carlos is a healthy but sedentary college student. he weighs 175 pounds. about how many grams of protein should he consume each day? a. 64 grams b. 84 grams c. 55 grams d. 75 grams

Answers

Answer 1

According to question, 64 grams of Proteins is a healthy for college student he weighs 175 pounds .

Complete proteins are defined as foods that include all nine essential amino acids. Beef, poultry, fish, eggs, dairy products, soy products, quinoa, and buckwheat are a few of these foods. Given that they all include all nine of the required amino acids, red meat, chicken, and salmon are all fantastic sources of high-quality protein. These incomplete protein variations are present in a variety of foods, including grains, almonds, and green peas.

Only about 200 milligrammes of sodium are actually required in the diet since the kidneys aggressively reabsorb sodium. The hormonal regulation of sodium renal reabsorption allows for a relatively steady sodium level in the blood.

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Mrs. Jones is pulseless and has a rhythm with visible P waves, narrow QRS complexes associated with P waves, and a rate of 130 beats/min on the cardiac monitor. Which of the following would best describe the rhythm?a. Pulseless electrical activity
b. Sinus tachycardia
c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. Ventricular tachycardia

Answers

Pulseless electrical activity is best described as the rhythm.

What is Pulseless electrical?

Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is a type of irregular heart rhythm, which means it's an issue with your heart's electrical system. When this occurs, your heart stops pumping because the electrical activity in your heart is too weak to do so (cardiac arrest). Without immediate medical care, cardiac arrest and PEA can be fatal in a matter of minutes.

When you have pulseless electrical activity (PEA), your heart stops beating because the electrical activity in your heart is insufficient to cause your heart to beat. You experience cardiac arrest when your heart stops beating and you become unresponsive.

PEA is a "nonshockable" heart rhythm, which means a defibrillator won't treat it. If left untreated, PEA can result in sudden cardiac death in a matter of minutes.

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Select the minimum treatment time to assess the effectiveness of antidepressant drug therapy. A 1-2 weeks . B . 3-4 weeks C . 6-8 weeks D . 10-14 weeks 1

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Six to eight weeks must pass before evaluating the antidepressant drug therapy's efficacy.

Antidepressants might take some time to start working. Although you might notice some improvement in your depression symptoms after a few weeks, it usually takes 4 to 8 weeks to experience the full benefits of your medication. In two to four weeks, improvements ought to be noticeable. Six to twelve weeks is when full remission is observed. Your doctor will advise you to continue taking the medication for at least six to nine months after you start to feel its positive effects if it does indeed help you. Antidepressants can help with reducing the symptoms of depression, but you might not feel better right away. Before you notice a change in your mood, it typically takes three to four weeks. It occasionally takes even longer.

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the nurse is checking lochia discharge on a client in the immediate postpartum period and notes that the lochia is bright red and contains some small clots. which interpretation would the nurse make about this finding?

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The interpretation, the nurse would make about this finding is normal. Lochia is the vaginal discharge you've got got after giving birth.

It incorporates a combination of blood, mucus and uterine tissue. It has a stale, musty smell like menstrual duration discharge and may remaining numerous weeks. Lochia is heavy at the start however progressively subsides to a lighter float till it is going away. Lochia for the primary three days after shipping is darkish purple in color. A few small blood clots, no large than a plum, are normal. For the fourth via 10th day after shipping, the lochia may be extra watery and pinkish to brownish in color. Moderate lochia would describe a 4- to 6-inch stain, scant humor a 1- to 2-inch stain, and lightweight or little AN some 4-inch stain. significant or massive humor would describe a pad that's saturated at intervals one hour.

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nurses provide many interventions to prevent falls in health care settings. what would be an appropriate intervention to prevent falls?

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In healthcare settings, nurses offer a variety of fall prevention strategies. The ideal fall prevention measure is to lock the wheels of wheelchairs and beds.

