could be an infection source It is well recognized that carriers can cause a number of outbreaks. Typhoid Mary, for instance.
Can carriers have an infection that lingers?Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), a member of the herpes virus family, is one of the persistent viruses that many carriers carry. Approximately 95% of individuals, according to studies, have antibodies against EBV, indicating that they have had the disease at some point in their lives.
What exactly are disease carriers?A carrier is a person who, as was mentioned previously, has an undetectable infection yet is nonetheless able to spread the pathogen to others. Those who are sick yet do not exhibit any symptoms are known as asymptomatic, passive, or healthy carriers.
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when assessing an intravenous (iv) solution infusing by gravity, the nurse observes that the iv fluid continues to flow when pressure is applied above the catheter tip. what action should the nurse implement?
when assessing an intravenous (iv) solution infusing by gravity, the nurse observes that the iv fluid continues to flow when pressure is applied above the catheter tip. The nurse should leave the connection between the hub and the tubing uncovered to secure the catheter.
what is intravenous fluid ?
intravenous infusion is the administation of fluids into a vein by means of a steel needle or plastic catheter.
This method of fluid replacement is used most often to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance, or to correct fluid volume deficits after excessive loss of body fluids, in patients unable to take sufficient volumes orally.
supplemental fluids used in intravenous therapy to restore or maintain normal fluid volume and electrolyte balance when the oral route is not possible.
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during preoperative teaching for a client who will undergo subtotal thyroidectomy, the nurse should include which statement?
Eat or drink nothing after midnight the evening before is a statement by the nurse before your surgery. Most routine medications can be taken with a sip of water.
What is a subtotal thyroidectomy?
Subtotal thyroidectomy is a surgical procedure wherein the surgeon leaves a small thyroid remnant in place to preserve thyroid function, avoiding the need for lifetime thyroid hormone supplementation therapy.
To avoid complications, thyroidectomy necessitates meticulous postoperative nursing care. Nursing priorities will include preoperative hyperthyroidism management, pain relief, information about the surgical operation, prognosis, treatment plan, and prevent disease.
Therefore, the pre-operative visit with the nurse will include a discussion of medication guidelines.
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oral rehydration solutions that contain both salt and glucose are highly effective in treating severe dehydration caused by diarrhea and vomiting. however, glucose or salt alone are not effective. why?
which response would be nurse report immedietly if it occured in association with nasotracheal suctioning
Answer: After the oxygen delivery device has been reapplied on completion of the procedure, the patient's pulse oximetry falls to 88%.
Explanation:
Rationale: This decline in peripheral blood oxygen saturation must be reported. It represents a decline in the patient's condition following a procedure that should have improved his or her SpO2 reading. Discomfort need not be reported. Symptoms of coughing and sore throat do not require immediate reporting. This change in heart rate is anticipated with the procedure. Taken by itself, it does not require reporting.
a physician orders regular insulin 10 units i.v. along with 50 ml of dextrose 50% for a client with acute renal failure. what electrolyte imbalance is this client most likely experiencing?
A physician orders regular insulin 10 units I.V. along with 50 ml of dextrose 50% for a client with acute renal failure, so the electrolyte imbalance which this client most likely experiencing is hyperkalemia.
Acute renal failure happens once your kidneys suddenly become unable to filter waste product from your blood. Once your kidneys lose their filtering ability, dangerous levels of wastes might accumulate, and your blood's chemical makeup might get out of balance.
Hyperkalemia is outlined as a blood serum or plasma metallic element level higher than the higher limits of traditional, typically bigger than 5.0 mEq/L to 5.5 mEq/L. Whereas delicate symptom is sometimes symptomless, high metallic element levels might cause grievous internal organ arrhythmias, muscle weakness, or palsy.
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clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of:
Clinical signs of emphysema include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea with exertion, usage of auxiliary muscles, and tachypnea with protracted expiration.
What clinical symptom is connected to pulmonary hypertension?Symptoms — These are some typical signs and symptoms: Exertional dyspnea, lethargy, and exhaustion are the most frequent first signs of PH and are brought on by a failure to adequately raise cardiac output.
What is the leading contributor to pulmonary hypertension?It is believed that one of the most common reasons of pulmonary hypertension is issues with the left side of the heart. These include aortic valve issues, left ventricle issues, and mitral valve issues.
