A keystone species is an organism that helps define an entire ecosystem.
What do you mean by ecosystem?An ecosystem consists of all the organisms and the physical environment with which they interact. These biotic and abiotic components are linked together through nutrient cycles and energy flows.
Ecosystems are organized to better understand the frame of reference in which they are being studied. They are organized from smallest to largest; organism, population, community, ecosystem.
There are four basic components of an ecosystem: abiotic substances, producers, consumers, and reducers, which are also known as decomposers.
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what are 3 parts of a plant important for reproduction and describe their structure (e.g. color, size, shape, location)
It consists of three parts stigma, style, and ovary. The uppermost component or receptive tip of carpels in the gynoecium of a flower is called the stigma. The stigma and the ovary are connected by a long tube-like thin stalk. The ovary is a ductless reproductive gland that contains a large number of ovules.
What is reproduction in plants ?Asexual or sexual reproduction can be used to produce new progeny in plants, which is referred to as plant reproduction. Gametes are fused during sexual reproduction to create offspring, which are genetically distinct from either parent.
In order to produce offspring and maintain population levels, plants need to reproduce. Plant reproduction contributes to the maintenance of the ecosystem's birth rate. Reproduction facilitates the acquisition of new variants and adaptation to the environment with the most desirable characters.
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Which of the following techniques allows a grower to develop a tree from which many varieties of fruit could be harvested?
A. plant cloning
B. plant division
C. plant tissue culture
D. plant grafting
Answer: A)plant cloning
How does an increase in CO from 1.0 part per million (ppm) in a normal indoor atmosphere to 30 ppm in a home that has a malfunctioning or leaking furnace effect th O2 affinity of hemoglobin?
When there is increase in carbon monoxide (CO) increases in the indoor atmosphere, then the oxygen (O2) affinity to haemoglobim decreases.
Because it has been discovered that carbon monoxide has a higher affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen. When compared to oxygen, carbon monoxide has a 239 times greater affinity for haemoglobin. As a result, as the concentration of CO in an environment increases, the oxygen delivery by haemoglobin decreases.
The oxygen saturation of the molecule increases hemoglobin's binding affinity for oxygen, with the initial molecules of oxygen bound altering the shape of the binding sites for the following ones in a way that is advantageous for binding.
This positive cooperative binding is accomplished via steric conformational changes in the haemoglobin protein complex; that is, when one subunit protein in haemoglobin becomes oxygenated, a conformational or structural change in the entire complex is initiated, causing the other subunits to gain an increased affinity for oxygen. As a result, hemoglobin's oxygen binding curve is sigmoidal, or S-shaped, rather than the conventional hyperbolic curve associated with noncooperative binding.
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R. C. Punnett conducted experiments on the inheritance of traits in the sweet pea, Lathyrus odoratus. In one experiment, he crossed two different true-breeding sweet pea plant strains, one with erect petals and long pollen, and the other with hooded petals and round pollen. All the offspring (F1F1 generation) had erect petals and long pollen (Figure 1).
Next, Punnett allowed the F1F1 generation to self-fertilize and recorded the phenotypes of their offspring. The data are shown in Table 1.
Which of the following best explains how the sweet pea plants in the parental generation produce F1F1 offspring with 14 chromosomes?
During meiosis, cells go through meiosis I and meiosis II. This results in formation of cells with half the number of chromosomes as original cell. In meiosis II, sister chromatids separate and two cells combine during fertilization to produce offspring with 14 chromosomes.
How does sweet pea plants in the parental generation produce F1F1 offspring with 14 chromosomes?Homologous chromosomes, or pairs of chromosomes with genes for the same features, split from one another during meiosis I. Two cells with 7 chromosomes mix during fertilization, which is the process by which an egg and sperm combine to form a zygote, to create an offspring with 14 chromosomes.
These 14 chromosomes are made up of the combined contributions of the 7 chromosomes from the sperm and the 7 chromosomes from the egg. This procedure makes sure that the child inherits the entire genetic makeup of both parents.
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Where does the energy come from to attach the 3rd phosphate to ADP?
The energy generated by the slow breakdown of food molecules is used by cells during respiration to add a third phosphate to ADP.
ADP is transformed into ATP using energy produced by the catabolism of glucose. The third phosphate is momentarily connected to a substrate when ATP is employed in a reaction; this is the process known as phosphorylation.
The enzymes phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase aid in the insertion of a phosphate group to ADP by substrate-level phosphorylation during the payout step of glycolysis.
