Depending on its mechanism of secretion and action, epinephrine can be Neurotransmitter, Hormone, and Gland. Epinephrine is a hormone and neurotransmitter that is found in both animals and humans.
It is also known as adrenaline, and it is secreted by the adrenal medulla, a part of the adrenal gland. It is released as a response to stress, fear, or excitement. Epinephrine works by stimulating the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the body’s fight-or-flight response. It increases heart rate and blood pressure, dilates airways, prepares the muscles for action, and increases the availability of glucose in the blood.
Epinephrine is also involved in the release of neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine and dopamine that can act on the brain to increase alertness and focus. It is also involved in the release of hormones such as glucagon and cortisol that can act on the body to increase energy levels.
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Depending on its mechanism of secretion and action, epinephrine can be which of the following? Select all that apply.
a)Electrical signal
b)Neurotransmitter
c)Target
d)Hormone
e)Gland
the public's ranking of nursing as the most ethical profession provides nurses with which type of power?
The public's ranking of nursing as the most ethical profession provides nurses with Referent.
Nurses are acknowledged to have a big effect on the overall populace but are taken into consideration not so good as medical doctors or taken into consideration to have a lower social popularity. in addition, the nursing career is viewed as an inferior career related to different fitness-associated professions, including medicine.
They include strategies geared toward whole populace corporations, families, or people. In any placing, the function of public fitness nurses focuses on the prevention of infection, harm or incapacity, the merchandising of fitness, and upkeep of the health of populations.
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to reduce older adults' risk of experiencing adverse drug effects or interactions, what action should the nurse prioritize?
The nanny should prioritize educating the aged grown-up about the specifics they're taking, also including implicit side goods and medicine relations.
This is especially important because aged grown-ups are more likely to witness adverse medicine goods or relations due to physiological changes that do with aging. The nanny should give information about the significance of taking specifics as specified, avoiding the use of over the counter specifics and herbal supplements without consulting a croaker, and understanding how to fete and respond to common adverse goods. also, the nanny should encourage the aged grown-up to keep a drug list that includes all tradition, over the counter, and supplement specifics, and to give this list to their healthcare provider at each visit. This list should also include information about any disinclinations or perceptivity. Eventually, the nanny should emphasize the significance of following up with the croaker for regular drug reviews.
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the nurse is reinforcing instructions to the mother following delivery regarding care of the episiotomy site to prevent infection. which statement by the mother indicates a need for further teaching?
The statement by the mother indicates a need for further teaching regarding care of the episiotomy site to prevent infection.
"I'll just wait until the bleeding stops before I start cleaning the area".After an episiotomy, it's important to clean the area regularly to prevent infection. The mother should be instructed to clean the area with warm water and mild soap after each bowel movement and to gently pat the area dry. If bleeding is present, the mother should be instructed to hold a clean pad against the area for about 20 minutes at a time, and to change the pad frequently to keep the area clean. If bleeding continues for more than 24 hours or if the bleeding becomes heavy, the mother should be instructed to contact her healthcare provider.
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the nurse is teaching a new mother the proper techniques for breastfeeding her newborn. which is a recommended guideline that should be implemented?
Bring the infant's lips up to the breast, wide open, to create a seal that covers the entire nipple and areola.
A new mother is being instructed by the nurse on how to properly breastfeed her child. The recommended practices that should be put into place is that mothers should wash their hands before each nursing session, but in most situations it is not required to wash the breast. The mother should next press the baby's nipple against his or her cheek to encourage mouth opening before bringing the child's lips close to the breast to create a seal around the entire nipple and areola. By sticking her finger inside the baby's mouth after the infant has finished eating, the mother can release the suction.
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which action would the nurse implement after identifying distention of the bladder in an ambulatory client with benign prostatic hyperplasia who reports his inability to void all night long?
