based on the model, which of the following best explains how regulation of neurotransmitter release might increase the range of responses to a stimulus in the nervous system?

Answers

Answer 1

Based on the model, regulation of neurotransmitter release might increase the range of responses to a stimulus in the nervous system can be best described by (B) Different neurons in the same neural network can release different amounts of neurotransmitter.

In order to influence another cell across a synaptic gap, a neuron produces a chemical signalling agent known as a neurotransmitter. Any major body component or target cell that receives the signal may be another neuron, but it could also be a gland or muscle cell.

Each neurotransmitter has a distinct function in the brain and body. Although there are several minor and major neurotransmitters, we will concentrate on these six key ones: glutamate, acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin.

Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that facilitates contentment, happiness, and optimism. The bulk of current antidepressants, known as serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), work by reducing serotonin levels to treat depression while increasing serotonin availability to brain cells.

Complete question:

Based on the model, which of the following best explains how regulation of neurotransmitter release might increase the range of responses to a stimulus in the nervous system?

(A) In the absence of any stimulus, neurons can still release neurotransmitters.

(B) Different neurons in the same neural network can release different amounts of neurotransmitter.

(C) In the depolarization phase of an action potential, postsynaptic neurons can adjust the amount of neurotransmitter bound to receptors on their surface.

(D) In the recovery phase following a stimulus, enzymes can be mobilized to degrade molecules present in the synaptic vesicles.

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link the following concepts with their definition: group of answer choices locus a section of the genome that codes for a particular molecule. gene a specific region in the genome. f1 generation resulting offspring from pure bred parents f2 generation resulting offspring of f1 generation

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Locus is a specific region in the genome, where the gene is found.

Gene is a section of chromosome that codes for a particular molecule (RNA and protein) required by the organism.

F1 generation refers to the offspring from pure bred parents.

F2 generation refers to the resulting offspring's of F1 generation.

What do you mean by offspring?

Offspring refers to the progeny or descendants of a particular organism. It typically refers to the biological children or descendants of a parent or parents. Offspring can refer to the eggs, sperm, or zygotes produced by an organism, as well as the young or adult animals or plants that develop from those eggs, sperm, or zygotes.

Offspring can also refer to the descendants of a particular individual or group of individuals over multiple generations. In general, the term is used to refer to any living organism that is derived from another organism through reproduction.

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Full question:

FRQ 1: Growth hormone and Insulin
b) Identify a dependent variable i the experimental design. Identify a negative for the effects of hormone addition. Identify a likely reason why the researchers continued their experiment for 240 minutes.

Answers

The level of phosphorylated signaling protein is the dependent variable, and the zero time point, at which the hormone is introduced and may take some time to begin acting, serves as a negative control for the effects of hormone addition.

A necessary hormone is an insulin. Blood sugar levels are regulated, and it aids in the conversion of food into energy. Your body can't produce enough insulin or can't use it correctly if you have diabetes. For injection (shot), injectable pen, or pump administration, your doctor may prescribe human-made insulin. Insulin powder can also be inhaled.

Your pancreas secretes insulin, a hormone that naturally occurs and aids in the body's usage of sugar as fuel. The inability of your pancreas to produce or release the insulin required to regulate your blood sugar levels may lead to diabetes if it doesn't function as it should.

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The latest studies of bee colonies, which can include up to 80,000 individuals, shed new light on what some scientists believe is the most elaborate social structure next to human beings in the animal kingdom.
A. is the most elaborate social structure next to human beings in the animal kingdom
B. to be the animal kingdom's most elaborate social structure after human beings
C. is the most elaborate social structure in the animal kingdom next to that of human beings
D. to be the most elaborate social structure in the animal kingdom next to human beings
E. is the most elaborate social structure disregarding that of human beings in the animal kingdom

Answers

Correct Answer is C. is the most elaborate social structure in the animal kingdom next to that of human beings.

How does the division of labor within bee colonies contribute to their elaborate social structure?

The division of labor within bee colonies is a key factor that contributes to their elaborate social structure. In a bee colony, there are three types of bees: the queen, drones, and worker bees. Each type of bee has a specific role and responsibility that they specialize in. The queen bee is responsible for reproduction, drones are responsible for mating and reproducing, and worker bees are responsible for foraging for food, taking care of the young, and maintaining the hive. This division of labor allows for a high level of efficiency and organization within the colony, which leads to the elaborate social structure that scientists have observed.

