cpfr refers to cost, profit, frequency, and return in an inventory management system.

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Answer 1

CPFR, or Collaborative Planning, Forecasting, and Replenishment, is an inventory management system that is used to streamline the supply chain and improve operational efficiency.

It is based on the principle of collaboration between trading partners in the supply chain to share information and coordinate activities such as planning, forecasting, and replenishment. The term CPFR refers to four key metrics that are used to measure the success of the system: cost, profit, frequency, and return. Cost refers to the reduction in operational costs that can be achieved through the implementation of CPFR, while profit refers to the increased profitability that can be achieved through better planning and coordination. Frequency refers to the speed at which orders can be fulfilled, and return refers to the ability of the system to generate a positive return on investment. In summary, CPFR is a powerful tool for optimizing inventory management and achieving better outcomes in terms of cost, profit, frequency, and return.

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a wage rate above what is necessary to attract a sufficient number of workers is known as a(n)

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A wage rate above what is necessary to attract a sufficient number of workers is known as a "monopoly wage." A monopoly wage is a wage rate that is set higher than the market-clearing wage, which is the wage at which labor supply equals labor demand.

This means that there are more workers willing to work at the market-clearing wage than there are jobs available. In contrast, at a monopoly wage, there are more jobs available than there are workers willing to work at that wage.

Monopoly wages are often set by firms that have significant market power or a strong position in their industry. By offering higher wages than their competitors, these firms can attract and retain highly skilled and motivated workers, which can lead to increased productivity and profits.

However, monopoly wages can also have negative effects, such as leading to higher prices for consumers, reducing employment opportunities for workers, and reducing the competitiveness of firms in the industry. Therefore, governments may seek to regulate or intervene in labor markets to prevent firms from setting monopoly wages.

In summary, a monopoly wage is a wage rate set higher than the market-clearing wage to attract and retain highly skilled workers. While it can lead to benefits for firms, it can also have negative effects and may be regulated by governments to prevent market distortions.

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which forecasting methods can be used for short-term forecasting?

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There are several forecasting methods that can be used for short-term forecasting. One of the most common methods is the moving average method. Another method is the exponential smoothing method.

In addition, the autoregressive integrated moving average (ARIMA) method can be used for short-term forecasting, which involves analyzing the pattern of past observations to predict future values.

The seasonal autoregressive integrated moving average (SARIMA) method is another option for short-term forecasting, which is similar to ARIMA but takes into account seasonal variations in the data.Machine learning algorithms, such as neural networks and decision trees, can also be used for short-term forecasting. These methods are able to analyze large amounts of data and identify patterns that may not be immediately apparent to humans.Ultimately, the choice of forecasting method will depend on the specific data and context of the situation.It is important to consider factors such as the level of accuracy required, the amount of data available, and any external factors that may influence the forecast.

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6) the u.s. dollar (usd) deposit interest rate is 1%, while australia's (aud) rate is 3.5%, with a 1.5000 aud/usd exchange rate. a) explain interest rate parity (irp). b) what should be the 1-year forward exchange rate for aud/usd under interest rate parity?

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a) Interest rate parity (IRP) is a concept in international finance. b)  the 1-year forward exchange rate for AUD/USD under interest rate parity would be approximately 1.5327

It suggests that the difference in interest rates between two countries should be equal to the difference in their forward exchange rates.

In simpler terms, it states that the interest rate differential between two currencies should be offset by the expected change in the exchange rate between those currencies.

b) To determine the 1-year forward exchange rate for AUD/USD under interest rate parity, we can use the formula:

Forward exchange rate = Spot exchange rate × [(1 + Interest rate in AUD) / (1 + Interest rate in USD)]

Given the information provided:

Spot exchange rate (AUD/USD) = 1.5000

Interest rate in AUD = 3.5%

Interest rate in USD = 1%

Using the formula, we can calculate the 1-year forward exchange rate:

Forward exchange rata = [tex]1.5000* [(1 + 0.035) / (1 + 0.01)][/tex]

Forward exchange rate = [tex]1.5000* (1.035 / 1.01)[/tex]

Forward exchange rate ≈ 1.5327

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generally speaking, a country whose currency appreciates will experience, as a result,

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Generally speaking, a country whose currency appreciates will experience a decrease in the competitiveness of its exports and an increase in the competitiveness of its imports.