Planning nursing care for patients with BPH involves a thorough evaluation of the medical history in all facets of symptomatology. The external genitalia and the abdomen should both be examined during a physical. Through nutrition counseling, weight loss, and glycemic management, the nurse's job can assist in addressing the adherence to lifestyle variables impacting BPH.
BPH, also known as benign prostatic hyperplasia, is a common cause of symptoms in the lower urinary system in males. Inhibited preprogrammed cell death (apoptosis), epithelial and stromal growth, or both can lead to cellular accumulation and gland enlargement. BPH is regarded as a typical aspect of male aging and is hormonally reliant on the generation of testosterone and dihydrotestosterone (DHT).
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a client with a fever was administered 650 mg acetaminophen orally at 0800. the nurse is aware that the half-life of acetaminophen is 2 hours. how much acetaminophen will be bioavailable at 1200? record your answer as a whole number. 41
Acetaminophen will be bioavailable at 1200 is 163 if a client with a fever was administered 650 mg acetaminophen orally at 0800. the nurse is aware that the half-life of acetaminophen is 2 hours.
Is acetaminophen and paracetamol same?Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic and antipyretic agent used to treat pain and fever. It is used as a single agent for mild to moderate pain and combined with an opioid analgesic for severe pain.
What is acetaminophen mainly used for?It relieves pain and fever. Acetaminophen can also be combined with other active ingredients in medicines that treat allergy, cough, colds, flu, and sleeplessness. In prescription medicines, acetaminophen is found with other active ingredients to treat moderate to severe pain.
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the nurse is providing immediate postoperative care to a client who underwent a right | pneumonectomy. in which position would the nurse place the client>
Nursing postoperative atelectasis prophylaxis has relied heavily on incentive spirometry.
What information would a client with respiratory conditions provide to the nurse?A focused respiratory system assessment includes asking the patient about any signs and symptoms of pulmonary disease, such as coughing and shortness of breath, as well as gathering subjective information about the patient's history of smoking, gathering information about the patient's and their family's medical history of pulmonary disease.
The Fowler's position, one of the most popular patient positions, improves respiration and offers greater surgical exposure. The Fowler's position carries some dangers and consequences, such as a reduced rate of blood return to the heart, which should be taken into account by the surgical team. arterial embolism
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the nurse is providing directions to a client about how to test a stool for occult blood. the nurse cautions that which could cause a false-negative result?
Ascorbic acid can interfere with occult blood testing results, resulting in false-negative results. False-positive results can be caused by colchicine and iodine.
Who is nurse?A nurse is someone who has been trained to care for people who are ill or injured. Nurses collaborate with doctors and other health care providers to treat patients and keep them fit and healthy. Nurses also assist with end-of-life care and grieving for other family members. A nurse's primary role is to care for patients by managing physical needs, preventing illness, and treating health conditions. Nurses must observe and monitor the patient while also documenting any relevant information to aid in treatment decision-making processes.
Here,
Ascorbic acid can interfere with the results of occult blood tests, resulting in false-negative results. Colchicine and iodine can cause false-positive results.
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ahima what is the purpose of the uniform hospital discharge data set? wheat healthcare organizations collect uhdds
The Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set( UHDDS) is a set of norms used to collect and report data on sanitarium discharges.
The purpose of the UHDDS is to help healthcare associations to more understand their case populations and the care they're furnishing. The UHDDS includes information on patient demographics, judgments , treatments, and issues. This data can be used to track patient care, ameliorate quality of care, and inform policy opinions. also, the data collected can be used to dissect health care costs and trends, as well as identify areas of enhancement. This data set provides an important resource for healthcare associations to measure and ameliorate their performance.
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a client's drug level has reached critical concentration. what action should the nurse perform?
When a client's drug level reaches a critical concentration, the nurse should look for evidence of the expected therapeutic effects.
Who is nurse?A nurse is someone who has been trained to care for people who are ill or injured. Nurses collaborate with doctors and other health care providers to treat patients and keep them fit and healthy. Nurses also assist with end-of-life care and grieving for other family members. A nurse's primary role is to care for patients by managing physical needs, preventing illness, and treating health conditions. Nurses must observe and monitor the patient while also documenting any relevant information to aid in treatment decision-making processes.