The third phosphate group undergoes hydrolysis, which releases energy. By recreating an ATP molecule after the release of the third phosphate group, the ensuing ADP can take up energy and reclaim the group, allowing ATP to store energy similarly to a rechargeable battery.
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succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. the reaction is inhibited by malonic acid, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted upon by succinate dehydrogenase. increasing the ratio of succinate to malonic acid reduces the inhibitory effect of malonic acid. a. identify the substrate, product and enzyme in this reaction. b. what is malonic acid's role with respect to succinate dehydrogenase?
A. succinate is the substrate and fumarate is the product. B. Malonic acid is a noncompetitive inhibitor to which blocks the binding of fumarate.
Pheochromocytomas (PHEOs) and paragangliomas (PGLs; extra-adrenal tumors) are rare neuroendocrine chromaffin cell tumors that have a 30%-35% hereditary component. Sucinate dehydrogenase subunit B (SDHB) germline mutations have a high metastatic potential and, as a result, a higher patient mortality. Succinate dehydrogenase is a unique enzyme that converts succinate to fumarate, linking the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. SDH mutations cause an accumulation of succinate in tumor tissue, which is associated with various metabolic disturbances and a shift to aerobic glycolysis. SDHB-related PHEOs/PGLs are mostly abdominal and have a high risk of metastasis.
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If Jack and Jill have a child with an AAa genotype, during which meiotic division, and in which parent, could nondisjunction have occurred
Meiosis I in the mother
Meiosis II in the mother
Meiosis I in the father
Meiosis II in the father
The correct answer is Meiosis II in the mother. Nondisjunction occurs when chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, resulting in the production of gametes with an abnormal number of chromosomes.
In this case, Jack and Jill's child has an AAa genotype, which means that one of the parents had an Aa genotype. Since the Aa genotype is caused by a mutation in the gene, it could only have occurred in the mother during Meiosis II, when the two copies of the gene were separated.
Meiosis is a type of cell division in which the number of chromosomes in the resulting cells is reduced by half. This process is necessary for sexual reproduction, as it produces gametes (sex cells) with only one set of chromosomes that can then fuse with another gamete to form a zygote with two sets of chromosomes.
During meiosis, the chromosomes are separated into two cells, with each cell receiving one copy of each chromosome. This process is divided into two stages:
Meiosis IMeiosis IILearn more about Meiosis II:
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T/F Blood clotting is an example of positive feedback since the action of the effector opposes that of the stimulus.
answer:
False. Blood clotting is an example of negative feedback since the effector's action opposes the stimulus, thereby reducing or reversing the original response.
Using what you've learned about DNA replication to clarify this model, label each DNA strand and each protein and indicate the overall direction of DNA replication.
DNA replication is the process by which cells copy their genetic material before cell division. The DNA double helix is unwound and separated by enzymes, and each strand serves as a template for synthesizing a new complementary strand.
In this model, the original DNA strand is labeled as the "parent strand," and the newly synthesized strand is labeled as the "daughter strand". The proteins involved in this process are helicases, which unwind the double helix and separate the strands, and primases and polymerases, which add new nucleotides to the template strands.
The direction of DNA replication is said to be semi-conservative, meaning that one strand of the original DNA molecule serves as a template for synthesizing a new complementary strand. The replication starts from the origin of replication and proceeds bidirectionally.
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the action that moves the scapula towards the head is called __________.
A. Protraction
B. Elevation
C. Medial rotation
D. Retraction
B. Elevation. Altitude or geopotential height is used to describe locations above the surface, such as those of flying aeroplanes or orbiting satellites, and depth is used to describe the rotation and locations below the surface.
Elevation is used to describe locations on the surface of the Earth. Scapular lateral rotation—also known as upward rotation—describes the rotation and depth of the scapula (scapulothoracic joint) so that the glenoid fossa faces upward. Push-ups that are performed fully and movements similar to a gymnastics planche both involve protraction. The scapulae migrate toward the spine and toward one another during retraction. By pressing the shoulder blades together, one can retract the location.
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Which statement defines genetic engineering?
the manipulation of an organism's genes using modern DNA technology
the manipulation of an organism's genes to give them a better chance of survival
the selection of organisms for traits
that make them more fit
the selection of organisms with desired traits for humans
In an interrupted mating experiment, the purpose of plating cells on a selective medium is _______.
