EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society, which means option D is correct.
EMS stands for Emergency Medical Services. These services began during the era of Civil War, when numerous people died due to lack of medical support or first aid. Its use was first seen in the accidental death and disability publication. Under this facility, quick redressal system, ambulance care, easy and safe transportation facilities, and medical assistance on the spot were to be ensured in case of any mishappening. With the advancements made in technology, better services could be provided. However, uniform laws were still not made and training personnel were not serious about their jobs.
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a child is scheduled for a tonsillectomy in the day-stay surgical unit. on the day following surgery, the mother calls the surgical unit and expresses concern because the child has a very bad mouth odor. the nurse should make which response to the mother?
The nurse should make a Presence of loose teeth response to the mother.
The surgical resection of the tonsils, which are two oval-shaped tissue pads located at the back of the throat, one on each side, is known as a tonsillectomy. When tonsils become infected and inflamed, a tonsillectomy was a standard treatment (tonsillitis).
For the first few days following a tonsillectomy, give your child tiny amounts of water (half a cup) every day during awake hours. Try cooling down with water, cordial, ice cubes, non-acidic fruit juices (like apple juice), soft drinks, and cordials first.
Excellent sources of liquids are water, apple juice, red wine, and Gatorade. Additionally, it is advisable to promote soft foods like ice cream, sorbet, yogurt, pudding, apple sauce, and jello.
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which information would the nurse include when teaching a patient who received 5-fluorouracil (5-fu) for the treatment of colorectal cancer regarding ways to prevent mucositis?
I will use mouthwash with alcohol to clean my mouth
Should I use alcohol to clean my mouth?When you put alcohol in your mouth in any form, it can be harmful to your dental health, especially if you do it more than twice a day. Rinsing with mouthwash containing ethanol, a colorless alcohol, for example, may increase your risk of oral cancer.
Many people prefer ethanol mouthwash over alcohol-free mouthwash because it has a cooling/burning sensation in the mouth that makes it feel squeaky clean. This feeling is caused by ethanol's drying impact. Furthermore, mouthwashes containing alcohol frequently contain chlorine, which kills germs but can discolor teeth. Long-term usage of alcohol-containing mouthwash can potentially change the way your taste buds work.
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louisa is a healthy 24-year-old woman that wants to donate blood today. her hemoglobin, temperature, blood pressure, and pulse are all within the acceptable limits for donating. she's in good health and not taking any medications. she recently divorced her spouse who was a hemophiliac that regularly received factor concentrates. can louisa donate blood today?
Yes, Louisa can donate blood today. The hemophilia status of her ex-spouse does not affect her eligibility to donate blood.
Can Louise give blood right now?Yes, Louisa can donate blood today as long as she meets the other requirements of being a suitable blood donor.She is a healthy 24-year-old woman whose hemoglobin, temperature, blood pressure, and pulse are all within the acceptable limits. She is not taking any medications and is in good health. Because her former spouse was a hemophiliac and regularly received factor concentrates, Louisa may need to provide additional information about the type of factor concentrates that were used.For example, if the factor concentrates were made from human blood, then Louisa would need to wait 12 months from the last time her spouse received the treatment before she would be eligible to donate. If the factor concentrates were not made from human blood, then Louisa would not need to wait 12 months before donating.However, in order to donate today, she should make sure to disclose this information to the blood donation center.The blood donation center may also ask her to provide additional information or documentation to support her eligibility to donate. Provided she meets all other requirements, Louisa should be able to donate blood today.To learnmore about The hemophilia status refer to:
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after completing radiation treatment for cancer, a client tells oncology nurse about an upcoming vacation to the beach to celebrate. what response by the nurse is the most appropriate for the client?
A patient informs the oncology nurse about a planned beach getaway to celebrate finishing radiation therapy for cancer. the nursing staff's reaction Avoid placing the radiation region in the direct path of the sun.