Here,
When a client's drug level reaches a critical level, the nurse should look for signs of the anticipated therapeutic effects.
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while assessing the airway patency of a client after a bomb blast, which intervention is most appropriate when the nurse suspects the client has severe brain injury and gives the client a score of 7 using the glasgow coma scale (gcs)?
While assessing a client's airway patency following a bomb blast, When the nurse feels the client has significant brain damage and gives the client a score of 7 on the Glasgow coma scale (gcs) preparing for endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation is perhaps most suitable.
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is utilized to describe the level of consciousness disruption in all sorts of acute care and trauma patients. This scale assesses the patient on her three dimensions of responsiveness.
Eye opening, motor and verbal responses.
For trauma, a Glasgow Coma Scale score (GCS) of 8 or less indicates the need for endotracheal intubation. Although some have advocated a similar approach for other causes of impaired consciousness, GCS alone cannot reliably predict loss of airway reflexes and risk of aspiration. Patients with head trauma and a low Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score on admission have a poor prognosis. A GCS score of 3 is the lowest possible and is associated with very high mortality, with some researchers suggesting no chance of survival.
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a normal fasting blood glucose level is ________ mg/dl.
A normal fasting blood glucose level is considered to be 70-100 mg/dl.
This normal fasting blood glucose level is the typical range of blood glucose level that is considered normal, healthy and not indicative of diabetes or pre-diabetes. However, it is important to note that the normal range may vary depending on the laboratory or facility that is performing the test and the method used for measurement. It's always best to consult with a healthcare provider for a more accurate interpretation of results. It's worth mentioning that glucose level may vary throughout the day, it can be higher after meals and lower when fasting, for example, blood glucose level can be between 80-130 mg/dL 2 hours after a meal. In some cases, a healthcare professional may perform a glucose tolerance test, which involves measuring the blood glucose level at different intervals after the person drinks a liquid containing a high level of glucose.
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which disadvantages are associated with the functional system of care delivery? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The disadvantages associated with the functional system of care delivery are communication, changes in clients status remain unnoticed and fragmentation.
The functional system of care delivery includes the working of the medical staff in isolation which refers to their reduction in communication and coordination. This method increases the duty pressure on the employee, which sometimes is seen as a burden. Health care system which comprises of nurses, doctors and medical staff must remain in contact mainly because this will cause share of labor and any kind of issue which arises in the hospital can be resorted through mutual discussion. The health care system is based on community welfare, control of diseases, regular trainings and feedbacks. If there is no communication, the main pillar of health care would become futile in serving their functional roles.
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which nursing intervention is the highestpriority for a client experiencing symptoms of premenstrual syndrome?
The loftiest precedence nursing intervention for a customer passing symptoms of premenstrual pattern is to give emotional support.
Pre-menstrual pattern can beget a wide range of physical and emotional symptoms that can be delicate to manage. It's important to hear to the customer’s the enterprises and validate their passions. The nanny should also give the education on the symptoms of premenstrual pattern and give advice on how to manage them. This could include life changes similar as reducing stress, getting enough sleep, eating a balanced diet, and exercising. The nanny should also have to advise the customer to talk to their croaker about the possibility of taking drug to help relieve symptoms.
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when completing a fecal occult blood test, a medical assistant is testing for which of the following?
Stool samples are examined in a lab using a procedure known as the fecal occult blood test (FOBT) to look for undetected blood (occult blood).
Occult blood in the stool may be a sign of colon cancer or polyps in the colon or rectum even though not all tumors or polyps bleed. Typically, occult blood is passed in such little amounts that the only method to identify it is with a fecal occult blood test. If a fecal occult blood test turns up blood, more testing may be necessary to determine the origin of the bleeding. The fecal occult blood test can only assess whether or not blood is present; it cannot indicate the likely sources of bleeding.