A) to determine the genes present in the Hfr
B) to ensure that only recombinant genotypes are recovered
C) to eliminate all recipient cells
D) to ensure that conjugation has been completed
To ensure that only recombinant genotypes are recovered.
What is the aim of interrupted mating?Interrupted mating tests are done in order to trace the arrangement of genes on a chromosome. To solve these sorts of difficulties, it is necessary to understand how conjugation works and which cells can be donor cells. Interrupted mating studies employ the process of conjugation to map the order of genes on a bacterial chromosome. During conjugation, the donor cell’s chromosome is transported slowly via a sex pilus as a single linear strand until it enters the recipient cell. The chromosome has a distinct origin of transmission.
An interrupted gene (also known as a split gene) is one that has expressed parts of DNA called exons that are separated by unexpressed regions of DNA called introns (also called intervening regions). Exons offer coding instructions.
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The figure represents tRNA that recognizes and binds a particular amino acid (in this instance, phenylalanine). Which codon on the mRNA strand codes for this amino acid?
UGG
GUG
GUA
UUC
CAU
UUC codon on the mRNA strand codes for this amino acid.
The process by which ribosomes in the cytoplasm or endoplasmic reticulum generate proteins after the nucleus of the cell has converted DNA to RNA is known as translation. The entire process is referred to as gene expression.
Outside the nucleus, a ribosome decodes messenger RNA (mRNA) to produce a particular amino acid chain, or polypeptide. The polypeptide subsequently folds into an active protein that serves cellular activities. The ribosome aids decoding by inducing complementary tRNA anticodon sequences to bind to mRNA codons. As the mRNA goes through and is "read" by the ribosome, the tRNAs carry particular amino acids that are linked together to form a polypeptide.
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what is it about the process of meiosis that accounts for this difference, even though meiosis also includes two cell divisions?
In meiosis I, homologous pairs of cells exist and split into chromosomes before meiosis II. These chromosomes are subsequently divided into sister chromatids during meiosis II.
Crossing over or recombination of genetic material between chromosomal pairs occurs during meiosis I, but not during meiosis II.
Meiosis is the process by which a single cell divides twice to produce four cells with half the original genetic information. These are our sex cells, sperm in men and eggs in women.
One gamete from each parent unites to form a zygote during fertilization. Each gamete in meiosis has a unique set of DNA due to recombination and independent assortment. The resultant zygote has a one-of-a-kind mix of genes.
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Define these terms. Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. ResetHelp monad dyads crossing over chiasmata tetrads sister chromatids bivalents synapsis 1. is the point-by-point pairing of homologous chromosomes during prophase of meiosis I.
Lepotene, zygotene, pochytene required to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences.
Since pectins are one of the main components of the microspore walls involved in the formation of the exine ( Majewska-Sawka and Rodriguez-Garcia, 2006 ), we used immunocytochemistry to assay for the presence of methylesterified and unesterifi ed pectins in the cell wall during pollen development.
Microspore development in Annona species with monad and permanent tetrad pollen followed a similar sequence of events, but variations in the timing of the digestion of callose and cellulose was a starting point for the difference between further development of pollen as monads or as permanent tetrads.
A longer retention of callose at the microspore wall aperture was associated with the absence of exine at the aperture site in permanent tetrad pollen. Microspore development was followed by rotation and binding of the young microspores at the aperture sites
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Which of the following single-stranded DNA sequences is most likely to form a stem-loop structure?
a. ATAAGATGGGAGCATG
b. GCCCACGCCAGTAGTG
c. CAAGCGGCCGCGTTG
d. ACTTCTTCTCCGCTG
Of the four single-stranded DNA sequences provided, Sequence A (ATAAGATGGGAGCATG) is most likely to form a stem-loop structure.
The stem of the stem-loop structure is formed by base pairing between complementary nucleotides. This base pairing can occur between nucleotides that are adjacent to each other. In Sequence A, the complementary nucleotides A-T and G-C are adjacent to each other multiple times, which allows for the formation of a stem. For example, ATAAGAT and GGAGCAT form the stem of the stem-loop structure.
In contrast, Sequences B, C, and D lack adjacent complementary nucleotides that would form the stem. This makes it less likely that these sequences will form a stem-loop structure.
In summary, Sequence A is most likely to form a stem-loop structure due to the presence of adjacent complementary nucleotides that can form the stem. The other sequences are less likely to form a stem-loop structure due to the absence of complementary nucleotides that can form the stem.