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Explain whether a graph was the appropriate type for the data being presented. (example, its a line graph but should have been a pie graph)

Explain mistakes in the way a graph is set-up. (example, the line graph did not use consistent or equal x-axis units)

How and what data could you arrange in a graph. (example, I could make a pie graph with this data)

Analyze a graph and explain some conclusion(s). (example, this bar graph showers fewer people will ____________

Answers

Answer: Whether a graph is the appropriate type for the data being presented depends on the nature and structure of the data, as well as the type of information that needs to be conveyed. For example, a line graph is often used to show trends over time, while a pie chart is used to show proportions of different categories. If a line graph was used to present data that would be better represented by a pie chart, it may not be the most effective way to convey the information.

Mistakes in the way a graph is set up can include things like using inconsistent or unequal units on the x-axis, failing to label axes or data points, and not providing a key or legend to explain the meaning of the data. These mistakes can make it difficult for the viewer to understand the information presented in the graph.

To create a graph, you would need to organize and arrange data in a way that is appropriate for the type of graph you want to create. For example, if you wanted to create a pie chart, you would need to have data that can be divided into categories, and you would need to calculate the proportions of each category.

Analyzing a graph involves interpreting the data presented in the graph and making conclusions about the information it conveys. For example, if a bar graph shows fewer people will participate in an event, one could conclude that there is a lack of interest in that event. Additionally, you can compare different sets of data presented in the graph, looking for patterns, trends and outliers.

which one of the following do you expect to occur following a worse-than-expected harvest of sugar beets

Answers

Aphid-spread virus is the reason for a worse-than-expected harvest of sugar beets.

What is harvest?

the season when crops are cut and harvested from the fields, or the action of cutting and collecting them, or the crops cut and collected:

harvest of grains, potatoes, and grapes

This year's crop was abundant.

Farmers report a bumper (= very large) crop this year.

It won't be long before harvest (time).

With the harvest over, I was free to relax with a clear mind and conscience.

Farmers are concerned about the crop due to the drought.

How many more hands will we require to assist with the harvest?

This year's crop is a record due to the long, scorching summer.

This year's harvest was one of the most productive since the 1985 record yield.

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Complete question:

which one of the following do you expect to occur following a worse-than-expected harvest of sugar beets

a. soil loss

b. Leaf spot is a wasting disease

c. aphid-spread virus

d. fall harvest

Some hormones enter cells via _____. A) exocytosis. B) pinocytosis. C) receptor-mediated endocytosis. D) primary active transport.

Answers

D primary active transport

define the following terms: true breeding, hybridization, monohybrid cross, p generation, f1 generation, f2 generation

Answers

The following terms can be defined as:

True breeding: True breeding is a sort of breeding in which the parents generate kids with the same phenotype. This signifies that both parents are homozygous for all of the traits. Aberdeen Angus cattle are an example of real breeding.Hybridization: In genomics, hybridization is the process by which two complementary single-stranded DNA or RNA molecules join together to generate a double-stranded molecule. The bonding is determined by the correct base pairing between the two single-stranded molecules.Monohybrid cross: A monohybrid cross is a genetic mix of two people with homozygous genotypes, or genotypes with totally dominant or completely recessive alleles, resulting in opposing phenotypes for a certain genetic characteristic.P generation: The paternal generation is a basic P generation definition. The p generation is the first pair of parents in a genetic cross experiment. The F1 generation is the first generation created by the p generation.F1 generation: F1 refers to the first filial generation of seeds/plants or animal progeny produced by a cross-mating of markedly different parental types. In general, the characteristics of plants, insects, animals, and humans are the consequence of several gene interactions.F2 generation: It is the first filial generation resulting from the union of two separate parents. It is the second filial generation produced by crossing the F1 generation with oneself.