Look into possible causes of unexplained anemia. Anemia is a condition in which your healthy red blood cells are unable to provide adequate oxygen to your tissues. To determine whether internal bleeding, such as from a bleeding ulcer, is the root of your anemia, fecal occult blood tests may be performed.
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a nurse is preparing to administer cefaclor 400 mg po. the nurse reconstitutes a container of cefaclor powder to yield a final concentration of 187 mg/5 ml. how many ml should the nurse administer? (round the answer to the nearest tenth. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)
A nurse is preparing to administer cefaclor 400 mg po. The nurse re constitutes a container of cefaclor powder to yield a final concentration of 187 mg/5 ml. The nanny should give 10.7 mL.
What about cefaclor?Certain bacterial conditions, including pneumonia and other lower respiratory tract( lung) infections, as well as infections of the skin, cognizance, throat, tonsils, and urinary tract, are treated with cefaclor.Cefaclor belongs to the group of medicines known as cephalosporin antibiotics.Although they're chemically distinct, penicillin and cefaclor are linked.Cefaclor, generally known as Celcon, belongs to the Cephalosporin family of antibiotics, which is related to Penicillin in some ways.Cefaclor will beget an antipathetic response in anyone who has perceptivity to this group of antibiotics.This antibiotic of the cephalosporin class is used to treat a number of different bacterial infections( similar as middle observance, skin, urine and respiratory tract infections).It acts by precluding bacterial development.Only bacterial ails are treated by this antibiotic.There was no perceptible difference between the two tested antibiotics grounded on any of the criteria employed to estimate the outgrowth.Cefaclor and amoxicillin are set up to be inversely effective in treating bacterial pneumonia or bronchopneumonia in this disquisition.Cefaclor is a general cephalosporin antibiotic that's effective against a variety of bacterial ails.Learn more about cefaclor here:
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lisa is complaining of a very sore throat. upon examination, the doctor explained to her that the soft tissue masses located at the back of her throat are both swollen and bright red. these are known as:
Upon examination, the doctor explained to her that the soft tissue masses located at the back of her throat are both swollen and bright red.
B) Palatine tonsils
The lymphatic tissue that makes up the palatine tonsils, which are located at the back of the throat, is. They serve as a line of defense alongside the pharyngeal, tubal, and lingual tonsils against potential infections. The lymphatic tissue with an oval form known as the palatine tonsils is situated on either side of the throat's rear.
By opening their mouths and looking in the mirror, individuals can view their palatine tonsils. Typically, the palatine tonsils are meant when someone mentions tonsils
Even while they serve to defend the body, consequences like infection and swelling can have negative effects on health.
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Lisa is complaining of a very sore throat. Upon examination, the doctor explained to her that the soft tissue masses located at the back of her throat are both swollen and bright red. These are known as:
A. pharyngeal tonsils.
B. palatine tonsils.
C. lingual tonsils.
D. lymph nodes
a client has cholelithiasis with possible obstruction of the common bile duct. the nurse performs a nutritional assessment. which is the primary goal for this assessment?
The primary goal for the nutritional assessment is to check is the patient has deficiency of vitamins A, D, and K.
In brief:Bile helps in the absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins, that is vitamin A, D,K. Cholelithiasis limits flow of bile to the duodenum restricting the absorption of these vitamins. Thus checking the presence of fat souble vitamins in the body gives an indication if the patient is cholelithiastic.
What is nutritional assessment?A detailed evaluation of the nutritional status of an individual conducted by a medical professional to diagnose malnutrition and identify underlying pathologies is called nutritional assessment.
What is bile?Bile is a digestive fluid that is produced by the liver, move through the bile duct and is stored in the gall bladder.
What is vitamin?Vitamin is a carbon containing compound, that is, organic compound needed by the body as a nutrient.
What is cholelithiasis?It is the medical term for gall bladder stone formation.
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The primary goal for the nutritional assessment is to check is the patient has deficiency of vitamins A, D, and K.