After radiation therapy is ended, the skin next to the radiation site is very sensitive to sunlight. The client should be warned by the nurse to stay out of the sun in this region. One year after the end of the therapy, this advice is still valid. The other assertions are incorrect. High doses of radiation are used in radiation therapy, also known as radiotherapy, as a cancer treatment to eradicate cancer cells and reduce tumour size. As with x-rays of your teeth or shattered bones, radiation is utilised at low levels in x-rays to view inside your body. External beam radiation and internal radiation treatment are the two primary forms of radiation therapy used to treat cancer.
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a 26-year-old woman comes to the clinic and asks for a pregnancy test because she thinks she might be pregnant. the nurse assesses for which presumptive signs of pregnancy? select all that apply.
It's best to make the appointment when you think you may be pregnant or at around 6-8 weeks into your pregnancy. Your first appointment may be with a midwife, your GP or at a clinic or hospital
which presumptive signs of pregnancy?
The most common early signs and symptoms of pregnancy might include:Missed period. If you're in your childbearing years and a week or more has passed without the start of an expected menstrual cycle, you might be pregnant. ...Tender, swollen breasts. ...Nausea with or without vomiting. ...Increased urination. ...Fatigue.Presumptive (subjective) signs of pregnancy refers to signs and symptoms that the mother can perceive that resemble pregnancy signs and symptoms. They often allude to a possible pregnancy, but should be further investigated as they could have many causes.Presumptive signs are signs of pregnancy that the woman reports to you and only she can experience them. Therefore, they are subjective and could be caused by something other than pregnancy. Probably signs are signs of pregnancy the nurse or doctor can observe and document.To learn more about signs pregency refers to:
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It is best to make the visit around 6 to 8 weeks into your pregnant or when you first suspect you are expecting. Probably signs are signs of pregnancy the nurse or doctor can observe and document.
Which presumptive signs of pregnancy?Pregnancy's most typical early signs and symptoms could include:
Missed periods,Increased urination,Fatigue.Presumptive (subjective) indications of pregnancy are those that the mother can detect and are similar to those of pregnancy. They frequently suggest a potential pregnancy, but they should be carefully examined because they could have a variety of causes.
Presumptive indicators are pregnancy symptoms that the lady relates to you but that only she can feel. As a result, they are arbitrary and might not be related to pregnancy.
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after a wound that did not heal correctly, a client cannot swallow any food because his esophagus has too much scar tissue to allow any passage through this tube. what is this called?
A patient cannot swallow any food because his esophagus has too much scar tissue to enable any passage through this tube after a wound that did not heal properly. This is referred to as stricture.
How is swallowing problem managed?Consider taking shorter, more frequent meals. Eat more slowly, properly chew your food, and cut it up into tiny pieces. There are products available to thicken drinks if you have trouble swallowing liquids. experimenting with various food textures to find which ones make you feel more uncomfortable.
A stricture's severity.Constipation, cramping, and stomach pain are signs of strictures. In severe situations, strictures can advance to the point of obstructing the entire intestine, which can cause nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention.
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12. What does an affix do in medical terminology?
O A. Attaches meaning at the front of a word
OB. Modifies the meaning of the root
C. Combines the root with a vowel
O D. Provides the core meaning of a word
An affix modifies the meaning of the root, in medical terminology, it is a prefix or suffix hence option b is correct.
How prefixes or suffixes are used in medical terminology?In medical terms, suffixes are always used at the end of the word, which describes the meaning of the word. The suffix which generally used to indicate a test, procedure, specialty, function, condition/disorder, or status, for example, “ectomy” means removal.
An affix can change the meaning of the root word, which is the central word, if the 'un' prefix is used in the 'happy' word it means not happy.
Therefore, modifying the meaning of the root is the correct option.
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a client with a gastrostomy tube (gt) receives a prescription for a 250 ml bolus feeding of glucerna 60% enteral formula. the nurse should dilute the full-strength formula with how many ml of water? (enter numeric value only).