It is advised that wheelchair-bound patients get multifaceted fall prevention programmes that include specific gait, balance, and functional coordination training (level II evidence). Additionally, it is advised that preventive care for patients in wheelchairs include: supervised exercise; evaluation of a patient's capacity to use their wheelchair (including transfers); and confirmation that this mobility device is suitable for the patient. It is also advised that the wheelchair is in good shape (clinical experience and expert consensus). In long-term care facilities (level I evidence) and acute care facilities, it is advised that multifactorial fall prevention interventions for patients with delirium address specific fall risk factors for patients (level II evidence).

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usually indicates number time position direction or negation

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Prefix usually indicates number time position direction or negation.

What is Prefix?

Affixes called prefixes are placed before the word stem. When it is added at the beginning, it changes one word into another. For instance, the prefix unhappy is added to the word happy to produce the word unhappy. Because it alters the form of the words it is attached to, a prefix is also referred to as a performative, particularly in the study of languages.

Prefixes, like other affixes, can either be  derivational or inflectional (creating a new form of the word with the same basic meaning and lexical category but acting in a different way in the sentence) (creating a new word with a new semantic meaning and sometimes also a different lexical category).

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Complete question: _________ usually indicates number time position direction or negation

the postoperative client refuses to do deep breathing, and he refuses to turn while in bed. he informs the nurse that it hurts for him to do both of these things. which intervention should the nurse perform first?

Answers

The nurse should assess client's pain level and manage pain accordingly.

Use Droplet Precautions for sufferers recognized or suspected to be inflamed with pathogens transmitted through respiration droplets which are generated through a affected person who's coughing, sneezing, or talking. All hospitalized sufferers are vulnerable to contracting a nosocomial infection. Some sufferers are at extra hazard than others-younger children, the elderly, and folks with compromised immune structures are much more likely to get an infection. If on Droplet Precautions, the patient should wear a surgical- type face mask and follow cough etiquette when outside of their room.

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aclient is hospitalized for an exacerbation of emphysema. the client is experiencing a fever, chills, and difficulty breathing on exertion. which is an important nursing action?

Answers

B. A patient is admitted to the hospital due to an emphysema exacerbation. The patient has a temperature, chills, and has trouble breathing when they exert themselves, thus the nurse would recommend drinking more fluids. Fever fluid loss will be replaced by fluid, and the viscosity of secretions will be reduced.

Breathlessness is a symptom of the lung disease emphysema. Alveoli, the lungs' air sacs, suffer damage in those with emphysema. The air sacs' inner walls deteriorate and tear over time, resulting in the creation of fewer, larger air gaps as opposed to more, smaller ones. As a result, less oxygen enters your bloodstream because of a reduction in lung surface area. However, patients with emphysema typically have damaged alveoli as a result of smoking: the inner walls of these sacs weaken and rupture, creating greater air holes and lowering the air exchange surface of the cells in the lungs.

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Question- a client is hospitalized for an exacerbation of emphysema. the client is experiencing a fever, chills, and difficulty breathing on exertion. which is an important nursing action?

A. Checking for capillary refill

B. Encouraging increased fluid intake.

C. Suctioning secretions from the airway

D. Administering a high concentration of oxygen.

the nurse is informing a group of unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) about when it is appropriate for a vital sign assessment to be completed in an acute care facility. what responses would be correct? select all that apply.

Answers

The responses that would be correct about the vital sign assessment are:

At the beginning and end of each nurse’s shift (1)Upon admission to a clinical facility (2) When the client’s status changes (3) More frequently after a procedure or surgery (5)

Vital signs are often assessed at the beginning and end of each shift to establish a baseline for the client’s health status and to detect any changes that may have occurred during the shift. Vital signs are typically assessed upon admission to a facility to establish a baseline for the client’s health status and detect any immediate concerns.

Vital signs are often assessed when a client’s status changes, such as when they become feverish or develop a new symptom, to detect any changes in their health status and to guide the appropriate intervention. Vital signs are often assessed more frequently after a procedure or surgery to detect any complications or changes in the client’s health status.

