compared to an adult, the diaphragm dictates the amount of air that a child inspires because the

Answers

Answer 1

Compared to an adult, the diaphragm dictates the amount of air that a child inspires because the intercostal muscles are not well developed.

What is  intercostal muscles?

Intercostal muscles are those found inside the rib cage. The muscles that fill the gap between the ribs are composed of three layers: the outermost, middle, and innermost.

What are the intercostal muscles used for?

The auxiliary respiratory muscles are located within the intercostals. They make forced expiration possible by depressing the ribs, reducing the diameter of the thoracic cavity, and forcing air out of the lungs along with the innermost intercostals.

Where are the intercostal muscles found?

There are two types of these muscles: internal and external intercostals, which are located between the ribs.

                           The internal intercostal muscles, located inside the ribcase, extend from the front of the ribs and turn around to the back, past the bend in the ribs.

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Related Questions

Part A Which of the following best defines anatomy? a.It is the study of all chemical reactions that occur within body cells: b.It is the study of the structure of body parts and their relationships with one another:c.It is the study of lissues d.Itis the study of how the body parts work and carry out their life-sustaining activities.

Answers

Anatomy is the study of the structure of body parts and their relationships with one another. The correct answer is option (B).

One of the most crucial areas of biology that focuses on comprehending morphological characteristics is anatomy.

An early classification system was based on anatomy (not evolutionary classification).

Gross anatomy, superficial anatomy, and functional anatomy are the three basic fields of study within anatomy. The science of anatomy investigates the composition of the human body. Links to descriptions and images of every component and system of the human body, from head to toe, are available on this website.

The description of various live species' bodies as seen through dissection is the focus of the biological science field of anatomy. The word "anatomy" comes from the Greek roots "ana" (which means "up") and "tome" (which means "cutting"). Anatomy was originally learned by dissecting corpses, hence the name.

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Which of the following statements best describes the relationships between the genome, genes, and proteins? O There is one genomes There are genere con gence from o There are they.com From the list provided, select the two obstacles of gene expression. Check All That Apply 9 DNA is in the nucleus. es DNA and RNA are two different types of molecules.

Answers

One genome has several genes that each code for a variety of proteins.The entirety of an organism's DNA is known as its genome.The human genome, for instance, has more over 3000 million rna nucleotides and 35000 genes. Genomes are made up of numerous genes.One gene was thought to code with one polypeptide or enzyme, leading to the one gene, one polypeptide theory.

What connection exists between proteins and genomic genes?

The majority of genes include the data necessary to produce proteins.Transcription and translation are the two key steps in the complicated and tightly regulated process that goes from gene to protein in each cell.

What connection exists between DNA, genes, alleles, and proteins?

Therefore, the primary cause of protein production is genetics.The combination if alleles from of the coding controls which proteins will synthesize because alleles are various gene variations.

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Why is the cell membrane described as semi-permeable?

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Because chemicals do not pass across the membrane randomly, it is selectively permeable. Some molecules can pass across the membrane, including oxygen and hydrocarbons.

Phospholipids, which have hydrophobic (hating water) tails and hydrophilic (loving water) heads, make up the majority of the cell membrane (water loving). This tail limits the passage of water-soluble molecules like amino acids, glucose, and other compounds into the cell while preventing the passage of undesirable oxygen  and molecules out of the cell. Additionally, cholesterol serves the same purpose. As a result, it is referred to as partially or semi-permeable since it only permits small, non-polar molecules to enter. The ions and chemicals that the phospholipids restrict enter and exit the cell through membrane proteins.

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which of the following is a chemical messenger that flows through the bloodstream and allows communication all over the body? a.) neurons b.) lymph c.) platelets d.) hormones

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The correct option is D ; Hormones are the body's chemical messengers. From one set of cells to another, they transport data and instructions.

The endocrine (EN-duh-krin) system affects practically all of the cells, organs, and bodily functions.