Client with a gastrostomy tube (gt) receives a prescription for a 250 ml bolus feeding of glucerna 60% enteral formula, 320 ml is the total volume required at an hourly rate of 80, multiplied by four, Osmolite internal formula
Use the following calculation to determine how much Osmolite a client with a gastrostomy tube, the enteral formula has to be diluted to half strength: Desired strength/strength on hand x Volume = 50/100 x 320 = 160 ml.
Alternately, use proportion and ratio, such as Desired strength (1/2 = 1 part: 2 parts): Full strength volume: Total volume of desires is 1: 2: 2X Equals 320 ml of full strength Osmolite enteral formula, and X = 160 ml. 160 ml of the formula at full strength divided by the total amount of 320 ml results in 160 ml of water at half strength, or 50% concentration.
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the nurse has reinforced dietary instructions to the mother of a child with celiac disease. the nurse determines that the mother understands the dietary instructions if she indicates eliminating which products? select all that apply
She will have to eliminate the Oatmeal from her child diet.
A reaction to the protein gluten results in celiac disease, an inherited autoimmune condition. Your immune system produces antibodies against gluten when gluten is present in your digestive system.
These antibodies harm the small intestine's lining (the mucosa). Nutritional deficiencies result from the small intestine's damaged mucosa's reduced capacity to absorb nutrients in the food.
Gluten is a protein present in wheat that causes patients with celiac disease to develop an immune reaction that assaults their small intestine. The little fingerlike projections called villi that border the small intestine and aid in nutrient absorption are damaged as a result of these attacks. The hereditary nature of celiac disease means that runs in families.
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the nurse is assessing a client bladder cancer who has a cystectomy and creation of a ureterostomy. which statement by the client indicates the need for more education about urinary stoma care?
"I empty the urinary collection bag when it is two-thirds full."
This statement indicates the need for more education about urinary stoma care because it is not safe to wait until the bag is two-thirds full to empty it. The bag should be emptied as soon as it is one-third to one-half full in order to prevent the bag from becoming too heavy and causing discomfort or pain, and to reduce the risk of leakage and infection. The other three statements indicate that the client understands proper stoma care.
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Complete question - The nurse is assessing a client who has a new ureterostomy. Which statement by the client indicates the need for more education about urinary stoma care?
"I change my pouch every week."
"I change the appliance in the morning."
"I empty the urinary collection bag when it is two-thirds full."
"When I'm in the shower I direct the flow of water away from my stoma."
a patient has swelling and deformity to the wrist. after splinting, in which position should the hand be placed?
Patient with swelling and deformity to wrist after splinting should place this hand in position of fingers curled inward.
One of the body areas that gets splinted the most is the wrist, typically following surgery or injury. In order to promote optimal healing, lessen pain, and maintain alignment, wrist splints offer tight support. Volar, thumb spica, and sugar tong are the three most popular varieties of wrist splints, and each has a specific use.
Hand and wrist splints are designed to protect and support painful, swollen or weak joints and their surrounding structures by making sure your hand and wrist are positioned correctly. Splints can be used for joints affected by arthritis or for other conditions, such as carpal tunnel syndrome.
There are two main types of splint:
splints used while resting the joints of the hand and wristsplints used to support the hand and wrist while working.When you're resting, a resting splint holds your hand and wrist in the ideal position. It can aid in easing pain and swelling.
Resting splints are typically custom-made for you by a physiotherapist, occupational therapist, or orthotist. They are typically constructed of molded thermoplastic and include Velcro fastening straps.
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a nurse is on trial for failure to monitor a client's neurological status and blood sugar after administering regular insulin. with what has the nurse likely been charged?
Studies consistently show that the more frequently a person checks his or her blood glucose, the lower his or her risk of hypoglycemia, because when blood glucose levels drop, it is possible to treat it before it becomes too low.