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what would the discovery of a bacterial species that is a methanogen imply about the evolution of the methane-produce pathway
Since Euryarchaeota comprises all currently recognised methanogens, it is likely that this particular metabolic route originated in ancestors of Euryarchaeota species.
What would the discovery of a bacterial species that is a methanogen imply ?The two most common methods that methanogens make methane are either through the reduction of carbon dioxide with hydrogen or by the conversion of acetic acid to methane and carbon dioxide.
Methanogens are frequently utilised in anaerobic digesters to handle aqueous organic contaminants as well as wastewater. Industries have chosen methanogens because they can biomethanize wastewater during decomposition, making the process economical and sustainable.
They produce a lot of CO2, H2, and methane, the primary component of biogas, as they develop anaerobically on cellulose material. Methanogens are thus employed in the creation of biogas.
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how many weeks did it take to extinguish the fire in chernobyl
It take Two weeks to extinguish the fire in chernobyl.Ukraine's Chernobyl nuclear power station was the scene of a catastrophic nuclear disaster on April 26, 1986.
Two employees perished in the blasts of the greatest nuclear catastrophe in history, and at least 28 more perished from severe radiation exposure within months. Thousands of individuals would eventually start to exhibit health problems, including cancer, as a result of the fallout.The Chernobyl accident revealed the Soviet government's lack of openness to the Soviet people and the world community in addition to stoking anxieties about the risks of nuclear power. The meltdown and its consequences cost the Soviet Union billions in clean-up expenses, resulted in the loss of a major energy source, and significantly damaged national dignity.
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If a cell at metaphase of mitosis contains 20 sister chromatids, how many chromosomes will be present in a somatic cell?
If a cell at metaphase of mitosis contains 20 sister chromatids, ten chromosomes will be present in a somatic cell.
One of a chromosome's two identical halves that has undergone replication in order to facilitate cell division is referred to as a chromatid. The centromere, a constrictive area of the chromosome, serves as the connection between the two "sister" chromatids. Sister chromatids are pulled to opposing sides of the cell during cell division by spindle fibers that connect to the centromere. Soon after, the cell divides into two daughter cells, each of which has the same DNA. Replication of cells is crucial for growth and for replacing damaged, irreparable cells. The cells that are present when a cut heals on your skin are a good illustration of this.
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What is the name given to the division of the cytoplasm to form two separate daughter cells?
A single eukaryotic cell divides into two daughter cells through a process known as cytokinesis.
Cytoplasmic division starts during or after the last phases of nuclear division in mitosis and meiosis. The spindle apparatus divides and transfers duplicated chromatids into the cytoplasm of the separate daughter cells during cytokinesis. Thus, it guarantees that chromosome number and complement are preserved from one generation to the next and that, barring exceptional circumstances, the daughter cells will be functional copies of the parent cell. Each daughter cell enters the interphase of the cell cycle following the conclusion of telophase and cytokinesis. Different departures from the symmetrical cytokinesis process are required for specific tasks.
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true or false: no two individuals, except for identical twins, can be expected to have the same combination of blood types or antigens.
No two individuals, except for identical twins, can be expected to have the same combination of blood types or antigens. This is a true statement.
Due to the fact that they were made from the same fertilised egg, identical twins will always have the same blood type, however, fraternal twins may have a different blood type depending on the parents' compatibility.
Your multiples' zygosity can be ascertained with the help of their blood types. Except for a tiny handful of incredibly rare occurrences, monozygotic (identical) twins will have the same blood type. Different blood types or the same blood type may be present in dizygotic (fraternal) twins. The likelihood that twins with different blood types are dizygotic or fraternal increases as a result of this. The possibility of having fraternal or identical twins with the same blood type does exist, though.
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4. The diagram above shows the repeating groups of atoms that make up two samples. Both samples are gases at room temperature. Will the other properties of the samples likely be the same or different? (Examples of properties are smell, color, and the temperature at which a substance melts.)
Answer:
Both samples will be different
Explanation:
Because having different amounts of atoms will make a big impact
What conclusions can you draw about the role that the DMRT1 gene plays in chickens in contrast to the role the SRY gene plays in humans?
Answer:
In conclusion, the SRY gene has a similar function in humans as the DMRT1 gene in the formation of the male phenotypic in chickens. Though the two genes are on distinct chromosomes and may have various regulatory systems, they perform comparable roles in determining the male phenotype.