In brief:
Bile helps in the absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins, that is vitamin A, D,K. Cholelithiasis limits flow of bile to the duodenum restricting the absorption of these vitamins. Thus checking the presence of fat soluble vitamins in the body gives an indication if the patient is cholelithiasis.
What is nutritional assessment?
A detailed evaluation of the nutritional status of an individual conducted by a medical professional to diagnose malnutrition and identify underlying pathologies is called nutritional assessment.
What is bile?
Bile is a digestive fluid that is produced by the liver, move through the bile duct and is stored in the gall bladder.
What is vitamin?
Vitamin is a carbon containing compound, that is, organic compound needed by the body as a nutrient.
What is cholelithiasis?
It is the medical term for gall bladder stone formation.
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which statement correctly characterizes the hospital core measures for patients with community-acquired pneumonia?
The correct option is D ; Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the bronchioles.
A cough (with or without phlegm production) that lasts more than 5 days and up to 3 or 4 weeks is the defining feature of acute bronchitis. The average cough lasts 18 days.
Bacteria can induce bronchitis in patients who have other health issues. The most prevalent pathogens are Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Bordetella pertussis.
Emphysema is a pathological condition that affects the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchiole. It is distinguished by aberrant permanent enlargement of lung air gaps with degradation of their walls and lack of elasticity, as well as deterioration of lung parenchyma.
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Full Question ;
Which statement correctly describes ventilation?
A. Cilia promote air expulsion on expiration.
B. Negative intrathoracic pressure allows air intake during inspiration.
C. Surfactant maintains the sterility of the lower airway.
D. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the bronchioles.
which group of the pediatric population is at a higher risk of developing respiratory complications upon administration of
Infants are at the higher risk of developing the respiratory complications upon administration .
Infants especially those born precociously, are at an increased threat of developing respiratory complications upon administration of certain specifics. This is due to the immature nature of their respiratory and cardiovascular systems, which aren't completely developed at birth. unseasonable babies are more prone to respiratory torture and may be more sensitive to certain specifics, similar as respiratory depressants or bronchodilators. Their immature lungs may not be suitable to reuse the drug as effectively as those of an aged child or grown-up, leading to an increased threat of respiratory complications. also, certain specifics can beget condensation of the airways, leading to difficulty in breathing. thus.
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a nurse working in the intensive care unit begins to realize the potential fire hazards in a hospital setting. when should the nurse demonstrate how to function during an emergency?
The nurse demonstrate function during an emergency to participate in regular emergency drills and training.
A nurse working in the intensive care unit should demonstrate how to function during an emergency as soon as possible and should also participate in regular emergency drills and training to ensure that they are prepared to respond appropriately in the event of a fire hazard. It is important for the nurse to report any potential fire hazards to their supervisor immediately, and to be familiar with the emergency plans and procedures of the hospital.
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the risk of infection when giving first aid care is low. using what reduces your risk even further? select 3 answers.
The risk of infection when giving first aid care is low, however using latex free disposable gloves, face shield and pocket mask reduces your risk even further.
When administering first aid, how can you prevent the spread of disease?
Do not wear gloves that are thin, damaged, or ripped. If you can, put on two sets of gloves. Sneeze or cough away from the victim's wounds. Use sterile dressings and bandages. In order to avoid contaminating wounds, clean them.
What lessens the chance of getting sick?Clean Your Hands If your hands are not obviously dirty, use soap and water or an alcohol-based hand rub (if hands are visibly soiled). Prior to invasive or aseptic treatments, following interaction with the patient, and each time there is a chance of coming into contact with body fluids, wash your hands.
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Complete question:
The risk of infection when giving first aid care is low. Using what reduces your risk even further? give any 3 options,
- latex free disposable gloves- face shield- pocket mask- noxious smell- person clutching their throatA doctor orally discusses a patients treatment regimen with a nurse who will be involved in the patients care. Was the HIPPA Privacy Rule followed?