What is hypoglycemia?Hypoglycemia occurs when your blood sugar (glucose) level falls below the normal range. Taking too much insulin or diabetes medication is a common cause of diabetic hypoglycemia. Not getting enough nutrients. Putting off or skipping a meal or snack.Hypoglycemia is a potentially fatal condition, but it is preventable. If severe hypoglycemia occurs, immediate action is required. If not, it can result in death.Severe stress can cause adrenal fatigue, which can lead to hypoglycemia. This is due to the fact that several adrenal hormones, such as cortisol, epinephrine, and norepinephrine, play important roles in the regulation of your body's blood sugar levels.To learn more hypoglycemia refer to :
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which pain-related clinical manifestation would the nurse expect in a client who had | received a diagnosis of a peptic ulcer?
Epigastric pain-related clinical manifestation would the nurse expect in a client who had received a diagnosis of a peptic ulcer.
The most typical sign of both duodenal ulcers and gastric ulcers is epigastric pain. It is characterised by a nagging or stinging feeling and typically develops after food a stomach ulcer, right away as well as a duodenal ulcer, two to three hours later.
An ulcer on the interior of your stomach, small intestine, or oesophagus is referred to as a peptic ulcer. Gastric ulcer refers to a peptic ulcer in the tummy. A peptic ulcer that appears in the primary section of the small intestine is called a duodenal ulcer (duodenum). A central belly discomfort that is stinging or nibbling is the most typical sign of a stomach ulcer (abdomen).
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a patient with an osteoporotic vertebral fracture is prescribed raloxifene. which information would the nurse include in the assessment of this patient?
In this patient's evaluation, the nurse used Check for a thromboembolic venous history.
What is an osteoporotic?In the management of osteoporotic vertebral fracture, raloxifene (Evista), an estrogen agonist, is frequently employed. Due to the drug's increased risk of VTE during the first four months of treatment, it is not prescribed to individuals who have a history of venous thromboembolism (VTE). an illness that causes bones to deteriorate and become fragile.Bone tissue is continually taken up by the body and replaced. Osteoporosis is characterized by a failure of new bone formation to keep up with bone loss.Prior to a bone fracture, many patients exhibit no symptoms. Medication, a nutritious diet, and weight-bearing exercise are all part of the treatment plan to either stop bone loss or strengthen existing brittle bones.Osteoporosis is a disease that makes bones more brittle and prone to breaking.To learn more about osteoporotic refer to:
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1. describe the major trends in the evolution of health care services in the united states over the past 100 years.
Medicine, gadgets, procedures, tests, and imaging equipment are only a few examples of new and developing technology that have altered health service models and settings.
People use health care services for a variety of reasons, including the treatment of diseases and other health conditions, the repair of breaks and tears, the prevention or postponement of future health care issues, the reduction of pain and improvement of quality of life, and occasionally just to learn about their health status and prognosis.
The way that people use healthcare services might be acceptable or unsuitable, high-quality or low-quality, expensive or affordable.
Even in the relatively short time of the last hundred years, the health care delivery system of today has undergone significant change. Drugs, tests, and imaging equipment are examples of new and emerging technologies that have altered the way care is delivered and the settings in which it is given.
The development of noninvasive or minimally invasive procedures, together with advancements in anesthetic and analgesia, have all had an impact on the growth of ambulatory surgery. Procedures that once called for a few weeks of recuperation now only take a few days. Although typically at higher costs or requiring more medical professionals to prescribe and monitor the effects of the treatments, new pharmaceuticals can treat or prolong the course of disease.
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the parents of an infant boy ask the nurse why their son was born with a cleft lip and palate. the nurse responds that cleft lip and palate are defects that are caused by many factors. the defect may also be caused by teratogens. which teratogens can cause cleft lip and palate?
Answer:
Alcohol, cigarettes and recreational drugs are known teratogens.
Explanation:
Alcohol affects the fetus's central nervous system.
Smoking―Women who smoke during pregnancy are more likely to have a baby with an orofacial cleft than women who do not smoke.