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the nurse is administering a sedative drug to a client before the magnetic resonance imaging (mri) procedure. what are the possible reasons for which the nurse had to sedate the client? select all that apply.
a patient, group ab, d-positive, has a bleeding aortic aneurysm. a massive transfusion is undertaken for lifesaving measures. what abo phenotype is recommended for transfusion to this patient?
Group ABO phenotype is recommended for transfusion to the patient with group ab, d-positive, who has a bleeding aortic aneurysm
O, A, B, and AB are the four fundamental ABO phenotypes. The blood group A was split into two phenotypes, A1 and A2, after it was discovered that blood group A RBCs responded differentially to a specific antibody (later known as anti-A1).
An aortic aneurysm is a balloon-like thickening in the aorta, the large artery that connects the heart to the chest and torso. The force of blood pumping can split the layers of the artery wall, allowing blood to leak in between them, causing aortic aneurysms to dissect or rupture.
Blood transfusion is the process of donating blood to someone in need. Blood from the donor and blood from the recipient are coagulated prior to transfusion to cross-check factors such as antigen and Rh. When a person with the A blood group receives blood from people who have the A antigen but no antigen, all other blood groups cause agglutination. All blood groups are compatible with the AB+ blood group, including A+, B+, AB+, and O+, as well as A-, B-, AB-, and O-. As a result, they are known as the universal recipient.
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What minerals do athletes lose in their sweat in potentially substantial amounts?.
Potassium, chloride, and sodium are likely lost in huge amount when someone sweating.
During exercise, athletes produce huge amount of sweats which contain minerals. Potassium, chloride, and sodium are the most abundant mineral in sweat.
Sweat containt about 50 mg of potassium per liter, 1500 mg of sodium per liter, and Chloride about 40 mmol per liter.
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your client is status post total laryngectomy and cannot talk. what intervention should you make to help this client communicate?
If client is status post total laryngectomy and cannot talk, so providing an alternative methods of communication is the option for communication.
What is laryngectomy?A laryngectomy could result in the larynx being totally removed (voice box). It involves making a cut (incision) across the area of the Adam's apple on the outside of the neck.
Partial laryngectomy: It is frequently possible to only remove a piece of the voice box while treating laryngeal cancer. The goal of partial laryngectomies, which exist in a number of forms, is to remove the complete larynx while preserving the greatest amount of the larynx's natural tissue.
A supraglottic laryngectomy just involves cutting away the larynx above the vocal cords. This procedure, which can be used to treat some supraglottic cancers, allows you to speak normally afterwards.
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a client with hiv will be started on a medication regimen of three medications. what class of drugs will the nurse instruct the client about?
A client with lupus has had antineoplastic drugs prescribed. The physician prescribe antineoplastic drugs for an autoimmune disorder is Benzodiazepines.
What is Benzodiazepines?Benzodiazepines are drugs that are used as tranquilizers and that help to treat conditions like insomnia, seizures and anxiety. This drug can induce sleep and has sedative properties.
According to this, the class of drugs that is frequently prescribed for a client with bipolar disorder to induce sedation is Benzodiazepines. A client with lupus has had antineoplastic drugs prescribed.
Therefore, A client with lupus has had antineoplastic drugs prescribed. The physician prescribe antineoplastic drugs for an autoimmune disorder is Benzodiazepines.
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what is the primary purpose for administering a standardized occupational performance survey to clients who are participating in an inpatient hand rehabilitation group activity?
The primary purpose for administering a standardized occupational performance survey to clients who are participating in an inpatient hand rehabilitation group activity would be this sort of survey focuses on the respondents' perceptions of their ability to engage in meaningful and purposeful activity.
A valid and trustworthy method for assessing the occupational performance of daily living chores is the Performance Assessment of Self-Care Skills (PASS). The PASS is a client-centered, performance-based, criterion-referenced, observational tool that helps occupational therapy professionals in a variety of settings objectively document occupational performance and plan occupation-based interventions for populations of adolescents, adults, and older adults.
The client's occupational profile and the occupational therapist's appraisal of the client's occupational performance are carefully reviewed and synthesized before the development of the occupational therapy intervention plan.
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a client with acute myocardial infarction is admitted to the coronary care unit. which medication should the nurse administer to lessen the workload of the heart by decreasing the cardiac preload and afterload?
The medication which the nurse should administer to lessen the workload of the heart by decreasing the cardiac preload and afterload falls under the class nitrates and is referred to as nitroglycerin.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional which specializes in taking are of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved in other to prevent complications.