Yes. The Privacy Rule allows covered health care providers to share protected health information for treatment purposes without patient authorization, as long as they use reasonable safeguards when doing so.
What type of information is protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule?The HIPAA Privacy Rule establishes national standards to protect individuals' medical records and other individually identifiable health information (collectively defined as “protected health information”) and applies to health plans, health care clearinghouses.
Is talking on the phone a HIPAA violation?Phone calls to patients are HIPAA compliant provided the nature of the phone call falls within the reasons for which a patient is considered to have given their consent. If a phone call to a patient relates to any other subject, the Covered Entity must have consent from the patient before making the call.
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A previously healthy 49-year-old woman is evaluated for a 3-day history of right arm weakness and difficulty speaking. Medical history is remarkable for hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Current medications are atorvastatin, lisinopril, and metformin.On physical examination, her temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), pulse is 90/min and regular, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 190/100 mm Hg. Neurologic examination shows right upper extremity weakness (4/5). Her speech is hesitant, and she has difficulty finding words.Magnetic resonance angiography shows 60% narrowing of both carotid arteries Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain shows a hemorrhagic infarct in the left parietal lobe.Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?a. Intravenous corticosteroidsb. Left carotid endarterectomyc. Left carotid stentd. Heparin and oral antiplatelet medicationsd. Control of hypertension
Hypercholesterolemia, and diabetes mellitus is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient is control of her hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and diabetes mellitus.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?This is the best way to reduce the risk of further strokes and other cardiovascular complications. Other medical treatments, such as intravenous corticosteroids, left carotid endarterectomy, left carotid stent, and heparin and oral antiplatelet medications, may be indicated depending on the patient's individual circumstances.The most appropriate initial treatment for this patient is to control her hypertension. Hypertension is a major risk factor for stroke, and this patient has a preexisting diagnosis of hypertension. Her current blood pressure reading of 190/100 mm Hg is significantly elevated and may be contributing to the narrowing of her carotid arteries.Intravenous corticosteroids, left carotid endarterectomy, and left carotid stent are all interventions used to treat stroke, but they are not indicated in this case as the patient has already suffered a hemorrhagic infarct.Control of hypertension with medications such as lisinopril, combined with heparin and oral antiplatelet medications, is the most appropriate initial step in this patient's care.It is also important to evaluate her other risk factors for stroke, such as diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, and lifestyle factors, and to take appropriate steps to manage these as well.To learn more about hypercholesterolemia, and diabetes mellitus refer to:
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a nurse is caring for an 81-year-old client in a long-term care facility who takes nine different medications each day. the client has a recent diagnosis of seizure disorder and has begun treatment with phenytoin (dilantin), a highly protein-bound drug. after 1 month of dilantin therapy, the client is still extremely drowsy and sluggish. the nurse determines that the prolonged adverse effect is likely due to:
The nurse asserts that the prolonged adverse effect is likely brought on by polypharmacy's reduction in the number of protein-binding sites.
Patients and the healthcare system suffer from polypharmacy's negative impacts. A few examples of these impacts include an increased risk of mortality, an increased risk of hospital readmissions, and an increased chance of adverse medication events. An inadequate nutritional status may result from drug therapy side effects such as appetite loss, digestive problems, and other abnormalities in physiological function. A possible connection between the surge in drug use and malnutrition is further supported by recent study. Frailty, many diseases, obesity, and deteriorating physical and mental health are risk factors for excessive polypharmacy. Along with these adverse effects, polypharmacy has been associated to anxiety or excitability, difficulties sleeping, discomfort, weakness, confusion, tremors, hallucinations, and feeling dizzy, suggesting a negative impact on quality of life in the aged population.
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The complete question is:
In a long-term care facility, a nurse is looking after an 81-year-old patient who takes nine different drugs daily. The patient has started receiving treatment with the highly protein-bound medication phenytoin (dilantin) after receiving a recent diagnosis of seizure disorder. The patient is still quite sleepy and lethargic despite taking dilantin for a month. According to the nurse, the extended negative affect is probably caused by:
1) The number of protein-binding sites is reduced by polypharmacy.