Use of certain medicines―Women who used certain medicines to treat epilepsy, such as topiramate or valproic acid, during the first trimester (the first 3 months) of pregnancy have an increased risk of having a baby with cleft lip with or without cleft palate, compared to women who didn’t take these medicines.
truue/falsee. A new drug has been formulated which is intended to inhibit ulcer formation by absorbing excess stomach acid. However, some researchers predict that the resulting reduced levels of stomach acid will interfere with the stomach's ability to break down food, and the body will compensate by producing more stomach acid.
A new drug has been formulated which is intended to inhibit ulcer formation by absorbing excess stomach acid. The given statement is true.
What happens when the acid of the stomach reduces?Reduced levels of stomach acid will interfere with the stomach's ability to break down food, and the body will compensate by producing more stomach acid.
The stomach is part of the gastrointestinal tract. The gastrointestinal tract runs from the mouth to the small intestine. A new drug has been formulated which is intended to inhibit ulcer formation by absorbing excess stomach acid.
Therefore, A new drug has been formulated which is intended to inhibit ulcer formation by absorbing excess stomach acid. The given statement is true.
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which instruction would the nurse provide a client prescribed oral extended-release - ciprofloxacin therapy for a urinary tract infection> |
If a patient has a urinary tract infection and is receiving oral extended-release ciprofloxacin therapy, the nurse should advise them to avoid taking the medication right after an antacid.
Any region of the urinary system can become infected, which is known as a urinary tract infection (UTI). The bladder, urethra, ureters, and kidneys make up the urinary system. The bladder and urethra are the parts of the lower urinary tract that are most commonly infected. Women are more likely than men to experience a UTI. A bladder-specific infection may be uncomfortable and unpleasant. However, if a UTI spreads to the kidneys, major health issues may occur.
A fluoroquinolone antibiotic with a new oral formulation called ciprofloxacin extended release (XR) that maintains therapeutic serum levels of the medication while allowing once-daily use. Ciprofloxacin XR 500 mg once daily had a higher maximum plasma concentration (Cmax) than ciprofloxacin immediate release 250 mg twice daily, while ciprofloxacin XR 1000 mg once daily had a higher Cmax than ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily. In healthy men, there was no buildup of ciprofloxacin XR at steady state, and every other pharmacokinetic parameter was consistent with that of the formulation that releases medication right away. At the test-of-cure (TOC) visit, the rates of persistence or new infection were comparable in patients with uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI) who received ciprofloxacin XR compared to those who received immediate-release ciprofloxacin.
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a patient is seen in the clinic for patches of hair loss. the provider notes several well-demarcated patches on the scalp and eyebrows without areas of inflammation and several hairs within the patch with thinner shafts near the scalp. based on these findings, which type of alopecia is most likely?
Alopecia areata has inflammation and several hairs within the patch with thinner shafts near the scalp
What is Alopecia areata?In alopecia areata, the immune system mistakenly attacks hair follicles, causing inflammation. Researchers do not fully understand what causes the immune attack on hair follicles, but they believe that both genetic and environmental (non-genetic) factors play a roleAlopecia areata cannot be cured; however, it can be treated and the hair can grow back. In many cases, alopecia is treated with drugs that are used for other conditions. Treatment options for alopecia areata include: Corticosteroids: anti-inflammatory drugs that are prescribed for autoimmune diseasesAlopecia areata isn't usually a serious medical condition, but it can cause a lot of anxiety and sadness. Support groups are out there to help you deal with the psychological effects of the condition. If you lose all your hair, it could grow backTo learn more about Alopecia areata refers to:
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a low-sodium diet has been prescribed for a client with hypertension. which food selected from the menu by the client indicates an understanding of this diet
A customer with hypertension has been advised to follow a low-sodium diet. if the client choose any of the following from the menu, it would show that they are familiar with the diet: roast turkey
Describe hypertension.High blood pressure, often known as hypertension, is pressure in the arteries that is greater than normal. Your blood pressure alterations are influenced by your regular activities. If blood pressure measurements are often over normal, hypertension may be identified (or hypertension). a condition in which there is too much blood pressure exerted on the artery walls.High blood pressure is commonly defined as a reading above 140/90, while severe hypertension is defined as a reading over 180/120.High blood pressure frequently has no symptoms. If left untreated, it may eventually result in health issues including heart disease and stroke.It is possible to reduce blood pressure by eating less salt, exercising frequently, and using medication.To learn more about hypertension refer to:
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an older client with advanced alzheimer's disease is placed in balanced suspension traction, and the primary health care provider expects to internally fixate the client's femur in 1 week. based on this information, the nurse determines that the priority relates to addressing which client problem?