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Suppose a geneticist uses a three point testcross to map three recessive, linked hummingbird wing shape mutations called tn, r, and b, where tn is associated with thin wings, r is associated with round wings, and b is associated with blunt wings. He first crosses homozygous blunt birds to homozygous thin, round birds. Next, he testcrosses the F1 progeny to thin, round, blunt birds. He obtained the results shown.Given this data, label the progeny phenotypic classes as either parental, single crossover (SCO), or double crossover (DCO) recombinant types. Each label may be used multiple times. Two classes have already been filled in.Phenotype Number Recombinant typeblunt 821 thin, round 815 round 179 thin, blunt 161 SCOthin 7 round, blunt 8 thin, round, blunt 24 SCOwild type 27 Answer Bank:parentalDCOSCO

Answers

The progeny phenotypic classes can be classified as parental: blunt and thick and round, SCO: thick and blunt, round, thick, round and blunt; DCO: thick, round and blunt.

First, the geneticist crosses homozygous rapid, zigzag flies with homozygous narrow flies. The Fi progeny is then testcrossed to fast, zigzag, and narrow parents, yielding the results shown in the table. A three point testcross in linkage analysis refers to examining the inheritance pattern of three alleles by mating a triple recessive homozygote with a triple heterozygote. It allows us to establish the spacing between the three alleles as well as their chromosomal order.

Based on the observation from the given data, the progeny phenotypic classes can be labelled as follows:

Blunt- parental

Thick, round- parental

Round- SCO

Thick, blunt- SCO

Thick- DCO

Round, blunt- DCO

Thick, round, blunt- SCO

Wild type- SCO

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patrick's favorite shade of purple paint is made with 4 44 milliliters of blue paint for every 3 33 milliliters of red paint. which of the following paint mixtures will create the same shade of purple?

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If we combine two or more colours in the same ratio, we get the same pigmentation of purple colour.

Consequently, 44 millilitres of blue paint and 33 millilitres of red paint are used to create a shade of purple paint. Which of the given compositions will give us the same shade of hue, we must determine. The answer to the question is that the ratio of blue to red in the paint is 4:34:3. In order to keep the ratio of 4:34:3, 88 millilitres of blue paint and 66 millilitres of red paint were combined.

The complete question is:

Patrick’s favorite shade of purple paint is made with 4 milliliters of blue paint for every 3 milliliters of red paint.

Which of the following paint mixtures will create the same shade of purple?

(Choice A)3 milliliters of blue paint mixed with 4 milliliters of red paint

(Choice B)8 milliliters of blue paint mixed with 6 milliliters of red paint

(Choice C)6 milliliters of blue paint mixed with 8 milliliters of red paint

(Choice D)20 milliliters of blue paint mixed with 15 milliliters of red paint

(Choice E) 12 milliliters of blue paint mixed with 16 milliliters of red paint.

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The continuity of life is based on heritable information in the form of DNA. How does the process of mitosis faithfully parcel out exact copies of this heritable information in the production of genetically identical daughter cells?
A. During mitosis, each chromosome becomes attached to the centromere. At anaphase, centromeres drag random chromatids toward the poles of the cell, where they become duplicated. As a result, two identical chromosomal sets form at each pole.
B. During mitosis, each chromatid of a duplicated chromosome becomes attached to the microtubule of one of the mitotic spindles. At anaphase, mitotic spindles pull the chromatids toward the poles of the cell, therefore forming two identical chromosomal sets at each pole. C. During mitosis, each chromosome becomes attached to the centromere. At anaphase, centromeres drag random chromosomes toward the poles of the cell, where they become duplicated. As a result, two identical chromosomal sets form at each pole. D. During mitosis, each duplicated chromosome becomes attached to the microtubule of one of the mitotic spindles. At anaphase, mitotic spindles pull the chromosomes toward the poles of the cell, therefore forming two identical chromosomal sets at each pole.

Answers

Every chromatid of such a duplicated chromosome attaches to a microtubule of a mitotic spindle during mitosis.Sister chromatids that are genetically identical to their parent cells are created during mitosis.

Through its four stages—prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase—mitosis faithfully distributes perfect copies of this genetic material to create daughter cells that are genetically identical. A nuclear envelope deteriorates during prophase because it prevents the chromosomes from reaching the cytoplasm. Sister chromatids that are genetically identical to their parent cells are created during mitosis. The cell divides its copied chromosomes equally to ensure that each daughter cell does have a full set before copying, or "replicating," its chromosomes. Mitosis produces brand-new cells that are genetically similar to one another.  Some algae species have the capacity for rapid growth. The enormous kelp Macrocystis pyrifera has a growth rate.

