discuss the difference between physician-centric care and patient-centric care and why you think it is important. Reply to one other student's post.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

This borders on the ridiculous, as the title is an academic title that signifies achievement in a field of study; it is not a license. Doctoral degrees are awarded in just about every field of study, from astronomy to zoology. Physicians are awarded a doctor of medicine, dentists are awarded a doctor of dental science, and so it goes. In health care, there are dentists, psychologists, social workers, physical therapists, pharmacists, and yes, nurses too, with doctoral degrees. Nurses have been earning PhDs and EdDs (doctorates in education) and the DNSc (doctorate in nursing science) for years, and now there’s a new nursing doctorate degree—a DNP, doctor of nursing practice—that’s specific to nurses in clinical practice. They are still licensed as nurses, as that’s what they are.

This parochial thinking is held by those physicians (not all, but far too many) who still adhere to the traditional view that they, and they alone, know what’s best for patients and for health care; they’re in favor of teamwork, but only as long as the team recognizes that they are the leaders and decision makers.

Both the media and the health care system bear some responsibility for this. The system itself is physician-centric rather than patient-centric—hospital policies, practitioner admitting privileges, purchasing (especially in the OR), and scheduling have often developed around physician preferences; reimbursements almost always must go through physicians, whether or not they’re actually involved in the delivery of care.

Explanation:

didn't quite get what you wanted ,but hope this is good enough.


Related Questions

Mrs. Reynolds is in her Medicare initial coverage election period (ICEP) and the date of her entitlement to Part A and B has already occurred. Mrs. Reynolds has just signed up for a Medicare Advantage plan on the second of the month. She is leaving for vacation in two weeks and wants to know if her new coverage will start before she leaves. What should you tell her?

Answers

Explanation:

a. Typically, her coverage would begin on the first day of the next month, so she should not expect her coverage to begin before she leaves.

b. Typically, her coverage would begin 30 days after she submits the application form, so she should not expect the coverage to begin until after she leaves.

c. Coverage always begins on the first of July, or the first of January after a beneficiary enrolls, whichever comes first.

d. Typically, coverage is effective on the date that the beneficiary completes the application form, so her coverage will be in place before she leaves

A. She shouldn't expect her coverage to begin before she leaves the company, as her coverage usually begins on the first day of the following month.

b. Normally, her coverage starts 30 days after you submit her application, so you shouldn't expect it to start before your departure.

c. Coverage always begins on July 1st or January 1st, whichever comes first, after the beneficiary has registered.

d. Compensation usually begins on the day the beneficiary fills out the application, so compensation is provided prior to departure.

What is Medicare's initial coverage election period?

Generally, when you turn 65.

This is called your Initial Enrollment Period. It lasts for 7 months, starting 3 months before you turn 65, and ending 3 months after the month you turn 65.

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Explain why billing Medicare Part A for the listed service is or is not correct.
Summarize the types of services Medicare Part A reimburses.
Discuss the type of services Medicare Part B covers.

Answers

Answer:

a

Explanation:

because it's just Rudy's fine drums cm g

Part A is hospital coverage, while Part B is more for doctor's visits and other aspects of outpatient medical care. These plans aren't competitors, but instead are intended to complement each other to provide health coverage at a doctor's office and hospital.

What is meant by outpatient medical care?Outpatient care the kind that you don't have to stay in a hospital for can vary greatly. Other than an annual check-up or blood test, almost any other kind of care can be defined as outpatient. These may be diagnostic tests, treatments, or other types of procedures.

Part A is hospital coverage, while Part B is more for doctor's visits and other aspects of outpatient medical care. These plans aren't competitors, but instead are intended to complement each other to provide health coverage at a doctor's office and hospital.

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Describe the difference between research and quality improvement. Provide a workplace example where qualitative and quantitative research is applied and how it was used within your organization.

Answers

Research differs from Quality improvement in that research involves  the process of learning new ideas while Quality improvement involves making something better.

What the difference between research and quality improvement?

Research is the process of learning new ideas or establishing facts by careful studies and analysis,

Quality improvement is the process of making something better. Quality improvement usually involves doing research.

A food shop can conduct quantitative research by getting data of number of people who visit their shop to buy a new food product but can conduct qualitative research by asking the people how the feel about the new product.

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"I have the intelligence to do well on the test and have studied hard." This statement is an example of which of the following?
A.Meditation
B.Negative affirmation
C.Relaxation
D.Positive affirmation

Answers

Answer:

I will go for positive affirmation

I am glad I helped

I believe the answer would be D because the sentence sounds positive

Once a weakness is identified, what is the next step in behavior change?

Answers

Answer:

Make that weakness disappear and be stronger

Explanation:

Once a weakness is identified in behavior change, the next step is to set small, achievable goals. Therefore, option (e) is correct.

Breaking down the overall desired outcome into smaller, manageable steps allows individuals to track their progress and build momentum towards the larger goal. Setting small goals helps in creating a sense of accomplishment and motivation, as each milestone is achieved. It also provides a clear roadmap and direction for behavior change, making the process more manageable and less overwhelming.