This is because an appreciation of the currency makes the country's exports more expensive for foreign buyers, while making imports cheaper for domestic buyers. As a result, the country's trade balance may worsen, as it exports less and imports more. However, an appreciation of the currency may also lead to lower inflation, as imported goods become cheaper, which may have a positive effect on the economy overall.

Additionally, a stronger currency can make it easier for the country to borrow money from abroad, as lenders may see the country as a more stable and creditworthy borrower. Ultimately, the effects of a currency appreciation will depend on a number of factors, including the structure of the country's economy, its level of international trade, and the monetary and fiscal policies pursued by its government and central bank.

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the taylor rule for the federal funds rate implies that the central bank is concerned with: A. both the GDP gap and inflation, B. uncertainty, C. monetary policy goal

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The Taylor rule implies that the central bank is concerned with both the GDP gap and inflation as part of its monetary policy goal, option A.

The Taylor rule is a monetary policy guideline that suggests how central banks, such as the Federal Reserve in the United States, should adjust the federal funds rate in response to changes in economic conditions. Specifically, the rule recommends that the central bank should increase the federal funds rate when inflation is high or the economy is overheating (as indicated by a positive GDP gap), and decrease the federal funds rate when inflation is low or the economy is sluggish (as indicated by a negative GDP gap).

Therefore, the correct answer is  option A.

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Pressure from ___________ and __________ influenced the FASB to revise guidance on fair value accounting.

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The pressure from various stakeholders and market participants, as well as the unprecedented market volatility during the global financial crisis, influenced the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) to revise its guidance on fair value accounting.

The FASB received feedback from investors, regulators, and accounting professionals expressing concerns about the reliability and relevance of fair value measurements during times of market uncertainty. Additionally, the FASB recognized the need to clarify and enhance the guidance on fair value measurements, including disclosure requirements, to provide investors with more meaningful information.

As a result, the FASB issued several Accounting Standards Updates (ASUs) that addressed fair value measurements and disclosures, such as ASU 2011-04 and ASU 2018-13, which provided more guidance on determining fair value and expanded disclosure requirements. Overall, the FASB's revisions to fair value accounting were aimed at improving financial reporting transparency and relevance during times of economic volatility, and providing investors with more reliable and useful information.

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On the floodplain map, an area marked Zone X with no shading means that there is less than a .2% annual risk of flooding. True False

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The statement is True. On the floodplain map, Zone X with no shading means that the area is located outside of the 100-year floodplain, meaning there is less than a 1% chance of flooding in any given year.

What  is the reason?

Furthermore, the .2% annual risk of flooding represents a 500-year floodplain, which is a very low risk area for flooding.

Therefore, an area marked Zone X with no shading on the floodplain map indicates that the area has a minimal risk of flooding, making it an ideal location for building and development.

However, it is still important to exercise caution and take necessary precautions, as even low-risk areas can still experience unexpected flooding events.

Hence, its true.

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is an opportunity in which a retailer develops a new retail mix for the same target market

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Yes, developing a new retail mix for the same target market can be considered as an opportunity for a retailer.

The retail mix refers to the various elements of retail strategy that a retailer uses to satisfy its target market's needs and wants. These elements include product assortment, pricing, promotion, store layout and design, and customer service. Developing a new retail mix can help a retailer better meet the changing needs and preferences of its target market and gain a competitive advantage in the marketplace. By updating or introducing new products, adjusting pricing, improving store design or layout, or enhancing customer service, the retailer can create a unique and appealing shopping experience for its customers. This, in turn, can help the retailer build customer loyalty and increase sales and profitability. However, developing a new retail mix requires careful planning and execution to ensure that the changes are aligned with the retailer's overall strategy and do not negatively impact its existing customer base.

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If China decides to enact laws to clean up the environment, what would be the effect on GDP?
A) GDP would increase reflecting the fact that the environment would be cleaner.
B) GDP would increase as the citizens of China were made happier as the environment was cleaned up.
C) GDP would decrease if the pollution controls reduce productivity by more than the cost of the controls.
D) GDP would increase as the environmental costs of pollution were not included in the calculation of GDP.