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5. In which layer do most satellites orbit the Earth?
A. exosphere
B. stratosphere
C. thermosphere
D. mesosphere

Answers

Answer:

exosphere

Explanation:

in this layer, atoms and molecules escape into outer space and satellites orbit the earth

pick two peers who chose current events or personal experiences different from yours. offer your own ideas about how having knowledge of the social sciences might affect how your peers understand the events they identified.

Answers

Answer:

Having knowledge of the social sciences can help one to understand the social, cultural, economic and political contexts in which events occur. For example, if one of your peers has chosen a current event related to economic inequality, knowledge of the social sciences can provide them with an understanding of the economic systems and policies that contribute to inequality, as well as the historical and cultural factors that shape people's perceptions of and responses to economic inequality.

If another peer has chosen a personal experience related to race relations, knowledge of the social sciences can provide them with an understanding of the historical and ongoing structural inequalities that shape race relations, as well as the cultural and psychological factors that influence people's beliefs and behaviors around race.

In summary, having knowledge of the social sciences can help one to understand the complexities and nuances of current events and personal experiences, and to see how these are shaped by larger social, cultural, economic and political forces.

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macconkey agar without crystal violet is a culture medium useful in the presumptive identification of: ____

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A culture media helpful in the gram-negative bacteria's presumptive identification is MacConkey agar without crystal violet.

In the Gram staining method of bacterial differentiation, gram-negative bacteria are defined as those that do not maintain the crystal violet stain. [1] They are distinguished by having cell envelopes made of a peptidoglycan cell wall sandwiched between a bacterial outer membrane and an inner cytoplasmic cell membrane. Almost every environment on Earth that supports life contains gram-negative bacteria. The Escherichia coli model organism is a gram-negative bacterium, as are many pathogenic bacteria including Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Chlamydia trachomatis, and Yersinia pestis. They provide a serious medical issue since their outer membrane shields them from a variety of medications, including penicillin, detergents that would typically disrupt the inner cell membrane, and lysozyme, an antibacterial enzyme generated by mammals that is a part of the innate immune system.

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A _______ is the complete set of chromosomes of an organism, arranged and and displayed in pairs and ordered by size. (Select the BEST answer.)
a. genome
b. karyotype
c. nucleus
d. heredity
e. gene

Answers

Answer:

b. karyotype

Explanation:

A karyotype is the complete set of chromosomes of an organism, arranged and displayed in pairs and ordered by size. It is used to identify chromosomal abnormalities and to study the genetic makeup of an organism. The karyotype can be visualized through a microscope after staining the chromosomes to make them visible. It is a powerful tool in genetics, as it can be used to identify specific chromosomal disorders and to study the genetic makeup of an organism.

although people can acquire phobias to almost any object or situation, certain phobias (e.g., those to snakes, spiders, heights) are much more common than others. this finding can best be explained by which of the following concepts? responses biological preparedness biological preparedness spontaneous recovery spontaneous recovery stimulus discrimination stimulus discrimination stimulus generalization stimulus generalization observational learning

Answers

The finding that certain phobias in people are much more common than others can best be explained by the concept of biological preparedness.

Biological preparedness is described as the idea that people and animals are inherently inclined to form associations between certain stimuli and responses. This concept of Biological preparedness fills a huge role in learning, particularly in understanding the classical conditioning process. So in cases where people can acquire phobias to almost any object or situation, certain phobias (e.g., those to snakes, spiders, and heights) are much more common than others, it can be explained by the concept of Biological preparedness. Response generalization is an critical detail of operant conditioning. It takes place while someone can generalize a conduct found out withinside the presence of a stimulus after which generalize that reaction to another, comparable stimulus.

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Terry and Ahmad plan to adopt 3-year-old Oleg, who has been living in an orphanage since birth. Terry and Ahmad should know that early, prolonged institutionalization __________.
A) fosters resilience in later childhood and adolescence
B) increases the brain’s capacity to manage stress
C) leads to a decrease in size and activity in the cerebral cortex
D) has little impact on intellectual development

Answers

Oleg, 3, who was born in an orphanage, will be adopted by Terry and Ahmad. Terry and Ahmad should be aware that early, chronic institutionalisation causes the cerebral-cortex to shrink in size and activity.