Hormones are your body's chemical messengers. They flow in your circulation to tissues or organs

endocrine [EN-duh-krin] system the body's “slow” chemical communication system; a group of glands that produce hormones into the circulation. hormones molecular messengers that are created by the endocrine glands, travel via the circulation, and impact other tissues.

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In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Cytosine present is always equal to the amount of ______.

a. Thymine
b. Uracil
c. Cytosine
d. Guanine

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Which of the following statements regarding natural selection is false?

Answers

Natural selection starts with the creation of new alleles that are directed toward improving an organism's fitness is the false statement

What is natural selection?

Natural selection is the variation in individual survival and procreation brought on by phenotypic variances. The evolution of a population's heritable features across generations is a fundamental mechanism of evolution. The term "natural selection" was popularized by Charles Darwin, who contrasted it with artificial selection, which, in his opinion, is intentional whereas natural selection is not.At the expense of less favorable variants, those genotypic variations (the full complex of genes inherited from both parents) that boost an organism's chances of survival and reproduction are conserved and multiplied from generation to generation. As a result of this process, evolution frequently takes place. Natural selection can result from variations in survival, fertility, growth rate, mate-success rates, or any other part of the life cycle. Natural selection is responsible for all of these variations to the extent that they influence how many offspring an organism produces.

Hence, option A is correct

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I understand that the question is Which of the following statements regarding natural selection is false?

A. Natural selection starts with the creation of new alleles that are directed toward improving an organism's fitness.

B. Natural selection depends on the local environment at the current time.

C. Natural selection can be observed working in organisms alive today.

D. Natural selection and evolutionary change can occur in a short period of time (a few generations).

In eukaryotes, dna is wrapped around ______________ proteins, forming structures called _____________.

Answers

In the eukaryotes, dna is wrapped around Histone proteins, forming structures called Nucleosome.

Eukaryotes use a different kind of packing strategy to fit their DNA within the nucleus since each of their chromosomes is made up of a linear DNA molecule. At the most fundamental level, nucleosomes are made of structures called histone proteins wrapped around DNA.

H1, H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 are the names for a family of tiny, positively charged proteins known as histones (Van Holde, 1988). Histones link to DNA very firmly because DNA is negatively charged due to the phosphate groups in its phosphate-sugar backbone.

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Which of the following statements gives adequate justification
for disproving Einstein's static universe theory?
O. Einstein used calculations and not a
telescope, so his theory must have
been wrong.
O Hubble's telescope was able to travel
through space and take more accurate
pictures.
O Einstein was known as a genius so his theories must be accurate.
O Hubble used telescopes to see stars
and galaxies in space and found
evidence that they are moving away.

Answers

Since his explanation of how light and gravity interact brought many disparate facts together, Einstein developed a new theory.

How does Einstein's general theory of relativity explain gravity?

According to Einstein's general theory of relativity, matter or energy causes space (or more specifically, spacetime) to distort, which is what is meant by gravity. By distorting the geometry of the surrounding spacetime, a large object produces a gravitational field.

Which theory of gravity is now the most accurate?

General relativity, commonly referred to as the general theory of relativity and Einstein's theory of gravity, is the geometric theory of gravitation that Albert Einstein presented in 1915 and serves as the basis for contemporary physicists' understanding of gravitation.

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PLS HELP What are three types of natural selection that act on variation?
A) Stabilizing, directional, and disruptive
B) Physical, chemical, and organic
C) Genetic, hereditary, and environmental
D) None of the above

Answers

Stabilizing selection, directional selection and disruptive selection are the three types of natural selection.

What are these types of selection?

Natural selection is the process wherein organisms get better adapted to their environments and tend to survive and produce more offsprings. It is basically a mechanism of evolution which favors those organisms that can better adapt to their environment.

Directional selection: this theory states that an extreme phenotype (a characteristic or trait) is favored over other phenotypes and this causes the allele frequency to shift in favor of the extreme phenotype over time. A particular trait, if favorable, will be expressed in the population at the most beneficial frequency.