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The most likely effect on GDP if China enacts laws to clean up the environment would be C) GDP would decrease if the pollution controls reduce productivity by more than the cost of the controls.

This is because implementing environmental regulations can lead to higher costs for businesses and reduce productivity in the short run, which could negatively impact GDP.

However, in the long run, a cleaner environment could attract more foreign investment and improve the health and well-being of the population, which could lead to economic growth and a potential increase in GDP. Overall, the effect on GDP would depend on the specific policies and implementation strategies of the environmental laws.

Therefore, correct answer is option C.

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One of the advantages of a team survey is that it is easy to determine who has not yet responded. (T/F)

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True. One of the advantages of a team survey is that it is easy to determine who has not yet responded.

In a team survey, it is easy to determine who has not yet responded. This is because the survey is typically sent to a specific group of people, such as team members, and the sender can keep track of who has responded and who has not. This allows the sender to follow up with those who have not responded to encourage them to do so.

In contrast, with a larger survey sent to a wider audience, it can be more difficult to determine who has not yet responded. This is especially true if the survey is sent through multiple channels, such as email, social media, and other online platforms. In this case, it may be necessary to use additional methods, such as reminders and incentives, to encourage people to respond and ensure a high response rate.

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T/F the top built-in function in sql is used to find the maximum value in a numeric column.

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True. The top built-in function in SQL is not used to find the maximum value in a numeric column.

The top function in SQL is used to limit the number of results returned by a query, not to find the maximum value in a numeric column. To find the maximum value in a numeric column, the aggregate function MAX is typically used. The MAX function returns the highest value in a specified column of a table.

To use the MAX function in SQL, you would typically write a SELECT statement that includes the MAX function and specifies the column you want to find the maximum value of. For example, the following SQL statement would return the maximum value in the "price" column of a table named "products":

SELECT MAX(price) FROM products;

The MAX function can be used with other aggregate functions, such as COUNT and SUM, to perform more complex calculations on numeric data in a table.


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question 4 (1 point) preferred stockholders receive dividends only after common stockholders receive their dividends. true false

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True. Preferred stockholders are entitled to receive dividends before common stockholders, but only if the company declares dividends.

If the company does not declare dividends, preferred stockholders do not receive any payment. However, if the company does declare dividends, preferred stockholders will receive their dividends before common stockholders. Additionally, preferred stockholders typically receive a fixed dividend amount, while common stockholders may or may not receive dividends depending on the company's financial performance. Therefore, preferred stockholders may receive their dividends before common stockholders, but only if the company declares dividends.

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fowler wellness is an all-equity firm with 360,000 shares of stock outstanding. the company will borrow $1.8 million at 4.5 percent interest to repurchase 50,000 shares of the outstanding stock. assume there are no taxes. what is the value of the firm?

Answers

The Value of Firm is 310,000 x Price per Share + $1.8 million price per share.

The first step is to calculate the value of the 310,000 remaining shares of stock. We can do this by using the formula:

Value of Equity = Number of Shares Outstanding x Price per Share

To find the price per share, we need to subtract the $1.8 million used to repurchase the 50,000 shares from the total equity value of the company:

Total Equity Value = Number of Shares Outstanding x Price per Share

$1.8 million represents 50,000 shares of stock, so the remaining equity value is:

Total Equity Value = (360,000 - 50,000) x Price per Share Total Equity Value = 310,000 x Price per Share

The $1.8 million debt adds to the value of the firm, so we need to add the debt to the equity value:

Value of Firm = Value of Equity + Debt

Value of Firm = 310,000 x Price per Share + $1.8 million

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T/F: the first step in a vulnerability assessment is to determine the assets that need to be protected

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True. The first step in a vulnerability assessment is to identify and determine the assets that need to be protected. This is important because it allows organizations to prioritize their security efforts and focus on the most critical assets. Assets can include physical resources such as buildings, equipment, and people, as well as digital assets such as data, software, and networks.