There are a huge number of neurons in the cerebral cortex. High-order cognitive processing or the conscious mind is carried out by these neurons in humans. The sensory signals produced by the body are terminated in the cerebral cortex. These sensory inputs are further processed at various levels, and the combined information is ultimately applied to the creation of particular actions. The cerebral cortex is made up of a layer of cells and fibers that is 2 to 4 mm thick and has numerous local interconnections in order to carry out this highest grade of processing.


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URGENT !!! PLEASE HELP ME
Match the terms to the best description.
1. Hydrolysis
2. Monomer
3. Fatty acid
4. Polysaccharide
5. Starch
6. Glucose
7. Carbohydrate
8. Lipid
9. Dehydration Synthesis
10. Monosaccharide
11. Polymer
12. Glycogen
13. Phospholipid
a. A large molecule made up of linked monomers

b. C₂H₁2O6

c.An organic compound with C, H, and O in 1:2:1 ratio

d. A carbohydrate used to store short-term energy in animals

e. Monomer of carbohydrates; "one sugar"

f. Another term for carbohydrate; made of many monosaccharides

g. Reaction that breaks up a polymer into monomers by adding
water

h. A lipid that has a hydrophilic head and 2 hydrophobic tails that
make up biological membranes

i. Long, linear molecule made of mostly Cs & Hs; monomer of lipids

j. A single unit that can be linked together to make a polymer

k. A biomolecule used for long-term energy storage

l.A carbohydrate used to store short-term energy in plants

m. Reaction that links monomers into a polymer by removing
Water

Answers

Answer: A. polymer

B. glucose

C. carbohydrate

D. glycogen

E. monosaccharide

F. polysaccharide

G. hydrolysis

H. phospholipid

I. fatty acid

J. monomer

K. lipid

L. starch

M. dehydration synthesis

Explanation:

you're studying mn blood type (determined by one gene with two alleles) in hopi native americans, and you get the following genotype counts: mm: 33 mn: 62 nn: 23 based on these numbers, are the hopi at hardy-weinberg for this blood group gene? if they differ from hardy-weinberg, interpret the cause of the deviation. (if individual genotype frequencies are all within 0.05 of expectations, consider that to be not different; if individual genotype frequencies differ by more than 0.05 from expectations, then consider that to be different)

Answers

Based on the number of MN blood group genotypes, they are not from the HW data, possibly due to the Wahlund effect of interbreeding with neighboring tribes (or maybe inbreeding)

In population genetics, the Wahlund effect is the buildup of heterozygosity (ie when an organism has two different alleles at a locus) in a population caused by the structure of subpopulations. That is, if two or more subpopulations are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium but have different allele frequencies, the overall heterozygosity is less than if the entire population is in equilibrium. The underlying cause of this population subdivision could be a bottleneck to the geographic flow of genes followed by genetic shifts within the subpopulation.

Genotype frequency:

MM (p2) = 400/2000 = 0.2

MN(2pq) = 1200/2000 = 0.6

NN (q2) = 400/2000 = 0.2

Allele frequency:    

Frequency M = p = p² + 1/2 (2pq) = 0.2 + 1/2 (0.6) = 0.2 + 0.3 = 0.5

Frequency N = q = 1-0.5 = 0.5.

Expected genotype frequencies (assuming Hardy-Weinberg):

MM (p²) = (0.5)² = 0.25

MN (2pq) = 2(0.5)(0.5) = 0.5

NN (q²) = (0.5)² = 0.25

Expected number of individuals from each genotype:

MM = 0.25 X 400 = 100

MN = 0.5 X 1200 = 600

NN = 0.25 X 400 = 100

CHI-SQUARE (X²):

X² = Σ(O-E)²/E

X² = (400-100)²/400 + (1200-600)²/1200 + (400-100)²/40

X² =225 + 180 + 200

X² =630

X² (Calculated) > X² (table), then reject the null hypothesis. Not on HWE.