Stabilizing selection: in this type, meaning a non-extreme trait is favored instead of one of the two extreme traits. Stabilizing selection is said to be the most common mechanism for natural selection, because most traits do not change drastically over time.

Disruptive selection: This selection is bimodal. It favors both of the extreme traits in a population.

So therefore, stabilizing selection, directional selection and disruptive selection are the three types of natural selection.

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which term is used to identify the narrow tubular portion of the long bone that merges into the neck?

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Diaphysis is the term which identifies the narrow tubular part of the long bone that merges into the neck. This section (diaphysis) transitions into a wider neck (metaphysis), as well as a broad end.

Long bones are longer than they are wide (epiphysis). A cartilaginous growth plate separates the epiphysis from the metaphysis in a child. The finest view of all the components of a bone is made possible by the structure of a long bone. The two parts of a long bone are the diaphysis and the epiphysis. The diaphysis is the tubular shaft that joins the proximal and distal ends of the bone. The hollow portion of the diaphysis is called the medullary cavity, and it is stuffed with yellow marrow. The walls of the diaphysis are composed of dense, compact, solid bone. The wider area at each end of the bone, called the epiphysis (plural: epiphyses), is filled with spongy bone. Red marrow fills the spaces in the spongy bone.

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Planning and Writing a Research Paper
In this activity, you’ll prepare a two- to three-page research paper that makes an argument about the future of the English bulldog breed using current scientific evidence.

Follow the steps provided to research, plan, and write your paper. Use this information about the research process and other links throughout the activity as a guide.

Part C: Take Notes
In a separate location, take notes from the sources you have identified. The notes will provide details for your paper. While taking notes from texts and websites, use these reading strategies. In the space provided, write four pieces of information that you intend to use in your paper.

Part D: Organize Your Information
After you’ve gathered your research and answered all your questions, create an outline for your research paper in the answer space. Following these guidelines for writing a five-paragraph essay may help you structure your outline. Be sure to account for the claim you’re making in your introduction, and include a works cited page at the end with the authors and websites you consulted.

Part E: Write Your Paper
Write your research using your outline and the research you’ve collected. Be sure to proofread and revise your writing to catch any errors in grammar, spelling, logic, or cohesion. Remember that you must add a works cited page at the end of your paper to give credit to your sources.

When you have completed your paper, submit it to your teacher along with this activity.

Answers

The future of the English bulldog breed using current scientific evidence illustrates that there'll be lesser bulldogs on the future.

Why will there be lesser bulldogs in the future?

Bulldogs originated hundreds of years ago in England, where they were bred for bull baiting antagonizing a bull for sport and theater due to their powerful and often vicious nature.

The English bulldog is well-known for its distinctive characteristics, which include an exaggerated stout snout, stocky body shape, deep facial folds, and a protruding lower jaw. While these characteristics are undeniably adorable and cuddly, researchers in the United Kingdom have linked them to serious health and welfare issues such as skin and ear diseases, eye disorders, and breathing difficulties. The dogs are 30 times more likely than other breeds to develop health problems.

The study compared 2,662 randomly selected English bulldogs to 22,039 dogs of other breeds. Researchers discovered that bulldogs were twice as likely as other breeds to have one or more health disorders in a single year. Bulldogs, for example, were 38 times more likely than other breeds to develop skin fold dermatitis.

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Answer:

PART B Moving to a new neighborhood right before the beginning of sixth grade was hard, but it brought me closer to my family and pushed me to try new things.

Explanation:

Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease that affects the lungs and digestive system. A young couple named Sara and Daniel are interested in having a child. Neither Sara or Daniel nor either of their parents have cystic fibrosis, but Sara and Daniel both have siblings who have the disease. a)What are the genotypes of both Sara and Daniel’s parents? b)What is the probability that Sara and Daniel are carriers for the disease? (Do the parental Punnett square and remember they DON’T have the disease,) c)Using the probability from part b, what is the chance that, if they are both carriers, their child will have the disease?