2) Harmful consequences that the client's medication intake may have.
3) The laxatives may interfere and make the medication therapy indicated for you more difficult.
4) Adherence is encouraged when the new medication is incorporated into the client's current schedule.
in a correlational study group of answer choices 2 variables are measured and 2 groups are compared 1 variable is measured and 2 groups are compared 2 variables are measured and there is only 1 group of participants 1 variable is measured and there is only 1 group of participants flag question: question 5
In a correlational study,2 variables are measured and there is the only one group of participants.
Correlation studies aim to examine whether there are differences in population characteristics based on whether subjects were exposed to an event of interest in a naturalistic setting. Insights from the correlation studies it can be used to determine relationships between prevalence and variables and predict events from current data and insights. Despite the many possible uses, caution should be exercised when using the methodology and data analysis. In general, the correlation tends to be used when there is no identified response variable. Measures the strength (qualitative) and direction of a linear relationship between two or more variables.
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a client with a family history of goiter is experiencing changes in voice and breathing. which diagnostic study would the nurse consider to be beneficial in confirming a diagnosis?
A individual study that the nanny should consider to be salutary in attesting a opinion for a customer with a family history of goiter is a thyroid ultrasound.
The ultrasound can descry changes in the size of the thyroid gland, as well as descry any nodes or excrescences that may be present. It's also a noninvasive procedure that can give the clinician with an accurate image of the case’s thyroid gland. The ultrasound can also be used to determine if a goiter is causing the case’s symptoms, similar as changes in voice and breathing. The ultrasound is also helpful for detecting any abnormalities in the case’s other endocrine glands, similar as the parathyroid glands, which can also beget analogous symptoms.
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a limitation in using the body mass index is that it a. is difficult to determine. b. is not accurate when used on women c. does not take body composition into account. d. is not a good indicator of health risks
Limitations in using the body mass index are c. does not take into account body composition.
What is body mass index?Body mass index is a measure used to determine a person's nutritional status obtained from a comparison of weight and height. BMI is calculated by dividing your weight (in kilograms) by your height (in meters squared). This BMI value cannot be used to measure body fat levels which are also important to know.
One of the limitations of using the body mass index is that it does not take into account body composition, namely that it cannot distinguish weight from fat and weight from muscle or bone. BMI also cannot identify the distribution of body fat.
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when a client is newly diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd), which action by the nurse has the highest priority?
The priority action taken by the nurse is to ask the client who has COPD to quit smoking.
The goal of COPD management is to improve the patient's functional status and quality of life by maintaining optimal lung function, ameliorating symptoms, and preventing recurrent exacerbations. A short-acting bronchodilator inhaler is the first line of therapy for most COPD patients. Bronchodilators are drugs that make breathing easier by widening and relaxing the airways. His two types of short-acting bronchodilator inhalers are:
Beta-2 agonist inhalers such as salbutamol or terbutaline. Nurses should educate patients/clients about when and where to seek help. If early symptoms appear, patients should call their primary care physician or pulmonologist for advice. Mild exacerbations can often be treated on an outpatient basis with increased inhaled drugs and oral corticosteroids.
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the primary health care provider instructs the client to increase their intake of seafood and - protein in the diet. which rationale would prompt this instruction?
The client is advised to increase the intake of seafood and protein in the diet due to the possible reason that client is suffering from hypothyroidism.
Proteins are the biopolymers that are made up of amino acids as the monomers. There are several types of proteins in the living body that perform different functions like: transport, enzymatic, structural, signaling, etc.
Hypothyroidism is the disease caused due to the less production of thyroid hormone by the thyroid glands. The general symptoms of hypothyroidism are: tiredness, constipation, weight gain, depression, muscle gain, etc. The low amounts of thyroid hormone lower down the body's metabolism.
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