The priority for the older client with advanced Alzheimer's disease is to address the client's orthopedic problem, which is a broken femur that needs internal fixation in one week.
What is Alzheimer disease?The disease starts with mild memory loss and can eventually lead to the inability to carry out daily activities. The exact cause of Alzheimer's is not known, but risk factors include age, genetics, and lifestyle. Symptoms include difficulty remembering recent events, problems with language, disorientation, mood swings, and loss of motivation. There is no cure for Alzheimer's, but treatments can help to manage symptoms and improve quality of life. These include medications, therapy, and support groups. It is important for individuals with Alzheimer's to have a support system in place, as well as a plan for their care as the disease progresses.To learn more about Alzheimer refer:
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a client reports a burning sensation when urinating for the first time following the removal of an indwelling urinary catheter. in this situation, what would be the nurse's intervention?
A client reports a burning sensation when urinating for the first time following the removal of an indwelling urinary catheter. In this situation, the nurse's intervention is to Inform the client that this is normal for the first few voids.
How to prevent burning sensation?Pain that isn't dull, stabbing, or aching is known as a scorching sensation. Nerve disorders may be the cause of a burning discomfort. There are, however, a lot of additional potential causes. It's possible for injuries, infections, and autoimmune conditions to produce nerve damage and, in some circumstances, nerve pain.The words dysesthesia, which imply "abnormal sensation," are derived from two old Greek words. It may result from a stroke, carpal tunnel syndrome, or a number of other neurological conditions. 12–28% of MS patients experience the throbbing, tingling, or agonising discomfort of dysesthesia, according to study (MS).The neurons that transmit signals from the brain to the body "short circuit," causing neuropathic pain. MS damage. These agonising feelings have a scorching, piercing, sharp, and squeezing sensation. Both acute and persistent neuropathic pain are a possibility in MS.To learn more about burning sensation refer to:
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patients who have an understanding of the medical benefits of an imaging procedure because they received factual information about the study before having the examination are more likely to: group of answer choices assume a small risk of biologic damage but not overcome any radiation phobia they may have. cancel their scheduled procedure because they are not willing to assume a small risk of biologic damage. overcome any radiation phobia but not be willing to assume a small risk of possible biologic damage. overcome any radiation phobia and be willing to assume a small risk of possible biologic damage.
You must get over your fear of radiation and agree to take on a minor risk of potential biologic harm.
Why is the idea of radiation shielding so crucial in medical imaging? You must get over your fear of radiation and agree to take on a minor risk of potential biologic harm.In order to lessen the detrimental effects of ionizing radiation, radiation protection tries to limit unnecessarily high levels of radiation exposure.Ionizing radiation is now an unavoidable instrument in the area of medicine, utilized for both the diagnosis and treatment of a wide range of illnesses.The ALARA approach offers a way to compare the radiation doses utilized for distinct imaging procedures at multiple healthcare facilities in a given location.The principal regulating parameter of exposure and density is milliampere seconds (mAs). The radiograph's image receptor exposure and film density are both improved by increasing the amount of x-ray photons produced.To learn more about radiation refer
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The correct answer is: Overcome any radiation phobia and be willing to assume a small risk of possible biologic damage.
What is biologic damage?Biologic damage is the destruction of living organisms and their habitats due to the release of pollutants and other environmental disasters. These pollutants can include air and water pollutants, chemicals, radiation, and noise. Biologic damage can have far-reaching health and economic impacts, as well as cause environmental degradation.