Answers

Cystic fibrosis is only expressed by individuals who have two copies of the mutated recessive allele. A) the genotypes of both Sara and Daniel’s parents is heterozygous Cc. B)  the probability that Sara and Daniel are carriers is 50%. C) Assuming Sara and Daniel are carriers, they have 25% chances of having an affected children.

What is Cystic fibrosis?

Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal affection caused by the recessive allele of a diallelic gene.

Most people have two copies of the normal allele and produce the functional CFTR protein form.

Patients with cystic fibrosis have two copies of the mutated recessive allele and so produce the mutated and dysfunctional form for this protein.

Heterozygote people possess only one normal CFTR allele and a mutated form for the same allele and produce a normal protein and a mutated protein.

The normal allele produces enough functional CFTR protein, so these individuals do not have any adverse effect and the mutated allele is recessive at a physiological level.

In the exposed example,

Sara and Daniel express the normal phenotypeSara and Daniel's parents express the normal phenotypeSara and Daniel's siblings have the disease ⇒ they are homozygous recessive fro the trait.

To answer the question, we will call C to the normal allele and c to the mutated allele.

a) What are the genotypes of both Sara and Daniel’s parents?

Knowing Sara and Daniel have siblings with the disease, we can assume their normal parents are heterozygous for the trait and each of the transmitted a recessive allele to that sibling. This is the only way these individuals could express the affection.

The genotype of Sara and Daniel’s parents is Cc.

b) What is the probability that Sara and Daniel are carriers for the disease?

Assuming their parents are heterozygous for the trait, the probabilities of being carriers (Cc) are 50% for each of them.

This is because when crossing two heterozygous individuals, the proportions among the progeny are 25% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous (carriers) and 25% homozygous recessive.

Parentals) Cc   x   Cc

Gametes) C   c      C    c

Punnett square)    C       c

                      C    CC     Cc

                       c    Cc      cc

F1)  25% of the progeny is expected to be CC, expressing the normal phenotype.

      50% of the progeny is expected to be Cc, expressing the normal phenotype.

      25% of the progeny is expected to be cc, expressing cystic fibrosis.

c) Using the probability from part b, what is the chance that, if they are both carriers, their child will have the disease?

Assuming both parents are heterozygous, each of them has 50% chances of transmitting the recessive allele to their progeny.

In this case, the chances of havin an affected children is 25%.

There are 25% chances of having and homozygous recessive children.

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Question 11
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a. the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b. the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c. the color of the nitrogen bases
d. the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
e. All of these

Answers

The order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule. The correct option to this question is B.

Purines (Adenine (A) and Guanine (G)) and pyrimidines (Cytosine (C) and Thymine (T)) are two kinds of nitrogenous bases found in DNA. Through a glycosidic link, these nitrogenous bases are joined to the C1' of deoxyribose. A nucleoside is a form of deoxyribose that is joined to a nitrogenous base.

The creation of nucleotides, which in turn create the nucleic acids like DNA and RNA, uses a set of five nitrogenous bases. The sequencing of these bases in DNA and RNA is how information is stored, making them of utmost importance.

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a cyclops that is homozygous dominant for the barbed gene and is resistant to pesticides is crossed with one that is resistant but not barbed. What proportion of the off spring will be barbed and resistant.

Answers

All of the offspring (100%) will be barbed and pesticide-resistant. Most often, bacterial defense mechanisms play a role in the development of pesticide resistance.

An experiment in genetics known as a "dihybrid cross" tracks the phenotypes of two genes by mating individuals who have multiple alleles at those gene loci. In most sexually reproducing organisms, each gene is present in two copies, allowing for the presence of two distinct alleles.

Monohybrid crosses are crosses in which there is just one pair of opposing characters. Dihybrid crosses are crosses in which there are only two pairs of opposing characteristics. For figuring out which genes are dominant, employ a monohybrid cross.

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100% of the progeny will be barbed and resistant to pesticides. Most frequently, the development of pesticide resistance is influenced by bacterial defence mechanisms.