Once the assets have been identified, the next step is to assess their vulnerability to potential threats. This involves examining the security controls in place to protect them and identifying any weaknesses or vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. The goal of a vulnerability assessment is to identify these weaknesses and develop strategies to mitigate them before they can be exploited.

It is important to note that vulnerability assessments are an ongoing process, as new threats and vulnerabilities emerge over time. Therefore, organizations must continuously monitor and update their security measures to ensure that their assets remain protected. By following these steps, organizations can proactively manage their security risks and reduce the likelihood of a security breach or cyber-attack.

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dashboard design is a critical factor because business users need to be able to ________.

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Dashboard design is a critical factor because business users need to be able to efficiently access, analyze, and interpret relevant data to make informed decisions.

A well-designed dashboard enables users to easily navigate through various data sets, visualize trends, and quickly identify areas that require attention or improvement.

By incorporating elements such as intuitive layouts, clear visualizations, and user-friendly navigation, dashboard design ensures that business users can effectively leverage the data at their disposal to drive better performance and achieve organizational goals.

In summary, effective dashboard design is essential for empowering business users to make data-driven decisions with confidence and ease.

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a medical assistant is submitting an urgent referral request to an insurance company for authorization. how long will the authorization process take?

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The authorization process for a medical referral request usually takes about 72 hours or 3 business days.

What is a medical referral request?

A medical referral request is a formal process by which a healthcare provider, such as a medical assistant or physician, requests that a patient be referred to a specialist for further evaluation or treatment.

This can occur when a patient requires specialized care that cannot be provided by the primary care physician or when there is a complex medical condition that requires the expertise of a specialist.

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Sandra owns a small grocery business in Quality City, USA. She is inspected by the Health Department of Quality City on an annual basis. This year, the Health Inspector started shopping in her store after the Inspection. When the Inspector came to the cashier counter, she indicated to the cashier, that she did not expect to pay full price for her groceries. This was bought to Sandra’s attention. She has very little time to decide what to do.

Questions: What, if any, ethical principles are involved in this case? What are Sandra’s options?

Answers

The various ethical principles involved in the case are fairness and integrity

The Health Inspector is demanding preferential treatment by anticipating not to pay full price for her food, which makes the ethical principles of fairness applicable in this situation. This conduct contravenes idea of fairness since it gives the inspector an unfair advantage and goes against the norms and expectations of a customer-business relationship. Another ethical element at play in this situation is integrity. The ideals of honesty, openness, and preserving moral convictions should be followed by Sandra and the Health Inspector alike. By abusing their position of power, Inspector's request for reduced goods violates honesty.

Sandra has the option to uphold the principles of her company by forcefully but courteously rejecting the Health Inspector's request for a reduction. She can clarify that regular pricing is applied to all consumers at the shop and that giving anyone special treatment would be unjust. She can also speak with higher-ups in the Health Department or the relevant authorities to report the inspector's actions and get advice on how to manage the circumstance. This strategy addresses the ethical issue and provides accountability and openness.

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Which of the following are characteristics held by outstanding business thinkers?
Multiple select question.
They can solve complex problems.
They have the ability to state important questions.
They limit solutions to what is conventional.
They focus on either/or thinking.

Answers

Answer:

The following are characteristics held by outstanding business thinkers:

They can solve complex problems.

They have the ability to state important questions.

They are open to new ideas and perspectives.

They are willing to take risks.

They are persistent and never give up.

They limit solutions to what is conventional. (Wrong)

They focus on either/or thinking. (Wrong)

Outstanding business thinkers are able to think outside the box and come up with creative solutions to problems. They are also able to see the big picture and understand how their decisions will impact the overall business. Additionally, they are able to communicate their ideas effectively to others.

Explanation:

T/F: if a buyer repudiates a contract, the seller can bring an action to recover damages.

Answers

True, if a buyer repudiates a contract, the seller can bring an action to recover damages. In a contract, both parties have obligations to fulfill. When one party, in this case, the buyer, repudiates the contract, they are essentially refusing to fulfill their part of the agreement.

This breach of contract can result in the non-breaching party, the seller, suffering financial losses.

To recover damages, the seller can bring a legal action against the buyer. The main objective of such an action is to compensate the seller for their losses resulting from the buyer's breach.