The medication which is used to lessen the workload of the heart by decreasing the cardiac preload and afterload thereby resulting in the reduction of myocardial oxygen demand are basically nitrate compounds.
An example is nitroglycerin and it is commonly used in emergency coronary unit of most hospitals thereby making it the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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which is a pharmacy only nonprescription drug according to canadian food and drugs act and regulations
According to the Canadian Drug and Food Act and regulations, diphenhydramine is only available without a prescription in pharmacies.
What risks does diphenhydramine pose?Overdosing can have serious consequences, so stick to the recommended dose alone. Get medical help right away if someone has taken too much diphenhydramine and yet is experiencing hallucinations, is unable to be awakened, is having a seizure, is having difficulty breathing, or has collapsed.
What affects the brain does diphenhydramine have?Diphenhydramine rapidly crosses the blood-brain barrier and also exhibits affinity for muscarinic nor adrenergic receptors. So it's usual to experience side effects including tiredness, grogginess, and memory loss. Diphenhydramine is also prescribed to Parkinson's disease patients for motion sickness & extrapyramidal symptoms.
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Pharmaceutical advertisements directed at end consumers/potential patients are using a ____.
Consumers and potential patients are using direct-to-consumer advertising (DTCA) refers to the marketing and promotion of pharmaceutical items to consumers as patients.
What are Pharmaceutical advertisements?According to the evidence, such promotion does increase medicine sales, some of which come at the expense of a rival's product.
By exaggerating treatment advantages and endorsing pharmaceuticals over healthy lifestyle options, DTC advertisements have been demonstrated to misinform patients.
Therefore, DTC advertising Pharmaceutical advertisements are directed at end consumers.
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new diagnosis of gerd the client asks about food he should avoid eating which of the following
New diagnosis of GERD the client asks about food he should avoid eating chocolate.
GERD treatment aims to chop down on the quantity of reflux or reduce harm to the liner of the muscle system from refluxed materials. Your doctor could suggest over-the-counter or prescription medications to treat your symptoms. Antacids: These medication will facilitate neutralize acid within the muscle system and abdomen and stop symptom.
Chocolate contains alkaloid, cocoa, and plant chemicals that may all trigger symptom. Chocolate induces GERD symptoms by compromising the flexibility of the lower passageway anatomical sphincter to forestall the abdomen acids from locomotion copy the muscle system.
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during a speculum inspection of the vagina, the nurse would expect to see what at the end of the vaginal canal?
Take your fingers out of the introitus when the speculum has inserted itself into the . Rotate the speculum's blades so they are horizontal. After complete entry, gently move the blades open to reveal the cervix.
The vestibule contains what, exactly?The vestibule is the inner part of the that extends from the hymenal ring to Hart's line on the labia minora. The urethral and the Skene's and Bartholin's gland apertures are situated in the vestibule.
The inner portion of the that runs from the hymenal ring to Hart's line on the labia minora is known as the vestibule.
The vestibule is located between the labia minora. It has a smooth start immediately below the on the superior side.
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many childhood diseases caused by viral infections of the upper respiratory tract can usually be diagnosed by
The involved viruses may be respiratory adenoviruses, parainfluenza viruses, respiratory syncytial viruses, or influenza viruses.
What upper respiratory condition is frequently observed in kids?The common cold, also known as an upper respiratory infection, is one of the most prevalent diseases in kids. Compared to other illnesses, it causes more doctor visits and absences from work and school each year. Each year, millions of people in the United States contract a cold.
The rhinovirus is the most typical virus. Other viruses include the respiratory syncytial virus, adenovirus, enterovirus, and influenza virus. In about 15% of cases of sudden onset pharyngitis, bacteria may be the culprit.
Coughs, sneezes, and direct contact all contribute to the spread of URIs. The most typical URI is the common cold.
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lient is admitted with chest pain, fever, and joint pain 4 weeks after experiencing an acute inferior wall myocardial infarction. which laboratory value should the nurse address?
client is admitted with chest pain, fever, and joint pain 4 weeks after experiencing an acute inferior wall myocardial infarction, the laboratory value should be sedimentation rate (ESR) 49 mm/hr.
What is fever ?A fever can be defines as an abnormal increase of the body temperature. A moderate fever run its course, can be beneficial and it can promote interferon activity, it also helps in repair of tissue. lastly, inhibit the reproduction of bacteria and viruses.