A genetic experiment called a "dihybrid cross" studies the effects of two genes by mating individuals with different alleles at the same gene locus. Each gene is often found in two copies in sexually reproducing organisms, allowing for the existence of two different alleles.

Monohybrid crosses are crosses with only one set of antagonistic traits. Crosses with just two opposing pairings of traits are known as dihybrid crosses. Use a monohybrid cross to identify the dominant genes in a population.

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eukaryotes that reproduce through reproduction require two cells to contribute genetic material for the production of the next generation.

Answers

Sexual reproduction eukaryotes that reproduce through reproduction require two cells to contribute genetic material for the production of the next generation.

A gamete with a single set of chromosomes combines with another gamete to create a zygote, which then develops into an organism made up of cells with two sets of chromosomes. Sexual reproduction is a type of reproduction that involves a complex life cycle.

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What are the potential uses of human stem cells and the obstacles that must be overcome before these potential uses will be realized?

Answers

When stem cells are instructed to develop into particular cell types, they may provide a reusable source of replacement tissues and cells for disorders like macular degeneration.

What is the main barrier to the utilization of stem cells?

The main obstacle to a successful transplant of stem cells is immunological rejection. The immune system of an individual may also identify the donated cells as alien substances, which might result in an immunological response that causes the donated cells to be rejected.

What are the top three issues with employing human stem cells?

Clinical problems The effectiveness of these treatments cannot be predicted, for instance, the replacement of lost nerve cells in Parkinson's patients by stem cells. The present challenge of selecting appropriate stems from

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what are the causes of muscle fatigue? check all that apply. check all that apply lack of atp.lack of atp. crossbridge recycling/elevated phosphate ion concentration.crossbridge recycling/elevated phosphate ion concentration.

Answers

Causes of muscle fatigue Exercise and other physical activity are a common cause of muscle fatigue. Changes in Na + or K+ concentration Changes in Na+ or K+ concentrations .Insufficient Ca2+ and neuromuscular dysfunction.

Muscle fatigue is the reduction of the muscle's ability to produce energy. It may be due to vigorous exercise but poor fatigue may cause obstruction or interference at various levels of muscle contraction. In vigorous aerobic exercise, increased hydrogen ions lower the pH to below 6.5, causing severe fatigue. If magnesium deficiency is not treated, things can get worse. Severe magnesium deficiency can cause: Heart failure. Death and suffering.

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1.how the kidneys metabolize carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins and the effect that these three macromolecules have on renal function.
2.Ehow the gross and histological structure of the kidney facilitates urine production during: 1) glomerular filtration, 2) tubular reabsorption, and 3) tubular secretion.

Answers

Urine production is facilitated by the kidney's gross and histological structure during glomerular filtration.

What is the kidney's histological structure?

The kidney is divided into numerous lobes that are arranged in a pyramidal structure, with the cortex making up the outside portion and the medulla the interior portion. Nephrons, which make up the majority of the kidney's one million functional units, are connected to a network of collecting tubules.

What kidney organelles are in charge of producing urine?

The nephrons of the kidneys filter blood and create urine through a process of filtration, reabsorption, and secretion. Your blood is filtered by the glomerulus, while waste is removed from and returned to your blood by the tubule.

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Which of the following is not a symptom of pellagra?

Answers

Pellagra is an illness that is caused by a deficiency of niacin and is characterized by symptoms such as diarrhea, skin lesions, and muscle pain. Hair loss is not a symptom associated with pellagra, so the correct answer is D. Hair loss.

Which is not a symptom of pellagra?

Option D. Hair loss

Pellagra is an illness caused by a deficiency of niacin that is characterized by symptoms such as diarrhea, skin lesions, and muscle pain. Hair loss is not a symptom associated with pellagra, so the correct answer is D. Hair Loss.

The other options are all symptoms of pellagra, but hair loss is not included in the list of symptoms. It is important to recognize the signs of pellagra and take steps to correct any niacin deficiencies to prevent and/or treat the condition.