 

Vital sign assessments are not based on time availability but rather on the client’s needs and the facility’s protocol. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.

This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:

At the beginning and end of each nurse’s shiftUpon admission to a clinical facilityWhen the client’s status changesWhen there is time available in the dayMore frequently after a procedure or surgery

 The correct answers are 1, 2, 3, and 5.

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which of the following foods are the best sources of monounsaturated fatty acids? a. olive oil and cashew nuts b. chicken and whole milk c. butter and margarine d. coconut and palm oils

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The best sources of monounsaturated fatty acids are: (a) olive oil and cashew nuts.

Fatty acids are chemically the carboxylic acids that possess a long chain of hydrocarbons. These acids are responsible for the formation of fats inside the living body that provides the maximum amount of energy to the body. The example of fatty acids are: oleic acids, stearic acid, etc.

Olive oil is the type of healthy fat oil extracted from the fresh olives. It is extracted through a cold-press technology. The oil is very rich in anti-oxidants and also has high anti-inflammatory properties. It is used for cooking food as well as salad dressings.

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a nurse is preparing to administer diphenhydramine 25 mg po every 6 hr. available is diphenhydramine syrup 12.5 mg/5 ml. how many tsp should the nurse administer per dose? (round the answer to the nearest whole number. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)

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2tsp if diphenhydramine 25 mg po every 6  hr. available is diphenhydramine syrup 12.5 mg/5 ml.

What is diphenhydramine used for?

It's known as a drowsy (sedating) antihistamine and is more likely to make you feel sleepy than other antihistamines. It's used for: short-term sleep problems (insomnia), including when a cough, cold or itching is keeping you awake at night. cough and cold symptoms.

Who should not take diphenhydramine?

Nonprescription cough and cold combination products, including products that contain diphenhydramine, can cause serious side effects or death in young children. Do not give these products to children younger than 4 years of age.

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Antibiotics can be used to kill the specific pathogenic bacterium, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, that causes tuberculosis. The appearance of antibiotic-resistant strains has made it more difficult to cure M. tuberculosis infections. These antibiotic-resistant bacteria survive and pass on the genes to their offspring, making the resistant phenotype more common in the population.
DNA analysis indicates that the genes for antibiotic resistance are not normally present in bacterial chromosomal DNA.
Which of the following statements best explains how the genes for antibiotic resistance can be transmitted between bacteria without the exchange of bacterial chromosomal DNA?

Answers

The mechanism by which the genes for antibiotic resistance can be spread to nearby bacteria is best understood as the presence of the genes on a plasmid.

Which of the following traits would make a cloning plasmid Mcq desirable?

Both the origin of replication site, also known as the Ori site, and the active promoter site must exist. The plasmid can replicate in the host thanks to these areas. Marker genes that can be used to recognize the recombinants should exist.

What do you name the act of modifying a person's DNA to produce a desired trait?

Genetic engineering, often known as genetic alteration, is a technique that modifies an organism's DNA using technology developed in labs. This could entail modifying just one thing.

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a client who has started using contact lenses visits a health care facility with an eye infection. the nurse observes that the client also has an eye abrasion. what could be the possible reason for the eye infection?

Answers

The possible reason for the eye infection is contact lenses were not cleaned.

Eye infections are normally handled with antibiotic drops. Your physician will prescribe drops in keeping with the severity of your contamination. If you've got got any headaches just like the formation of blood vessels, your physician can also additionally prescribe extra medications. Eye contamination signs and symptoms frequently leave on their personal in some days. But are searching for emergency scientific interest when you have intense signs and symptoms. Pain or lack of imaginative and prescient need to activate a go to on your physician. The in advance an contamination is handled, the much less probable you're to revel in any headaches.