It is important to note that fever is a symptom the body is fighting against the illness or infection which stimulates the body's defense system, sending white blood cells, other immune cells to fight, engulf the infected cell and destroy them.
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the nurse is inspecting the scrotum and testes of a 43-year-old man. which finding would require additional follow-up and evaluation?
Skin on the scrotum is taut finding would require additional follow-up and evaluation.
How does scrotum look like?The perineal experienced by people, which appears as a line running down the centre of the scrotum, divides the scrotum, a sack of skin, into two sections. The internal septum and scrotum are connected by the raphe. The scrotal sac is divided into two anatomically comparable portions by the septum.
What transpires when the scrotum is erect?Due to vasocongestion, which is the buildup of blood inside the pelvis during arousal, the testicles also enlarge during arousal. At the peak of arousal, the testicles often grow by 50% in size and the membrane of the scrotum thickens.
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What is the difference between vitamins and supplements?.
The main difference between vitamins and supplements is that vitamins are naturally-occurring nutrients in our body whereas supplements are naturally-occurring or synthetic chemicals taken as a complement to the diet.
What are vitamins ?
Vitamins are a type of essential micronutrients required in minute quantities to maintain proper metabolism.
There are 13 vitamins required for the metabolism of the human body.
Vitamins and supplements are two types of nutrients present in the diet.
They are important for the functioning of the body. Also, they can cure or prevent some diseases.
1.While vitamins are a component of food, supplements are not the components of food.
2.vitamins serve as coenzymes, while supplements serve as bodybuilding units, energy molecules or precursors to various types of biomolecules.
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the nurse educator is teaching the nursing staff about a new computerized documentation system that is recently implemented. what information is the best indication that the education is effective? a decrease in number of calls to the technology department. less time for nursing staff to complete the daily charting. an increase in staff acceptance of computerized charting. an improvement from pretest scores of the training session.
The information that is the best indication that the education received by the nursing staff is effective is less time for nursing staff to complete the daily charting. That is option B.
Who is a nurse educator?A nurse educator is an individual that has been licensed to teach nursing students and staff who are interested to further their education in nursing sciences.
A computerized documentation is a type of documentation whereby by there is introduction of computer softwares in the recording of health database.
The computer documentation is made up of the following:
end-user manuals, product specifications, algorithms,diagrams, product answer booksbug lists, and electronic machine readable versions of such manuals.The importance of computerized documentation in health sector include the following:
Improves health provider and patient's communication,It enhance privacy and security of patient.Provides faster services towards patients.Since the computerized documentation help's the in providing faster services towards patients, the teachings on technology towards the staff nurses where effective.
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second john smith was previously diagnosed with migraine headaches and a mild form of depression; second closure to specific wavelengths of light to offset this condition is an example of what practice?
Chromotherapy is a treatment that uses exposure to particular light wavelengths to treat conditions including John Smith's migraine and mild depression. It is one of the most straightforward and all-encompassing ways to treat sickness.
Some people simultaneously suffer from migraines and depression. In actuality, those who suffer from depression are more susceptible to migraines than those who do not. Similarly, those who experience migraines are more prone to experience depression than those who do not.
Chromotherapy is the practice of treating physical, mental, and spiritual energy imbalances that frequently result in disease by utilizing the visible spectrum, or color light.
Thus, we can define chromotherapy as a form of treatment that involves exposing patients to specific light wavelengths in order to treat illnesses like John Smith's migraine and mild depression.
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which set of results below would indicate that a mls student entering their hospital practicum training had been previously vaccinated against hepatitis b and is not infected with hepatitis b?
The set of results which indicate the given conditions regarding hepatitis B are :
Previously vaccinated anti-HBS
Natural infection IgG anti-HBC
What is hepatitis B ?The hepatitis B virus is what causes hepatitis B infection (HBV).
Through blood, semen, or other bodily fluids, the virus is transferred from one person to another.
The hepatitis B vaccine can guard against the disease.
Hepatitis B is a liver condition that can result in a short-lived, mild illness or a severe, chronic condition.
Hepatitis B vaccine is produced using the antigen HBsAg. Anti-HBs, or hepatitis B surface antibody: Anti-HBs are typically taken as a sign of immunity and recovery from hepatitis B virus infection.
A person who has received a successful hepatitis B vaccination also develops anti-HBs.
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a hematoma develops when
A hematoma develops when the small veins and capillaries under the skin break.