Since the task is not complete, here's the full question:

Which of the following is not a symptom of pellagra?

Choose from the options:

A. DiarrheaB. Skin lesionsC. Muscle painD. Hair loss

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camouflage typically evolves as a result of

Answers

Predation is usually the catalyst for the evolution of camouflage.

Camouflage, often called cryptic coloring, is a defense or method that creatures adopt to hide their appearance, usually to blend in with their surroundings.

To conceal their location, identity, and movement, organisms use camouflage.Predators can sneak up on prey while prey can avoid predators thanks to this.

The four fundamental types of camouflage are disruptive coloring, disguise, imitation, and concealing coloration.

Animals mimic other species to deceive their food or predators. Zebras, viceroy butterflies, stick bugs, and snowshoe hares are some examples of creatures that may blend in.

An adaptation known as camouflage aids an organism in blending in with its environment. The animal's ability to blend in boosts its capacity to survive and helps it avoid predators.

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Once water vapor has been released into the atmosphere, it rises and cools, turning back into a liquid. What is this process called?

Answers

Answer: The process is called condensation.

Explanation: Condensation, being an integral part of the water cycle, illustrates how water cycles through the earth as a solid, liquid, and gas. Condensation is the transition from gas into a liquid.

You have rock A with a volume of 15cm3 and a mass of 45 g. You have rock B with a volume of 30cm3 and a mass of 60g.

Answer the following questions:

Which of the two rocks is the heaviest?

Which of the two rocks is the lightest?

Which of the two rocks is most dense?

Which of the two rocks is the least dense?

Answers

According to the given question, rock B of mass 60g is heaviest and rock A  of mass 45g is lightest. Rock A is most dense and rock B is least dense.

What is the relation between density, mass and volume?

It is easy to determine a body's mass from its volume or vice versa using density; mass is equal to volume multiplied by density, while volume is equal to mass divided by density. This relation can be written as-

[tex]Density = \frac{Mass}{Volume}[/tex]

Now, it is given that-

Volume of rock A = 15 [tex]cm^{3}[/tex], Mass of rock A = 45 g

Volume of rock B = 30 [tex]cm^{3}[/tex], Mass of rock B = 60 g

So,

Density of rock A = 45 / 15 = 3 [tex]gm/cm^{3}[/tex]

Density of rock B = 60 / 30 = 2 [tex]gm/cm^{3}[/tex]

Therefore, rock A is denser than rock B. Rock B is heaviest and rock A is lightest.

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The heaviest rock is rock B, which weighs 60g, while the lightest rock is rock A, which weighs 45g. Rock B is the least dense, whereas Rock A is the densest.

What connection exists between mass, volume, and density?

Using density, it is simple to calculate a body's mass from its volume or vice versa. Mass is equal to volume times density, whereas volume is equal to mass divided by density. This connection can be expressed as:

[tex]Density = Mass/Volume[/tex]

Now that this is known,

Rock A has a volume of 15 [tex]cm^{3}[/tex] and a mass of 45 g.

Rock B has a volume of 30 [tex]cm^{3}[/tex]  and a mass of 60 g.

So,

Rock density A = 45/15 = 3 [tex]gm/cm^{3}[/tex]

Rock density B = 60/30 = 2 [tex]gm/cm^{3}[/tex]

Rock A is therefore denser than Rock B. A is the lightest rock, whereas B is the heaviest.

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ESSEX COUNTY COLLEGE MOODLE ROOMS MENT SYSTEM IONS STUDENT LIFE A NEWS MYECC CONTACT US September S-September 11 Pathophysiology Homework- 2016 (Fall 60 What is the action of natriuretic peptides? Select one
O a. They decrease heart rate and increase potassium excretion.
O b. They increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water ex
O c. They decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.
O d. They increase heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.

Answers

The action of natriuretic peptides that they increase heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.