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ems as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of

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EMS as we know it today originated in 1966 with the publication of Accidental Death and Disability:

Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society" in 1966. This report recognized the need for a system of prehospital emergency care, and led to the development of the first formalized EMS systems in the United States. The report highlighted the importance of providing prompt, effective care in the event of an accident or sudden illness, and recommended the development of a national program to train and equip emergency medical technicians. This report was a major catalyst for the development and organization of prehospital care and the creation of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) systems we have today.

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which medication action would the nurse identify as the purpose of cyclosporine and prednisone given before a kidney transplant

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Humans with kidney transplants generally have taken steroids (such as prednisone) as certainly one of their immunosuppressive medicines to prevent rejection.

Prednisone is an immunosuppressant drug used to save you the body from rejecting a transplanted organ. it is also used to treat sure kinds of arthritis, extreme allergies, asthmas, as well as pores and skin, blood, kidney, eye, thyroid and intestinal disorders.

while a affected person receives an organ transplant, the body's white blood cells will try to take away (reject) the transplanted organ. Cyclosporine works via suppressing the immune system to prevent the white blood cells from seeking to remove the transplanted organ. Cyclosporine is a completely strong medication.

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the nurse is talking to a pregnant client with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) infection regarding care for the newborn after delivery. the client asks the nurse about the feeding options that are available. which response would the nurse make to the client?

Answers

The client asks the nurse about the feeding options available for pregnant women. the nurse's response to the client was "the mother can adopt a healthy diet, namely consuming lots of fiber, choosing lean protein, avoiding high-calorie foods and drinks, and increasing fluid intake.

What is HIV?

HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that damages the immune system by infecting and destroying CD4 cells. If more and more CD4 cells are destroyed, the body's immune system will weaken so that it is susceptible to various diseases.

HIV that is not treated immediately will develop into a serious condition called AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome). AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection. At this stage, the body's ability to fight infection is completely lost.

Pregnant women who are infected with HIV must immediately seek treatment and follow a healthy diet, namely consuming lots of fiber, choosing lean protein, avoiding high-calorie foods and drinks, consuming the right carbohydrates, and increasing fluid intake.

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1 what is the percentage of patients who have borderline cholesterol and eat fruit/vegetables? 2 what is the percentage of patients who do not eat fruit/vegetables or have desirable cholesterol? 3 what is the percentage of patients who have high cholesterol if we only study patients who eat fruit/vegetables? 4 what is the percentage of patients who eat fruits/vegetables if we only study patients who have high cholesterol? 5 what is the percentage of patients with high cholesterol? 6 what is the percentage of patients who do not eat fruits/vegetables?

Answers

Only about 20% of the cholesterol in your bloodstream comes from the food you eat.

What causes high in cholesterol?

High cholesterol is when you have too much of a fatty substance called cholesterol in your blood. It's mainly caused by eating fatty food, not exercising enough, being overweight, smoking and drinking alcohol. It can also run in families. You can lower your cholesterol by eating healthily and getting more exercise.

What is a normal cholesterol level?

A total cholesterol level of less than 200 mg/dL (5.17 mmol/L) is normal. A total cholesterol level of 200 to 239 mg/dL (5.17 to 6.18 mmol/L) is borderline high. A total cholesterol level of 240 mg/dL (6.21 mmol/L) or greater is high.

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select the type of dissociative amnesia described by inability to recall any events in a particular lifespan period.

Answers

Being unable to remember a specific event or events, or a specific time period, is known as localized amnesia; these memory gaps are typically brought on by trauma or stress.

Dissociative amnesia is what kind of amnesia?

A disease called dissociative amnesia is characterized by memory lapses that have been revealed in retrospect. These gaps are characterized by an inability to recall private material, typically information that was unpleasant or stressful.

Selective dissociative amnesia: What is it?

The following list of memory problems that might accompany dissociative amnesia is taken from the DSM-5[1]: Failure to remember events that occurred within a specific time frame is referred to as localized amnesia (the most prevalent kind).