As individuals achieve these smaller goals, they can gradually build confidence and work towards the ultimate objective of behavior change. Collecting information about health effects (b), setting overall outcomes (c), and tracking progress (d) are also essential steps in behavior change but typically come after setting small, achievable goals to ensure successful and sustainable change. Moving on to other goals (a) would be premature before addressing the identified weakness and making progress in behavior change. Therefore, option (e) is correct.

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Your question is incomplete but your full question was:

Once a weakness is identified, what is the next step in behavior change?

a. move on to other goals

b. collect information about health effects of current behavior

c. set overall outcomes

d. track progress

e. set small, achievable goals

Select the correct answer.
Which action can
trigger lactic acid fermentation in our bodies?
O A. drinking coffee
O B. reading a book
O C. running a marathon
O D.
sleeping
O E. watching a movie

Answers

The answer is Running a marathon

A surgeon performs a high thor Academy with a resection of a single lung segment on a 57-year-old who is currently a heavy smoker who had presented with the six month history of our shoulder pain the radius to the chest and apical longbiopsy confirm lung cancer with CPT and ICDCM codes are reported

Answers

The CPT codes and ICDCM codes are discussed below:

What do you mean by CPT codes?

Doctors and other healthcare workers can record medical services and procedures using the Current Procedural Terminology (PT®) codes to simplify reporting, improve accuracy, and boost efficiency.

CPT code 32484 is used.

Go to the section removal first, then search for lung. After that, since only one lung segment was removed, you should look up the code for "single segment." The CPT codes are updated annually, thus there is a possibility that this code may not match the most recent revision, albeit it is unlikely. The American Medical Association created the system, which uses codes that are always five digits long.

C34.10 is the ICD-10-CM code.

First, because this is lung cancer, choose Neoplasms (section C00-D49). Next, because this is lung cancer, search for "Malignant neoplasms of respiratory and intrathoracic organs" (section C30-C39). Continue to "Malignant neoplasm of bronchus and lung" (C34), which is the next section. The correct choice should be "Malignant neoplasm of upper lobe, unnamed bronchus or lung" because we are seeking for cancer in the lungs on the apical area from where the biopsy was done, without a specify of which lung (C34.10).

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Write a one page paper on the education and training for Clinicians.

Answers

The most crucial workers in the healthcare industry are medical clinicians. In the majority of healthcare systems, they are regarded as the primary healthcare providers. Reaching this standard is difficult or impossible in the US. It requires a lot of work.

What is the role of medical clinicians?

A clinician focuses on offering patients with various disorders direct care, diagnosis, and therapy. The primary responsibilities of a clinician include doing in-depth research and analysis, offering medical care through a variety of therapies, and enhancing patients' general health.

They should enroll in a four-year undergraduate program.

Following four years of medical school, a resident trainer will work for three to seven years. Following that, they may apply for a license and begin working.

They should participate in an ongoing medical education program to stay current on new developments. Both undergraduate students and recent grads must go through this training. It typically pertains to broad education. Ambulatory care training is available for students.

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A risk-based AML policy would allocate time and financial resources to all of the following EXCEPT:

Answers

A risk-based AML policy would allocate time and financial resources to all of the following except the insurance companies marketing programs.

AML : Anti-money laundering, commonly referred to as AML , is the execution of transactions with the ultimate goal of turning money received unlawfully into money earned legitimately. Even while your firm complies with the standards, this does not imply that your partners and business associates comply as well.

key pillers of AML are:

InternaL Pinternal controls

a designated BSA officer

ongoing training

independent testing

customer due diligence (CDD)

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Which of the following statements regarding the circulation of blood are true and which are false?

Answers

The statements regarding the circulation of blood are as follows:

Pulmonary circulation begins at the left atrium and ends at the right ventricle. (False)The systemic arteries begin as branches of the aorta. (True)The amount of blood that circulates through an organ increases as the organ becomes more metabolically active. (True)Systemic circulation begins at the left ventricle and ends at the right atrium. (True)The two caval veins drain blood from the body, except for the head. (False)Blood flows slows in capillaries but speeds up in veins. (True)Hepatic portal circulation enables the liver to store or modify substances in the blood coming from the digestive organs and spleen. (False)Blood in veins is kept moving by external forces as well as constriction of the veins themselves. (False)

What is Blood circulation?

Blood circulation may be defined as the physiological transportation methodology of arterial and/or venous blood through the vascular system and the heart chambers.

Therefore, each of the statements about blood circulation either true or false is described above.

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describe the relation between population and environment in five point.​

Answers

Definitions :

Population ÷

Population is the total number of people living in a particular place at a specific period of time.

Environment ÷

Environment is the sum of physical and biological factors that affect the survival, growth and development of Living Organism. And development is the positive and progressive change that is done to uplift the lifestyle of people of a particular place.

Relation :

If population grows in a particular area then it directly put effect on economy and environment of that country. Population and Environment are in the proportion of each otherPopulation, environment and development are interrelated with each other. Development is carried out by using the means and resources available in the nature and is done in the nature and where there is development, population is more. For example to construct a school the required materials are obtained from the environment and school is constructed in the environment and where there is the provision of education population would be more .

Like this way population environment and development are interrelated with each other.