The damages awarded to the seller are typically calculated based on the actual financial loss incurred, such as the difference between the contract price and the market price at the time of the breach, as well as any additional costs incurred by the seller due to the buyer's repudiation.

In summary, it is true that if a buyer repudiates a contract, the seller has the right to bring an action to recover damages. This legal recourse allows the seller to seek compensation for the financial losses they have suffered as a result of the buyer's breach of the contract.

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The reason that MM Proposition I without taxes does not hold in the presence of corporate taxation is because: O levered firms pay less taxes compared with identical unlevered firms. O bondholders require higher rates of return than stockholders do. O earnings per share are no longer relevant with taxes. O dividends become a tax shield. O debt is more expensive than equity.

Answers

MM Proposition I (without taxes) states that the market value of a firm is independent of its capital structure. However, when taxes are introduced, the proposition does not hold true. The reason for this is that taxes create a difference between the cost of debt and the cost of equity.

When a company borrows money, the interest paid on the debt is tax-deductible, which means that the company pays less in taxes. This tax shield reduces the cost of debt financing, making it cheaper than equity financing. Therefore, a levered firm (i.e., a firm with debt) pays less taxes than an identical unlevered firm (i.e., a firm without debt).As a result, the value of the levered firm increases because of the tax shield.

However, the cost of equity financing remains the same because it is not tax-deductible. Thus, the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) decreases with leverage, resulting in an increase in firm value. In summary, the reason MM Proposition I without taxes does not hold in the presence of corporate taxation is that taxes create a difference in the cost of debt and equity financing, resulting in the value of the levered firm being greater than the value of the unlevered firm.

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Which term refers to an ordered listing of accounts that comprise a company's general ledger?
Select one:
a. General ledger
b. Balance sheet
c. Bank ledger
d. Chart of accounts (COA)
e. None of the above

Answers

The term that refers to an ordered listing of accounts that comprise a company's general ledger is "d. Chart of accounts (COA)."

The chart of accounts (COA) is a critical component of a company's accounting system. It serves as a comprehensive listing of all the accounts used by a company to record its financial transactions in the general ledger. The COA provides a standardized structure for organizing and classifying financial transactions, which helps to ensure that financial statements are accurate and complete.

The COA typically includes five categories of accounts: assets, liabilities, equity, revenues, and expenses. Each of these categories is further broken down into subcategories, which allows for more detailed tracking of financial transactions. For example, assets might be broken down into cash, accounts receivable, inventory, and property, plant, and equipment.

The COA is typically developed based on the specific needs of a company and may be customized to reflect the unique aspects of its operations. It is important to design the COA in such a way that it provides useful information for internal management purposes as well as for external reporting requirements.

In summary, the chart of accounts is a fundamental tool for any company's accounting system. It provides a consistent structure for organizing and classifying financial transactions, which helps to ensure that financial statements are accurate and complete . The COA is a key component of a company's internal controls, as well as its compliance with external reporting requirements.

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he complete income statement is separated into the following sections: multiple select question. discontinued segments discontinued operations continuing operations earnings per share

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The complete income statement is a financial statement that provides a summary of a company's revenues, expenses, and profits over a specified period. It is divided into several sections, including discontinued segments, discontinued operations, continuing operations, and earnings per share.

Discontinued segments refer to any part of a company's business that has been or is being discontinued. This may include the sale of a subsidiary, the closure of a department, or the discontinuation of a particular product line.

Discontinued operations, on the other hand, refer to any part of a company's business that has been sold, closed, or abandoned. This section of the income statement reports the net income or loss from these discontinued operations.

Continuing operations refer to any part of a company's business that is ongoing. This section of the income statement reports the revenues and expenses related to the company's ongoing operations.

Finally, earnings per share (EPS) is a metric that shows how much profit a company has generated per share of its common stock. EPS is calculated by dividing a company's net income by the number of shares outstanding.

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Final answer:

An income statement, a crucial financial document in business, includes sections for discontinued operations, continuing operations, and earnings per share. Each section plays a vital role in representing a company's current financial status and predicting its future profitability.