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The physiological hypervolemia of pregnancy has clinical significance in the management of the severely injured, gravid woman by:

Answers

The physiological hypervolemia of pregnancy has clinical significance in the management of the severely injured, gravid woman by: increasing the volume of blood loss to produce maternal hypotension.

What is the most common cause of hypervolemia?

The most common causes of hypervolemia include: heart failure, specifically of the right ventricle. cirrhosis, often caused by excess alcohol consumption or hepatitis. kidney failure, often caused by diabetes and other metabolic disorders.

What fluids do you give for hypervolemia?

Intravenous (IV) fluids are life-saving when someone is dehydrated or cannot drink adequate fluids, such as after surgery. IV fluids typically contain sodium (salt) and water to replenish the body's fluids and balance the sodium levels.

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a nurse responds to the call bell and finds another nurse evacuating the client from the room, which has caught fire. which action should the nurse take?

Answers

When the nurse responds to the call bell and finds another one evacuating the client from fire room, then she must quickly pull the fire lever.

Accidents in hospitals related to fire are very common and this is mainly because of the presence of machinery and chemicals which can easily catch fire. These accidents not only cause financial damage but the lives of numerous patients and even the staff is at risk because of chocking and breathlessness in smoke filled environment. The quick response by the nurse will help the staff to get alert and major damage could be controlled within time. The majority of the clients who might get trapped in such condition could be saved in time. This also shows the presence of mind and commitment to save the lives of others over ones own, which is commendable.

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the nurse is preparing a client for a right below-the-knee amputation. the nurse anticipates that the client is likely to experience which psychosocial problems in the perioperative period? select all that apply.

Answers

The psychosocial problems in the perioperative period are  3.Grief, 4.Anxiety and 5.Altered body image

A client facing an elective amputation of a lower extremity will experience psychosocial as well as physical challenges during the perioperative period. The client is likely to experience grief because of the loss of the extremity as well as an alteration in body image. The client will also experience anxiety since this will be a new experience and life as an amputee is unknown. Pain is a physical problem influenced by psychosocial factors. There are no data in the question to support a problem of anger.

Thus, options 3,4 and 5 are the correct choices.

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Complete question:

The nurse is preparing a client for a right below-the-knee amputation. The nurse anticipates that the client is likely to experience which psychosocial problems in the perioperative period? Select all that apply.

1.Pain

2.Anger

3.Grief

4.Anxiety

5.Altered body image

True or False: Protein in foods like meat, chicken, and fish does not provide direct energy but rather supplies nutrients that regulate aspects of metabolism.

Answers

It is untrue that the protein found in foods like meat, poultry, and fish gives off immediate energy but instead contains nutrients that control certain processes in the metabolism.

While the protein in foods like meat, chicken, and fish does not directly provide energy, it does contain nutrients that help to control certain aspects of metabolism. Malnutrition can result from both excesses and deficiencies of calories or nutrients. In general, fish is a great and calorie-friendly source of protein and B vitamins that may provide the body with all-day energy. Omega-3 fatty acids and other vitamins are typically found in higher concentrations in fatty cold-water fish like salmon, sardines, and tuna. Protein is rarely used as a source of energy. However, protein is broken down into ketone bodies to be used for energy if the body is not getting enough calories from other nutrients or from the fat stored in the body. The primary source of energy in the human diet is carbohydrate.

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the doctor orders administration of a drug at 122 mg per 1000.0 ml at 320.0 ml/24 h. how many mg of the drug will the patient receive every 9.0 hours?

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The doctor orders administration of a drug at 122 mg per 1000.0 ml at 320.0 ml/24 h, so the drug that the patient will receive every 9.0 hours is 14.58 mg.

A drug administration method is frequently categorised by the site where the medication is administered, such as oral or intravenous. The selection of administration routes is influenced by the characteristics and pharmacokinetics of the drug as well as accessibility.

To detect, cure, or avoid sickness, we take drugs. They exist in a wide variety of forms, and there are numerous ways we can consume them. A medication may be given to you by a healthcare professional or taken by you on your own. However, even when drugs are used to enhance our health, they can still be harmful.

