of bleeding for a patient, who is taking clopidogrel (Plavix) and has requested medication to treat a tension headache.
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a suitable medication for treating tension headaches in patients taking clopidogrel as it does not interact with clopidogrel and does not increase the risk of bleeding.
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as aspirin or ibuprofen, should be avoided as they may increase the risk of bleeding when used with clopidogrel.
Therefore, the nurse should obtain an order for acetaminophen (Tylenol) to treat the patient's tension headache.
They should also educate the patient about the importance of avoiding NSAIDs and other medications that may interact with clopidogrel.
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a woman who is using an intrauterine system for contraception comes to the clinic. when assessing the woman, which finding(s) would alert the nurse to a possible complication? select all that apply.
The nurse should also assess for other signs and symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, and malaise with intrauterine systems. If any of these findings are present, the woman should be referred for further evaluation and treatment.
Possible complications with intrauterine systems (IUS) that may be detected during assessment include:
Abdominal pain or cramping: This may indicate an infection, uterine perforation, or expulsion of the IUS.
Irregular vaginal bleeding: This is a common side effect of IUS use, but if it is excessive or prolonged, it may indicate a complication such as infection, uterine perforation, or expulsion of the IUS.
Unusual vaginal discharge: This may indicate an infection or other complication.
Absence of the IUS strings: The strings attached to the IUS should be visible in the vagina, and their absence may indicate that the IUS has been expelled or migrated.
Pain during intercourse: This may indicate that the IUS has shifted or is causing irritation or injury.
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If a child or adult has a medicine patch in the same place where you would attach the aed pad, you should:.
If a child or adult has a medicine patch in the same place where you would attach the AED pad, you should remove the patch and wipe the skin clean before attaching the AED pad.
AED (Automated External Defibrillator) pads need to make direct contact with the patient's skin for the device to work properly. Medicine patches may interfere with the electrical conduction and cause the AED to malfunction or deliver an insufficient shock. Removing the patch and cleaning the area ensures that the AED pads can adhere correctly and function properly.
In the case of a medicine patch being in the way of AED pad placement, always remove the patch, clean the skin, and then proceed with attaching the AED pads to ensure effective defibrillation.
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The cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory centers are found in.
The cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory centers are all found in the medulla oblongata, which is a part of the brainstem.
The medulla oblongata is responsible for regulating many essential bodily functions, including heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing. The cardiac center controls the rate and force of the heart's contractions, while the vasomotor center regulates blood vessel diameter and blood pressure. The respiratory center controls the rate and depth of breathing, ensuring that oxygen levels in the body are maintained within a safe range. Together, these centers form a complex network that works together to maintain homeostasis, or a balance of bodily functions.
Dysfunction in any of these centers can result in serious health problems, such as heart failure, hypertension, or respiratory failure. Therefore, it is crucial to understand the functions of these centers in order to diagnose and treat any related medical issues.
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an adult client has been admitted to a rehabilitation center after hospital treatment for an ischemic stroke. which aspect of the client's history would be considered to have contributed to his stroke?
The aspect of the client's history that would be considered to have contributed to his ischemic stroke is the presence of risk factors such as hypertension, diabetes, smoking, or a history of heart disease.
Ischemic strokes occur when blood flow to the brain is interrupted, usually by a blood clot. Certain factors increase the likelihood of experiencing a stroke. These risk factors include:
1. Hypertension: High blood pressure can damage blood vessels, making it more likely for a clot to form.
2. Diabetes: Poorly managed diabetes can lead to damage in blood vessels, increasing the risk of clot formation.
3. Smoking: Smoking can damage blood vessels and increase the risk of clot formation.
4. Heart disease: Conditions such as atrial fibrillation or atherosclerosis can lead to blood clot formation, increasing the risk of stroke.
A thorough review of the client's medical history, including any of the mentioned risk factors, will help healthcare professionals identify the possible causes of the ischemic stroke.
Understanding the client's history and risk factors is crucial in determining the cause of the ischemic stroke and developing an appropriate rehabilitation plan. Addressing these risk factors and promoting a healthier lifestyle can help reduce the risk of future strokes.
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How long does a sinus infection last with antibiotics.
A sinus infection typically lasts 7-14 days with antibiotics.
However, it is important to note that this can vary depending on the severity of the infection and the individual's response to the antibiotics. It is also important to finish the entire course of antibiotics, even if symptoms improve before the medication is finished. In some cases, a second course of antibiotics may be necessary if the infection does not fully resolve. Antibiotics are prescribed to treat bacterial sinus infections, and they usually help to shorten the duration and alleviate symptoms. The length of treatment can vary depending on the specific antibiotic prescribed and the severity of the infection. Most commonly, a course of antibiotics lasts for 10-14 days, and patients often start to feel better within a few days of starting the treatment.
With antibiotics, a sinus infection generally lasts between 7-14 days. However, it is important to complete the full course of prescribed antibiotics to ensure proper recovery and prevent antibiotic resistance.
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what mechanism causes hypercalcemia in multiple myeloma?
Multiple myeloma (MM) is a cancer of the plasma cells, which produce antibodies that help fight infections.
One mechanism that can cause hypercalcemia in multiple myeloma is the overproduction of osteoclast-activating factors, such as RANKL (receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-Β ligand), IL-6 (interleukin-6) and TNF-alpha (tumor necrosis factor-alpha). These factors stimulate osteoclast activity, which leads to bone resorption and the release of calcium from bone into the bloodstream. In addition, the cancer cells themselves can produce a protein called parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP), which mimics the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH) and increases calcium levels in the blood by enhancing calcium absorption from the gut and kidneys. Furthermore, the impaired kidney function associated with multiple myeloma can also contribute to hypercalcemia, as the kidneys may not be able to excrete excess calcium efficiently.
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Animals that harbor and can transmit a particular virus but are generally unaffected by it are said to act as a __________ for that virus.
Answer:
host
Explanation:
the virus is just using the animal to stay alive or for transportation