Explanation:

An income statement is a financial document used in business that displays a company's profitability over a specific period of time. It is segmented into a few sections, including discontinued operations, continuing operations, and earnings per share. An income statement may or may not include a section for discontinued segments, depending on whether the business has phased out any of its operations during the period being reported.

Discontinued operations are parts of a company's business that it has decided to stop as a strategic decision. These are operations that the company does not expect to continue in the foreseeable future. This information is separated on the income statement because it is not indicative of the company's ongoing profitability.

Continuing operations includes the revenues, expenses, and profit or losses that are likely to continue in future periods. This component of the income statement is helpful to stakeholders because it aids in predicting the company's future financial performance.

Earnings per share (EPS) is a section of the income statement that shows the portion of a company's profit allocated to each outstanding share of common stock. EPS is an important measure of a company's profitability and is often used by investors to compare financial performance between companies.

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you purchase one june 70 put contract for a put premium of $4. what is the maximum profit that you could gain from this strategy? group of answer choices $6,600 unlimited $7,000 none of the options are correct. $400 $7,400

Answers

The maximum profit that you could gain from this strategy is $6,600. Option a is correct.

To calculate the maximum profit from the purchase of one June 70 put contract, we need to consider the strike price and the premium paid.

In this case, the strike price is $70, and the premium paid for the put contract is $4.

The maximum profit from a put option is achieved when the underlying asset's price drops to zero. In this scenario, if the price of the underlying asset drops to zero, the put option would allow you to sell the asset at the strike price of $70, regardless of its actual value.

Since you paid a premium of $4 for the put option, the maximum profit you can gain is the difference between the strike price and the premium multiplied by the contract multiplier (usually 100 for equity options). Therefore, the maximum profit would be:

Maximum Profit = ($70 - $4) × 100 = $6,600

Therefore, the correct answer is $6,600. Option a.

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A firm has two major customers - Betty and Bill. The firm assigns general delivery costs to customers based on the total value of orders placed. Last year Betty placed 100 orders at a total value of $49,980 and Bill placed 250 orders at a total value of $52,020. If total general delivery costs totaled $20,000, the amount assigned to Betty equals ______.

Answers

If total general delivery costs totaled $20,000, the amount assigned to Betty equals $9,800.

To calculate the amount assigned to Betty, we first need to determine what proportion of the total value of orders placed by both Betty and Bill was attributed to Betty.

To do this, we can calculate the total value of orders placed by both customers:

Total value of orders = $49,980 (Betty) + $52,020 (Bill) = $102,000

Next, we can calculate the proportion of the total value of orders that Betty placed:

Proportion of Betty's orders = $49,980 (Betty's orders) / $102,000 (total orders) = 0.490

This means that Betty's orders accounted for 49.0% of the total value of orders placed by both customers.

Now we can use this proportion to determine the amount of general delivery costs assigned to Betty:

Amount assigned to Betty = Proportion of Betty's orders x Total general delivery costs

Amount assigned to Betty = 0.490 x $20,000 = $9,800

Therefore, the amount assigned to Betty is $9,800.

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distortion and inaccurate information as it moves from the retailer back through the supply chain is known as

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The phenomenon of distortion and inaccurate information as it moves from the retailer back through the supply chain is known as the "Bullwhip Effect." The Bullwhip Effect occurs when small fluctuations in consumer demand at the retailer level lead to progressively larger fluctuations and imbalances in inventory levels, production rates, and order quantities as the information moves upstream in the supply chain.

This distortion can be caused by various factors, including demand forecasting inaccuracies, order batching, price promotions, and miscommunication between supply chain partners. As a result, manufacturers, wholesalers, and suppliers may experience excessive inventory buildup or stockouts, leading to increased costs and reduced operational efficiency.

To mitigate the Bullwhip Effect, companies can implement strategies such as improving communication and information sharing among supply chain partners, adopting demand-driven planning techniques, using collaborative forecasting, and implementing inventory management best practices. By addressing the root causes of the Bullwhip Effect, businesses can better align their operations with actual customer demand, reducing waste and improving the overall efficiency of their supply chain.

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With respect to customer expectations, which of the following best describes the zone of tolerance? Select one: a. It explains situations where customer expectations will be higher than normal. b. It explains situations where customers will hold lower than normal expectations. c. It explains why customers look for weak performance. d. It explains situations where customer satisfaction will be exceptionally low. e. It represents the degree to which customers recognize and are willing to accept variability in performance.