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forms part of body structures like muscle and skin

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The nutrient that forms part of body structures like muscle and skin is protein.

The majority of the human body is composed of protein, with the exception of water and fat. The primary building block of muscles, bones, organs, skin, and nails is protein. Since muscles are constituted primarily of protein (approximately 80%, excluding water), athletes should pay special attention to this nutrient.

Consumed protein is converted to amino acids by the body and then absorbed. It is utilized in the development of muscles and organs, the production of hormones and antibodies, the storage of fat, and the production of energy.

Your question is incomplete but most probably your full question was

What nutrient forms part of body structures like muscle and skin?

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a client is 8 weeks pregnant and has waves of nausea accompanied by vomiting throughout the day. food odors consistently precipitate the nausea. her husband has an important business dinner planned, and she is reluctant to attend because of the nausea and vomiting. this has placed a strain on the husband-wife relationship. which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of the problem?

Answers

You feel you are having difficulty fulfilling your role as a wife."  indicates an understanding of the problem.

Just what is nausea?

An urge to vomit is frequently present along with an uncomfortable feeling of sickness or unease in the stomach known as nausea. It can be brought on by a variety of diseases, such as infections, food poisoning, motion sickness, and stress, and it is a symptom of numerous medical conditions. Numerous times, modifying one's lifestyle—eating smaller meals, avoiding particular foods, or taking medications—can help one manage their nausea.When something like this interferes with your ability to connect with your partner, it can be very difficult. Is there anything I can do to make you more at ease? By demonstrating empathy and understanding, the nurse creates a secure environment in which the client can discuss her worries and concerns.

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A client is 8 weeks pregnant and has waves of nausea accompanied by vomiting throughout the day. food odors consistently precipitate the nausea. her husband has an important business dinner planned, and she is reluctant to attend because of the nausea and vomiting. this has placed a strain on the husband-wife relationship. which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of the problem?

You feel you are having difficulty fulfilling your role as a wife."You feel you are having difficulty fulfilling your role as a SisterYou feel you are having difficulty fulfilling your role as a motherYou feel you are having difficulty fulfilling your role as a girl

TRUE/FALSE. the type of testing done to identify a substance will vary depending on the quantity of the substance expected

Answers

True, when determining which kind of toxicological testing should be carried out, toxicologists base their decision on the amount of substance retrieved.

A toxicologist is a scientist who is well-versed in a variety of scientific fields, such as biology and chemistry, and who frequently works with chemicals and other compounds to assess their potential toxicity or harm to humans, other living things, or the environment.

Toxicology specialists come in several varieties, just like there are various varieties of physicians.

A toxicologist who works in the pharmaceutical business, for instance, may check to see if prospective new medications are secure enough to test in human clinical trials.

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the nurse is caring for a client who is to have a sterile dressing change to a wound. a student nurse enters the client's room and notices the nurse preparing the sterile field. after reviewing the image, which response by the student nurse to the nurse is the most accurate understanding of this procedure?

Answers

"The way you are doing it helps to minimize contamination of the non-waterproof side."

What does a nurse do?

Find out whether there are any special instructions for the wound or dressing before changing it.

Obtain aid from a friend or family member to dress a restless or perplexed adult.

Help the client find a comfortable position so the wound can be seen clearly. If required, cover the client with a bath towel while just exposing the region of the wound is exposed.

For disposal of the contaminated dressings, seal the moisture-proof bag with a cuff and keep it nearby. It can be secured with adhesive to the bed linens or nightstand.

Put on a mask if necessary.

Take off and properly discard any soiled dressings.

When cleaning a wound with forceps, always keep the forceps' tips underneath the handles.

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which clinical manifestations does the nurse identify as indicators suggesting a client has urinary retention and overflow after sustaining a cerbrovascular accident

Answers

The total volume of urine generated is unaffected by retention. The bladder might fill up thanks to atony even when it cannot empty. Not urinary retention, but an excess of fluid volume, is what edoema is.