Therefore, conclude there is a statistically significant difference between what was observed and what was expected under Hardy-Weinberg. That is, the null hypothesis is rejected and concludes that the population is not in HWE. They don't, possibly due to the Wahlund effect of interbreeding with neighboring tribes (or possibly inbreeding).

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Which of the following molecules is most likely to induce a conformational change in a uniporter that transports glucose across the plasma membrane? A: An extracellular ligand B: An intracellular ligand C: There is no need for a ligand, as the transporter changes conformation spontaneously D: A molecule of glucose E : A Na+ ion

Answers

Sodium-glucose coupled transporters transfer sodium ions and glucose symportantly (in the same direction). A facilitated diffusion mechanism is used by the GLUTs to carry glucose across the plasma membrane.

In order to transport glucose against its gradient of concentration, SGLTs must instead rely on the sodium concentration gradient produced by the sodium-potassium ATPase as a source of chemical potential in plasma membrane.. The SGLTs that absorb glucose from food sources are found on the luminal surfaces of the cells lining the small intestine. Additionally, they are present in renal tubules where they aid in the reabsorption of glucose from glomerular filtrate.

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Of the following, indicate which are aldoses D-Threose D-Sorbose L-Glucose Glyceraldehyde D-Fructose None of the Above

Answers

D-Threose, L-Glucose, Glyceraldehyde are the group of aldoses.

The monosaccharide aldose has a carbonyl group attached to the carbon atom. A monosaccharide having a carbonyl group positioned distant from the end of the carbon atom is aldose. Aldehyde-containing sugars are referred to as aldose. D-Threose is a monosaccharide with four carbons. It belongs to the aldose family of monosaccharides because it has an aldehyde group at the end rather than a ketone group. L-glucose and glyceraldehyde are aldose sugars because they have a terminal -CHO group in their structure. Whereas D-fructose and D-sorbose are regarded as ketones. Ketose is a monosaccharide with a ketone group attached to its carbon skeleton. Here, a ketone group is present in both the D- sorbose and the D- fructose molecules.

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homozygous for the three dominant traits: blank.target 1 of 4 homozygous for the three recessive traits: blank.target 2 of 4 heterozygous for all three characters: blank.target 3 of 4 homozygous for axial and tall, heterozygous for seed shape: blank.

Answers

An organism can be homozygous dominant or homozygous recessive depending on whether it possesses two copies of the same allele in the dominant or recessive chromosome. When an organism possesses two distinct alleles of the same gene, it is said to be heterozygous.

What is homozygous dominant homozygous recessive and heterozygous?The phrases genotype, phenotype, and trait are derived from the alleles of a gene that are present in an organism and the physical effects. A specific set of alleles for a certain gene makes up an organism's genotype. Accordingly, the flower-color gene may produce the genotypes red-red, red-white, and white-white in the pea plants mentioned above, for instance. An organism's allelic combination manifests physically as its phenotypic (genotype). There are only two potential phenotypes for pea plants when the red allele is dominant and the white allele is recessive. While plants with the white-white genotype will have the white phenotype, both the red-red and red-white genotypes will result in plants with the red phenotype.Using the aforementioned human examples, it is also possible to show how genotype and phenotype are related. People who have the normal-normal or normal-mutant genotypes for cystic fibrosis have the normal phenotype, whereas those who have the mutant-mutant genotype have the disease phenotype. When it comes to Huntington's disease, those with the normal-normal genotype exhibit the normal phenotype, whereas those with the normal-mutant or mutant-mutant phenotypic exhibit the diseased phenotype.

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Which of the following is (are) true regarding the activity of a protein regulated by phosphorylation?
A) It depends mostly on the concentration of inorganic phosphate inside the cell.
B) It depends on the balance in the cell between active kinase and active phosphatase molecules.
C) It is dependent on the site of attachment of the protein to the plasma membrane.
D) Only A and B are true.
E) A, B, and C are true.

Answers

Only A and B are true.

It depends mostly on the concentration of inorganic phosphate inside the cell. It depends on the balance in the cell between active kinase and active phosphatase molecules.

What is phosphorylation?

Phosphorylation is a process in which a phosphate group is added to a molecule, usually a protein, by the action of a kinase enzyme.

It is an important mechanism in cellular regulation and signaling, as the addition of the phosphate group can alter the structure and activity of the protein, allowing it to interact with other molecules in the cell.