Answers

The zone of tolerance refers to the range of acceptable performance that customers are willing to accept from a product or service. It represents the degree to which customers recognize and are willing to accept variability in performance.
Customers' expectations may vary depending on the product or service they are purchasing, the industry, and the competitive landscape. For example, a luxury car buyer may have higher expectations for the quality of the vehicle and the customer service they receive compared to someone buying a budget car. Similarly, customers may have different expectations for fast food restaurants compared to fine dining restaurants.

Understanding the zone of tolerance is crucial for businesses to ensure customer satisfaction. If a business falls below the minimum level of service or product quality that customers are willing to tolerate, it can result in dissatisfaction and loss of customers. On the other hand, if a business consistently exceeds customer expectations, it can lead to increased loyalty and positive word-of-mouth.

In conclusion, the zone of tolerance is the range of acceptable performance that customers are willing to accept, and it represents the degree to which customers recognize and are willing to accept variability in performance. It is essential for businesses to understand this concept to meet and exceed customer expectations and ensure customer satisfaction.

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Which of the following is an immeasurable cost associated with accidents in an organization?
A : Damage to work equipment
B : Reduced work group efficiency
C : Time lost because of faulty or offline equipment
D : Negative influence on employees group morale

Answers

The immeasurable cost associated with accidents in an organization is option D: Negative influence on employees' group morale, as it is difficult to quantify the impact on employees' emotional well-being and overall job satisfaction.

Immeasurable costs are those that cannot be quantified easily, and they may significantly impact an organization following an accident. Among the given options, A, B, and C represent costs that can be measured or quantified. For instance, damage to work equipment can be assessed in terms of repair or replacement expenses, reduced work group efficiency can be measured by comparing productivity levels before and after the accident, and time lost due to faulty or offline equipment can be quantified by calculating downtime.

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The EU is an economic bloc that eliminates tariffs and provides freedom of movement for all of the following EXCEPT​ ________.
A. goods
B. sovereignty
C. capital
D. persons
E. services

Answers

The EU is an economic bloc that eliminates tariffs and provides freedom of movement for goods, capital, persons, and services within its member states.

The answer to the question is B. sovereignty. Sovereignty refers to the independent authority of a state to govern itself without interference from other states. The EU is a supranational organization, meaning that it has authority above its member states in certain areas, such as trade and competition policy.

However, member states still retain their sovereignty in other areas, such as foreign policy and national defense. Therefore, the EU does not provide freedom of movement for sovereignty.

Overall, the EU has created a single market that promotes economic integration and cooperation among its member states, while respecting their individual sovereignty.

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a quality control process finds 34.8 defects for every 8,700 units of production. what percent of the production is defective?

Answers

The percent of production that is defective is 0.4%.

To find the percent of production that is defective, we need to convert the ratio of defects to units produced into a percentage.

First, we need to determine the fraction of units that are defective.

We can do this by dividing the number of defects (34.8) by the total number of units produced (8,700):
34.8 / 8,700 = 0.004

This means that 0.4% of the units produced are defective.

To convert this fraction into a percentage, we can multiply by 100:
0.004 * 100 = 0.4%

Therefore, the percentage of production that is defective is 0.4%.

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which of the following would be prohibited in a buyer agency agreement? unset starred question an automatic renewal date how the agent will be compensated the duties of the licensee to the buyer and buyer to the licensee the type of property a buyer wants to buy

Answers

The terms of any buyer agency agreement before signing it, and to ensure that it does not contain any provisions that are unfair or unreasonable.

None of the following options would be prohibited in a buyer agency agreement:

The duties of the licensee to the buyer and buyer to the licensee

The type of property a buyer wants to buy

An automatic renewal date would be prohibited in a buyer agency agreement. This is because an automatic renewal date could potentially bind the buyer to the agreement for a longer period than they intended or wanted to. Therefore, it is important for buyers to carefully review the terms of any buyer agency agreement before signing it, and to ensure that it does not contain any provisions that are unfair or unreasonable.

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