The heart produces natriuretic peptides and increase the heart rate. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) and N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide are the two primary types of these molecules (NT-proBNP). BNP and NT-proBNP are typically only detected in trace amounts in the blood. High levels may indicate that your heart isn't supplying your body with as much blood as it requires. Congestive heart failure, also referred to as heart failure, results from this. Natriuretic peptide assays, blood tests that evaluate BNP or NT-proBNP levels. A BNP test or an NT-proBNP test may be requested by your doctor, but not both. Both of these help identify heart failure even though they employ distinct criteria.

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Nucleotides contain sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base. Which of the following is a nitrogen base?


ribose

guanine

tyrosine

deoxyribose

Biology A Semester Exam

this is all the answers 1 to 28








b,guanine

c 2and3

a, Exothermic reactions tend to release heat energy to the surrounding environment

d It may be reliable because they cited multiple high-quality studies from scientific journals

c osmosis

b, Rough endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes attached to its surface

d cell wall

c skeletal

d, break down starch.

a, respiratory and circulatory

d , the thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast

b, 41 Calories is less than 410 kcal

d, lactic acid

b , phosphate group.

b, deletion mutation

a, 25%

d, The viral genome incorporates into the host genome during the lysogenic cycle

d, totipotent stem cells → pluripotent stem cells → multipotent stem cells → neuron

b Gene expression is different between different specialized cells.

c DNA

d, a model that illustrates how a cell divides into two identical cells

c 1and2

c an insertion mutation in an egg cell that deactivates a gene for hair color, resulting in a viable error

c epigenetics

a, Bottleneck effect, because it means most cheetahs could succumb to the same environmental stresses

a, A pair of homologous chromosomes fails to separate during anaphase I of meiosis.

a polygenic

this is 9 grade biology

hope this helps i just finished the test

Answers

Guanine is a nitrogen base from the given options contained in

Nucleotides.

What is Nucleotides?

Nucleotides are the building blocks of DNA and RNA, which are the nucleic acids that carry genetic information in living organisms. They are organic molecules made up of a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar and a phosphate group. The four different nitrogenous bases found in nucleotides are adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine.

Guanine is one of the four main nitrogenous bases found in nucleotides, along with adenine, cytosine, and thymine. It is a purine base that is found in both DNA and RNA.

What is a nitrogen base?

A nitrogen base is an organic compound that contains nitrogen and is an essential component of nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA. Nitrogen bases are classified into two groups: purines and pyrimidines. Purines are composed of two fused rings of carbon and nitrogen atoms, while pyrimidines are composed of just one ring of carbon and nitrogen atoms.

Therefore, the correct option is Option B.

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which of the following statements about mitosis is true? a) the chromosome number in the resulting cells is halved. b) dna replication is completed in prophase. c) crossing over occurs during prophase. d) two genetically identical daughter cells are formed. e) it consists of two nuclear divisions.

Answers

Two genetically identical daughter cells are formed, Mitosis occurs in all body cells except gametes (sex cells), the chromosome number in the resulting cells is identical to the parent cell, DNA replication is completed before the cell divides these statements are True.

In the cell cycle, the newly generated DNA is divided during mitosis, which also results in the formation of two new cells with the same number and type of chromosomes as the parent nucleus.Asexual reproduction is a process known as mitosis that is seen in unicellular organisms. As a result of the identical chromosome number in the parent and daughter cells, the cell is sometimes referred to as equational cell division.The cell cycle phase known as mitosis occurs when a cell's nucleus divides into two daughter nuclei, each of which contains an equal amount of genetic material. After the G2 phase, it is followed by the cytoplasmic division phase.

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Gene flow is accomplished by ______.

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Gene flow is accomplished by migration.

What is gene flow accomplished by?Gene flow is the transfer of genetic material from one population to another. Gene flow can take place between two populations of the same species through migration, and is mediated by reproduction and vertical gene transfer from parent to offspring.Process of gene flow is when certain alleles (genes) move from one population to another geographically separated population. In plant pathology, gene flow is very important because it deals with the movement of virulent mutant alleles among different field populations.When fertile individuals or their gametes (sex cells) move between populations, there is a gene flow. Genetic diversity between populations tends to decrease as a result of gene flow. Gene flow can eventually combine nearby populations into a single population with a common gene pool if it is significant enough.