Therefore, Option D is correct.

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An increase in extracellular K+ would depolarize a neuron. This depolarization would occur if neurons were damaged. From what you have just learned about generating an action potential, what effect would this have on nearby axons? The nearby axonal membranes will ___________.

Answers

A rise in extracellular K+ depolarizes a neuron. If neurons were damaged, this depolarization would occur. The nearby axonal membranes will also depolarize.

This is because an increase in extracellular potassium (K+) ions causes the membrane potential of a neuron to become more positive, which is called depolarization. If a neuron becomes depolarized, this change in membrane potential can spread to nearby axons via the process of electrical signaling called an action potential. When an action potential is generated in an axon, the electrical charge on the membrane changes rapidly and propagates along the length of the axon. This causes the membrane potential of the neighboring axons to also become more positive, leading to depolarization of these axons as well.

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Which of the following statement best describes how bacteria in a hot spring control the fluidity of their plasma membrane?a. They decrease the percentage of lipids with unsaturated hydrocarbon chains in their plasma membrane.b. Because they don't synthesize cholesterol, they cannot control membrane fluidity and therefore have a very fluid plasma membrane.c. They use cholesterol to prevent membranes from becoming too fluid.d. They form lipid rafts to prevent too much fluidity.e. They increase the percentage of lipids with unsaturated hydrocarbon chains in their plasma membrane.

Answers

e. They increase the percentage of lipids with unsaturated hydrocarbon chains in their plasma membrane. It is useful to measure the fluidity of bacterial cytoplasmic membranes using fluorescence polarisation techniques.

Bacteria actively regulate membrane fluidity in response to changes in temperature, pressure, ion concentrations, pH, food availability, and xenobiotics by altering the composition of their lipids. By altering the relative ratio of saturated to anteiso-branched fatty acids, their membrane fluidity is modified. When either the temperature or the amount of unsaturated lipids rises, membranes become more fluid. Cells control the production of lipid desaturases, which maintain a vital equilibrium between saturated and unsaturated membrane lipids, to maintain ideal membrane fluidity during temperature fluctuations.

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The term __________ refers to the belief that those species of animals, including human beings, that are best adapted to their environment survive and prosper, whereas those that are poorly adapted die out.
a. social relativism
b. social Darwinism
c. social statics and dynamics
d. social eugenics

Answers

The term social Darwinism refers to the belief that those species of animals, including human beings, that are best adapted to their environment survive and prosper, whereas those that are poorly adapted die out.

What is species?

Species is a taxonomic rank used in the biological classification of living organisms, which is denoted by a Latin binomial, such as Homo sapiens. A species is defined as a group of organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring, while members of different species cannot interbreed.

Therefore, Option B is correct.

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A species of beetle can be either black or brown in color. The beetle's color is determined by a single gene, and black is recessive to brown. If changes in the environment put the brown beetles at a disadvantage for survival, which of the following will most likely occur? (R)

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If changes in the environment put the brown beetles at a disadvantage for survival, it is most likely that the frequency of the black allele in the species population will increase.

The color of the beetle is determined by a single gene, with the black allele being recessive to the brown allele. When the environment changes and the brown beetles have a lower survival rate, brown beetles will be less likely to reproduce and pass on their allele. Black beetles, however, will have a survival advantage and will be more likely to reproduce and pass on their allele. Over time, the frequency of the black allele in the species population will increase, resulting in more black beetles and fewer brown beetles. This process is known as natural selection.

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multiple choice. the uniform anatomical gift act spurred much legislation in the u.s., specifically the common rule, 45 cfr and 46 cfr, which itemized what as well as protections afforded to . review later research techniques would be allowed on donated organs of any species; the researchers who conduct tests as of yet undeveloped at that time could and could not be done to human fetuses, viable, and non-viable neonates for research; fetuses from implantation to birth, but not for any time pre-implantation the population of women was allowed to donate their fetuses for research; the mother should she wish no future research to be conducted on her fetal material parts of an aborted fetus could be donated; all babies conceived in vitro

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Laws enacted by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) to safeguard subjects from dangers associated with research projects that any federal department or agency participates in.