What is hematoma?hematoma is described as a pool of mostly clotted blood that forms in an organ, tissue, or body space which is usually caused by a broken blood vessel that was damaged by surgery or an injury. Hematoma can occur anywhere in the body, including the brain.
An injury can cause blood vessel walls to break, allowing blood to make its way into the surrounding tissue thereby causing Hematomas that may occur in any blood vessel, including veins, arteries, and capillaries. The location of the hematoma may change its nature.
Hematomas are caused by traumas like car accidents, head injuries, falls, aneurysms and bone fractures. Some medical conditions such as hemophilia, blood cancers and liver disease increase the chances of developing hematomas.
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a client has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of preeclampsia with severe features. which nursing intervention is the priority?
A patient with severe preeclampsia symptoms has been admitted to the hospital. Confining the client to bed rest in a darkened room is the nursing intervention that should be given the highest priority.
When a woman has severe preeclampsia, she is typically hospitalised so that bed rest can be required, and she can be monitored more carefully than she could at home. Because a bright light can also provoke seizures, the nurse should dim the environment if at all possible. High blood pressure is the defining feature of the potentially deadly pregnancy condition known as preeclampsia. After 20 weeks of pregnancy, pre-eclampsia typically develops in a woman whose blood pressure had previously been normal. For both mother and child, it may result in significant, even deadly, consequences.
There could be no signs at all. The two main symptoms are high blood pressure and protein in the urine. Water retention and leg swelling are additional potential symptoms; however these might be difficult to identify from a typical pregnancy. Pre-eclampsia is frequently treatable with oral or intravenous medicine until the baby is old enough to be delivered. The dangers of an early delivery must frequently be compared to the hazards of persistent pre-eclampsia symptoms.
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a nurse is monitoring a client following the administration of sotalol. which finding would be of greatest concern to the nurse?
Bilateral inspiratory wheezing upon auscultation of greatest concern to the nurse.
What is the drug sotalol used for?Sotalol is a member of the class of drugs known as beta blockers. Atrial fibrillation as well as other diseases that result in an erratic heartbeat are treated with it (arrhythmia). Only prescriptions are accepted for this medication. It is offered as pills.
Which medications shouldn't be used with sotalol?Avoid using sotalol at the same time as antacids that include aluminum or magnesium. These antacids have the ability to bind to sotalol and lessen its absorption and efficiency. To lessen this interaction, space out the dosages of these nsaids and sotalol by at least two hours.
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dietitians and coaches working with strict vegetarian athletes should help these athletes assess their dietary intake of which particular nutrients?
Working with strict vegetarian athletes, dietitians and coaches should assist these athletes in determining their nutritional intake of iron, calcium, and zinc.
Athletes who adopt a mostly or entirely plant-based diet might benefit from the assistance of dietitians in achieving required nutrient intakes and ensuring nutritional adequacy. To begin working with such clients, a full nutrition evaluation must be completed in order to give an effective, tailored nutrition intervention that enhances an athlete's health and performance.
The type of athlete should also be taken into account when assessing their nutritional needs, as their priorities for strength, speed, and endurance may vary depending on their chosen sport and level of participation.
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which type of question is appropriate to include during the assessment of the adolescent patient that reports thoughts about death, apathy, isolation, and self- mutilation in the form of cutting?
The adolescent's family medical history, his or her own physical, behavioral, or mental health, developmental history, immunization history, a review of past and present eating habits or nutrition issues, and a thorough review of the adolescent's body systems are all included in an initial health assessment.
During this period, adolescents are also going through social and emotional development. The pursuit of identity is adolescence's most significant endeavor. (This is frequently a lifetime journey that begins in adolescence.) The battle for independence goes hand in hand with the search for identity. Let the teen know that all of the inquiries are intended to assist them in bettering their health.
Thus, it is often advisable to start this conversation by asking the person about their beliefs and sentiments toward life.
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the process by which those who are planning programs can determine what health problems might exist in any population is called
The process by which program planners can determine health problems that may exist in a population is called assessment.
What is a medical examination?Health assessment is the systematic collection of health-related information about patients that is used by patients, physicians, and medical teams to identify and support health-promoting behaviors and to work together to guide potentially harmful health behavioral changes. A process that includes comprehensive collection and analysis.
How do you assess your health needs?Questions to ask in your health needs assessment:
What is your problem?How lagre is the problem and what is it?What are the current services?What do patients want?The most appropriate and effective (clinical and financial) solution What is the meaning of the resource?To learn more about health assessment visit:
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