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according to the theory of endosymbiosis, the origin of chloroplasts and mitochondria probably involved:

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According to the endosymbiotic theory, some eukaryotic cell organelles, such mitochondria and plastids, descended from prokaryotes that were free to move around.

One of the hypotheses that is still in use today is the endosymbiotic theory. It is assumed that the early living forms interacted in an endosymbiosis. A larger cell that acts as the host in this type of symbiosis is joined by a smaller cell that is known as an endosymbiont.

According to endosymbiotic hypothesis, the larger cell "took in" or devoured the smaller cell. Today's eukaryotic cells are represented by the larger cell, whilst prokaryotic cells are represented by the smaller cell.

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Please help explain if this is a correct answer

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Mutualism and commensalism cause no harm to either organism, whereas parasitism causes harm to one organism.

What is mutualism ?When two or more species interact ecologically, mutualism refers to the situation where each species gains something from the interaction. A typical form of ecological interaction is mutualism.In fact, ecologists today estimate that nearly every species on Earth is involved directly or indirectly in one or more of these interactions. Mutualisms exist in every aquatic and terrestrial habitat. Mutualisms are essential to the reproduction, survival, and nutrient cycles in many plants and animals as well as in ecosystems.Long-term biological interactions known as commensalism occur when members of one species benefit while those of the other species suffer neither benefits nor harm.Frequently, a larger host and a smaller commensal are in a commensal relationship. The commensal species may exhibit significant morphological adaptation, whereas the host organism is virtually unaffected by the contact.

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which of the following protein foods is the best source of copper? a. shellfish b. chicken c. hamburger d. lamb e. beefsteak

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The finest sources of copper are shellfish, which are foods high in protein.

foods that include copper?

Shellfish, seeds, nuts, organ meats, cereals with wheat bran, whole-grain goods, and chocolate are some of the foods that are the highest in dietary copper. If the diet is deficient in copper, the body will absorb more copper, and if the diet is sufficient, less copper will be absorbed.

What kind of copper content are eggs?

Sodium levels in eggs are modest and they are high in phosphorus, calcium, and potassium (142 mg per 100 g of whole egg). It also contains all of the trace elements that are necessary for life, including as copper, iron, magnesium, manganese, selenium, and zinc, with egg yolk serving as the main source of iron and zinc.

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PTC Pathway | Login Connect - To Do As... Utv Lab link New Tab System Saved Drag each label into the proper position to identify whether the indicated structure is located on the femur, humerus, or both. Humerus Both Femur Adductor tubercle Intercondylar fossa Lesser tubercle Lateral epicondyle Greater trochanter Olecranon fossa Neck Intercondylar fossa Trochlea Head Capitulum Medial epicondyle Intertuburcular sulcus Fovea capitis Lateral epicondyle Gluteal tuberosity Coronoid fossa Olecranon fossa K ces Capitulum Greater trochanter Trochlea Medial epicondyle Head Neck Deltold tuberosity BRO Next > 29 of 54 < Prev

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The largest bone in the upper extremity, the humerus, defines the human brachium (arm). It articulates distally with the radius and ulna at the elbow joint and proximally with the glenoid via the glenohumeral (GH) joint.

HUMERUS smaller tubercle Oleg's Fossa Trochlea Capitulum Sulcus intratubular Fossa coronoid Deltoid tubercle BOTH medial and lateral epicondyles of the neck

The head of the humerus, which connects to the glenoid cavity on the scapula to form a ball and socket joint, is the part of the bone that is closest to the body. The anatomical neck of the humerus, which separates the head of the humerus from the larger and lesser tubercles, is located immediately beneath the humeral head. The remaining epiphyseal plate is the humerus' anatomical neck. Proximally, an intertubercular groove is visible, separating the two tubercles vertically.

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