What did 45 CFR 46 do?Laws enacted by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) to safeguard subjects from dangers associated with research projects that any federal department or agency participates in.Also known as Protection of Human Subjects, 45 CFR Part 46, and human participant protection regulations.45 CFR 46 of the Federal Rules.In order to safeguard study subjects, investigators and IRBs must adhere to the "Protection of Human Subjects" regulation, sometimes known as the "Common Rule".US Public Health Service Guidelines (45 CFR 46 raised to regulatory status the US Public Health Service policy of 1966 "Clinical research and investigation involving human beings".)

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Fertilization is most likely to occur when intercourse occurs __________ although sperm can live in the woman's body as long as __________ after ejaculation.

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Thus, even if sexual activity occurs a few days after ovulation, fertilisation can still take place. An oocyte, on the other hand, can endure.

Usually, the fallopian tube that connects an ovarian to the uterus is where fertilisation occurs. An embryo begins to develop if the fertilised egg successfully passes through the fallopian tube & implants in the uterus. There is sporadic contact between both the egg and sperm. The egg sleeps for an additional 30 hours until it reaches the ampullar-isthmic junction, a particular area of the tube. In this section of the tube, the sperm and egg unite to form the fertilised egg. The fertilised egg then starts to quickly fall toward the uterus. Capable sperm can connect to the oocyte and penetrate to the zona pellucida of the egg by releasing the digestive juices in the acrosome when they come into touch with the oocyte (the acrosomal reaction).

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part c what are the possible results of a nondisjunction event in meiosis i versus in meiosis ii? sort each item to the appropriate bin. if a description can apply to both meiosis i and ii, sort it to the third bin. resethelp nondisjunction in meiosis idroppable nondisjunction in meiosis iidroppable nondisjunction in either meiosis i or meiosis iidroppable

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Non disjunction is a genetic error that occurs during meiosis, the process of cell division that produces sperm and egg cells. There are two types of meiosis: Meiosis I and Meiosis II. Here are the possible results of a nondisjunction event in each type of meiosis:

What are the possible results of a nondisjunction event?Meiosis I:Chromosomes fail to separate properly, resulting in one cell with an extra chromosome and another cell with a missing chromosome. This can lead to conditions such as Down Syndrome (extra chromosome 21) or Turner Syndrome (missing chromosome X).A cell may end up with an extra set of chromosomes, resulting in a condition known as trisomy. Meiosis II:Chromosomes fail to separate properly, resulting in one sperm or egg cell with an extra chromosome and another sperm or egg cell with a missing chromosome. This can lead to a fertilized egg with an extra or missing chromosome, leading to conditions such as Down Syndrome or Turner Syndrome.Nondisjunction in Either Meiosis I or Meiosis II:Chromosomes may end up in the wrong cell, leading to a condition known as translocation.Chromosomes may break and reattach in a different place, leading to a condition known as inversion.It is important to note that while these errors in meiosis can lead to genetic disorders, they can also occur without any noticeable effects. Nondisjunction events are also a major contributor to genetic diversity in a population.

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determine the phenotypic ratios of the offspring. determine the phenotypic ratios of the offspring. 9 yellow-inflated : 3 yellow-constricted : 3 green-inflated: 1 green-constricted 9 green-constricted : 3 green-inflated : 3 yellow-constricted : 1 yellow-inflated 9 green-inflated : 3 green-constricted : 3 yellow-inflated : 1 yellow-constricted 9 yellow-constricted : 3 yellow-inflated : 3 green-constricted : 1 green-inflated

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The children's phenotypes can be used to determine the unidentified genotype.

The children's phenotypes can be used to determine the unidentified genotype. If only dominant phenotypes result from mating the recessive phenotype individual with the unknown dominant phenotype (PP or Pp genotype), the unidentified person is homozygous dominant (no recessive). What is the name of the process used to determine the genotype of an unidentified person? Another essential invention by Gregor Mendel is the test cross. In a genetic experiment known as a test cross, a homozygous recessive organism with a dominant phenotype is crossed with an unknown genotype (and phenotype). In Mendelian genetics, the heritability of traits is the main focus. These characteristics are each bundled into a separate gamete, inherited separately, and frequently display dominance, where one characteristic's effects might conceal those of others.

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