What is the best approach when dealing with someone in anxiety level of an abusive situation

Answers

Understanding and identifying the symptoms of excessive worry and reason why they want to hurt you and discovering the best ways to support them are the first steps in helping someone with anxiety with an abusive nature.

Let us understand some ways to deal with someone of anxiety level of an abusive situation:

Keep your cool gently.work with a counselor.call a helpline or a neighborhood shelter.enlarge your network of supporters.Make an effort to keep conversations in public places.Think about why you want to keep in touch with this person.

So, you do not deserve this treatment. It is not your fault.

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In the popular model of communication known as the SMCR Model, what does
SMCR stand for?
1) sender, message, channel, revival
2) sender, message, communicator, receiver

3) sender, message, channel, receiver
4) sender, meaning, channel, DVD receiver

Answers

Answer:

Sender-Message-Channel-Receiver

1. Which of the following is not considered clinical information?
A. Advance directives B. Immunization records
C. Progress notes
D. Preventative service

Answers

Answer:C I think I dont know

Explanation:

Mrs. Andrews asked how a Private Fee - for - Service ( PFFS ) plan might affect her access to services since she receives some assistance for her health care costs from the State . What should you tell her ?​

Answers

You must tell her that a Private Fee-for-Service (PFFS) plan may affect her access to services to vary the provider's pay rates solely based on the provider's specialty or location or to increase usage of certain preventive or sorting

What is the Private Fee-For-Service (PFFS) plan?

A Private Fee-For-Service (PFFS) plan is a Medicare Advantage (MA) health plan offered by a state-licensed risk entity that has an annual contract with the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) to provide all your Medicare benefits, in addition to any additional benefits the company chooses to provide, to beneficiaries. The PFFS plan:

• Pays providers on a fee-for-service basis without putting providers at financial risk

• Vary provider payment rates solely based on provider specialty or location or to increase utilization of certain preventive or screening services

• Does not restrict participants' choice among providers legally authorized to provide services and accept the plan's payment terms and

• Does not allow the use of prior authorization or notification.

With this information, we can conclude that you must tell her that a Private Fee-for-Service (PFFS) plan may affect her access to services to vary the provider's pay rates solely based on the provider's specialty or location or to increase usage of certain preventive or sorting

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Answer:

d. Medicaid may provide additional benefits, but Medicaid will only pay for these services if they are furnished by Medicaid participating providers.

Explanation: Medicaid participants can only work with providers that work with medicaid.

The nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 250 mg IM to a client. Available is cephazolin powder 500 mg vial. The nurse reconstitutesthe powder by adding 2 sL of sterile liquid. to yield a final concentration of cefazolin 225 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer

Answers

The nurse should administer 1.1ml volume of cefazolin

How to calculate the volume of cefazolin the nurse administered?

The final concentration after reconstitution = 225 mg/ml

The nurse wants to administer 250 mg cefazolin IM.

Therefore, the volume administered = [tex]\frac{250 mg}{225 mg/ml}[/tex]

                                                              = [tex]\frac{250 mg * ml}{225 mg}[/tex]

                                                              = 1.1 ml

The nurse should administer 1.1ml volume of cefazolin.

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21
Quentin is practicing self-management for his health. What is MOST likely to be the FIRST step in this process?
OA. He should consult a physician.
He should talk with a friend.
OC.
B.Heshould monitor how he is feeling.
OD. He should make a plan to get active.

Answers

Answer:

he should monitor how he is feeling

One of Guy’s favorite athletes has recently tested positive for illegal drug use and has been banned from athletic competition. What are four possible side effects of drug abuse that might affect this athlete’s future levels of physical fitness?

Please help 30 points

Answers

Common Physical Side Effects of Drug Abuse:

Impaired coordination and balance Increased energy and alertness Increased heart rate, blood pressure and body temperature Nausea

While the changes that a person experiences during physical exercise are usually healthy, the physical side effects of drugs have the potential to be damaging and occasionally life-threatening. And when the effects of physical exercise and drug use are combined, the body can go into shock or shut down completely. If the person engages in especially demanding physical activities, such as those that require high levels of cardiac fitness, he puts himself in danger of causing permanent damage to his body.

Professional athletes are particularly prone to using drugs while participating in their sport.

These drugs, which are illegal to use in the United States and are banned in most sporting events, can cause severe health problems such as:

Heart problemsHigh blood pressureKidney DamageLiver disease, including cancer

One of your patients, 11-year-old Elizabeth, has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. She is feeling isolated and upset about the changes she is facing in her life. What are some ways you can help Elizabeth adjust to her diagnosis? What social options could you offer to Elizabeth to help her feel less isolated?

Answers

Answer:

Elizabeth can eat healthy foods such as vegetables and fruits and drink plenty of water. She can try to avoid sugar foods like sweets and sugar. She can feel less isolated by talking or spending time with family/ friends and sharing every single change she is facing in her life, so that they can help her feel better or/and even consult a doctor. Hope it helps!

There are four known types of somatotypes.
True
False

Answers

False, because there’s only ectomorph, mesomorph, and endomorph
False is correct. Mb if this is a late answer !
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