The urge to void develops as pressure inside the bladder increases, and the client passed exactly enough urine to satisfy both the urge to void and the pressure. As pressure once more increases, the cycle repeats. As a result, little amounts pass without the bladder being emptied. Suprapubic distention develops as the client holds pee and the bladder enlarges.  Oliguria, or having fewer than 400 mL of urine each day, is an indication of acute kidney injury. Urinary retention does not result in continuous incontinence.

The complete question is:

Which clinical manifestations would the nurse identify as indicators suggesting a client has urinary retention and overflow after sustaining a cerebrovascular accident (CVA, also known as a "brain attack")? Select all that apply.

A. Edema

B. Oliguria

C. Frequent voiding

D. Suprapubic distention

E. Continual incontinence

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the nurse is monitoring a newborn who was born to a drug-addicted mother. which findings would the nurse expect to note during data collection for this newborn? select all that apply

Answers

D. A baby born to a drug-addiction mother was agitated and easily fatigued by sensory stimulation. The baby may constantly wail and posture when being held rather than being cuddled.  Any toxins in the mother's body may also be passed along to the fetus along with nutrients. Additionally, a baby could develop a dependency on the mother's drugs.

The only signs of withdrawal that last only a short while are minor fussiness. Feeding issues, diarrhea, and agitated or nervous behavior are examples of more severe symptoms. Depending on the chemicals consumed, different symptoms may occur. Drug tests on the baby's urine or stool can be used to confirm the diagnosis in cases where the baby exhibits withdrawal symptoms. Urine from the mother will also be examined. However, if urine or stool samples are not taken quickly enough, the results could not be favorable.

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Question-the nurse is monitoring a newborn who was born to a drug-addicted mother. which findings would the nurse expect to note during data collection for this newborn? select all that apply.

A. Sleepiness

B. Cuddles when being held.

C. Lethargy

D. Incessant crying

a patient with sickle cell disease comes to the emergency department and reports severe pain in the back, right hip, and right arm. what intervention is important for the nurse to provide?

Answers

The  nurse  should assess the case for  inflexibility of pain, vital signs, and any other signs of  torture.

Pain  operation is an important part of  furnishing care to a case with sickle cell  complaint. The  nurse  should  give the case with pain  specifics  similar as ibuprofen, acetaminophen, or opioids as ordered. also, the  nanny  should  give comfort measures  similar as heat or cold wave  remedy, massage, or relaxation  ways. It's important to reassess the case after  furnishing these interventions to  insure the case is  entering acceptable pain relief. The  nurse  should also assess the case for any signs of infection  similar as fever, increased pain, or other signs of  torture. The  nanny  should  give patient education on sickle cell  complaint, its  operation, and the  significance of reporting any signs of pain or  torture

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if an adult client is having an anaphylactic reaction, which actions would the nurse initiate for this client? select all that apply.

Answers

If an adult client is having an anaphylactic reaction, the following actions would the nurse initiate for this client :

Notify the physician immediately.Administer epinephrine 0.3ml SubQ as ordered.

The first and most critical therapy for anaphylaxis is epinephrine, which should be delivered as soon as anaphylaxis is diagnosed to avoid the escalation to life-threatening symptoms, as discussed in the brief overviews of anaphylaxis emergency care in adults and children.

For anaphylactic reaction therapy, epinephrine is the medicine of choice. It prevents or reduces upper airway mucosal edoema (laryngeal edoema), hypotension, and shock by exerting vasoconstrictor actions. It also has significant bronchodilator effects, as well as cardiac inotropic and chronotropic effects.

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Complete question :

if an adult client is having an anaphylactic reaction, which actions would the nurse initiate for this client? select all that apply.

Notify the physician immediately.

Administer epinephrine 0.3ml SubQ as ordered.

place the patient on oxygen

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