Explanation:
In chickens, the DMRT1 gene determines sex and is essential for the development of the male phenotypic. The embryonic gonad cells' activation of the DMRT1 gene results in the formation of the testes. The male reproductive system and the development of male-specific features like the comb and wattle are both regulated by the DMRT1 gene.
The SRY gene, on the other hand, is a sex-determining gene in humans and is essential for the development of the male phenotype. The SRY gene, which may be found on the Y chromosome, controls how the testes grow. It promotes the expression of additional genes involved in the growth and development of the male reproductive system, such as the AMH gene.
if meiosis halves the number of chromosomes in gametes, then how do cells return to normal chromosome number
The haploid gametes generated due to meiosis return back to their normal chromosome number after fertilization where a haploid male and a haploid female gamete fuse in order to produce the zygote that has the normal chromosome number.
Meiosis is the type of cell division where the parent cell divides to synthesized 4 daughter cells. This happens in two parts: meiosis I and meiosis II. The daughter cells produced have half the number of chromosomes than that of parent cell and therefore it is called reductional division.
Chromosome is the most compact form of genetic material that comprises of DNA and the histone proteins. Each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids.
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Seasonal variations in ocean temperatures can impact the populations of living organisms. if phytoplankton populations grow more quickly in cooler water, how would herbivorous fish be affected by the cooler seasons?
If phytoplankton populations grow more quickly in cooler water, then the herbivorous fishes will have abundant food resulting in an increase in their population.
Phytoplankton are the aquatic organisms that are autotrophic in nature. They can be found in both freshwater as well as marine water. These are one of the most important species of aquatic food chains as they form the first trophic level of most of the good chains.
Herbivorous are those animals that feed on plants and plant parts for their food and energy requirements. Since they cannot synthesize their own food, herbivorous animals belong to the category of heterotrophs.
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The formation of glucose-6-phosphate from glucose is an endergonic reaction and is coupled to which of the following reactions or pathways?
The hydrolysis of ATP.
Answer:
The formation of glucose-6-phosphate from glucose is an endergonic reaction and is coupled to the hydrolysis of ATP.
Explanation:
A crucial intermediary in the processes for the metabolism of glucose, including glycolysis and the pentose phosphate pathway, is glucose-6-phosphate. An energy input is necessary for the endergonic process that produces glucose-6-phosphate from glucose. The hydrolysis of ATP, which releases energy when its high-energy phosphate link is broken, supplies this energy. The hydrolysis of ATP releases energy that is utilized to promote the conversion of glucose into glucose-6-phosphate. Substrate-level phosphorylation is the name of this process.
In conclusion, the endergonic process of the production of glucose-6-phosphate from glucose is related to the hydrolysis of ATP, which supplies the energy required for this reaction to continue.
how does reproductive isolation differ in sympatric modes and allopatric modes of speciation?
In allopatric speciation, groups become reproductively isolated as well as diverge due to a geographical barrier. In sympatric speciation, reproductive isolation and divergence will occur without geographical barriers.
During the process of evolution, the formation of a new as well as distinct species is defined as speciation. New species will form by two major mechanisms viz sympatric speciation as well as allopatric speciation. Allopatric speciation is also termed as geographical speciation. The difference in the environmental factors will causes the change in an allopatric speciation. In sympatric speciation, the evolution of a new species will takes place from a single ancestral species.
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Not long after the factories became common, factory pollution darkened the trunks of trees surrounding the factories. what effect did this pollution have on the peppered moth population, which has members that are colored black as well as colored white?
you are in the forest and see a large, snarling, drooling grizzly bear running directly toward you. the adrenaline rush you feel is controlled by the question 26 options: a) sympathetic nervous system. b) parasympathetic nervous system. c) neurotransmitter dopamine. d) central nervous system.
you are in the forest and see a large, snarling, drooling grizzly bear running directly toward you. the adrenaline rush you feel is controlled by parasympathetic nervous system.
The autonomic nervous system includes your parasympathetic nervous system. It could be referred to as your "automatic" nervous system because it controls many functions that you do not have to think about. This can include, among other things, controlling your heart rate, blood pressure, digestion, urination, and sweating. The parasympathetic nervous system balances the sympathetic nervous system in your autonomic nervous system. While your sympathetic nervous system is in charge of your body's "fight or flight" response, your parasympathetic nervous system is in charge of your body's response when you're at rest.
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what type of fracture has occurred when the bone is bent and only partially broken?
Explanation:
Greenstick fracture – This is an incomplete fracture in which the bone is partially broken, partially bent; it is more common in children.
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