Patients who have an understanding of the medical benefits of an imaging procedure are more likely to be willing to assume a small risk of possible biologic damage in order to receive the benefits of the study. By having a clear understanding of the medical benefits of the imaging procedure, patients are more likely to overcome any radiation phobia they may have and be willing to take the risk.
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a nurse wants to do a study on a particular group of clients. in keeping with the mandates of the belmont report, why does the nurse need to get permission from the institutional review board (irb)?
Institutional Review Boards (IRBs) are mandated by the federal government and responsible for reviewing research involving human subjects to ensure that the proposed protocol meets appropriate ethical guidelines before subjects are enrolled in the study.
What is the importance of IRB in research?The road to current regulation and ethical considerations has been long and arduous. The developed system minimizes the risk of unethical behavior and serious adverse events, but is not foolproof. Understanding how we arrived at the current approach and analyzing some of the ethical fallacies that have guided this course support efforts to continually re-evaluate the guidelines that will help us to improve the safety of subjects willing to participate in research activities.
What is the Belmont Report?In 1976, the Commission published the Belmont Report, based on nearly four years of monthly discussions and his four days of intensive deliberation. This report identifies basic ethical principles and guidelines that address ethical issues arising from the conduct of uncovered research in human subjects.
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the nurse educator is providing an in-service education to the nursing staff regarding transcultural nursing care. a staff member asks the nurse educator to describe the concept of acculturation. which response is appropriate?
The nurse should respond to a staff member who asks the nurse educator to define the term "acculturation" by stating that it is the process of assimilating into a new or changing environment.
Acculturation is a method which can be defined in way where a person or people try to incorporate a foreign or different cultures and traditions into an existing culture.
It can also be observed as the process which involved the adopting aspects of a different culture and incorporating them into to practice in one's own culture. Acculturation can be understood as a practice in some religions like the aspects of the adoption in the Roman culture into practice in countries where such Religious bodies are spreading to.
Culture is known to be composed of the elements like the values, beliefs, behaviors, attitudes, assumptions, roles. Acculturation is the method where a person acquires elements of a different culture, and incorporate those to his/her own culture.
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The complete question is:
The nurse educator is providing in-service education to the nursing staff regarding transcultural nursing care; a staff member asks the nurse educator to describe the concept of acculturation. The nurse educator should make which most appropriate response?
1. "It is a process of learning a different culture to adapt to a new or changing environment."
2. "It is a subjective perspective of the person's heritage and a sense of belonging to a group."
3. "It is a group of individuals in a society who are culturally distinct and have a unique identity."
4. "It is a group that shares some of the characteristics of the larger population group of which it is a part."
which assessment is the nurse likely to note for a patient who is being admitted for short-term effects of stress?
The assessment is the nurse likely to note for a patient who is being admitted for short-term effects of stress is to support him and be a good listener.
nurse should assess a patient with his needs which could be either listening to him or taking care of him.
people with acute stress often have difficulty trusting people and nurse should make them feel comfortable around them and the environment.
This will help him make ease at the new environment also adapt well to his treatment, medications and healthy lifestyle should be provided by the nurse.
optimistic environment is also a need for this condition.
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true/false. Pregnant women, fetuses, and neonates are often considered vulnerable categories of subjects. Additional protections are provided through regulation, however, the protections are meant to be inclusive and not exclusive of pregnant women in research.
Pregnant women, fetuses, and neonates are often considered vulnerable categories of subjects. Additional protections are provided through regulation, however, the protections are meant to be inclusive and not exclusive of pregnant women in research is true statement.
Why are research studies of pregnant women thought to be vulnerable?The main reason pregnant women are viewed as a vulnerable group is the presence of a foetus, a third person who has a special and inextricable bond with the mother and who is potentially impacted by the research but who is unable to provide permission.Conclusions: Pregnant women are only potentially susceptible inasmuch as they are exposed to increased hazards due to a lack of scientific information.Only if all of the conditions for the research are satisfied (see explanation of conditions below), together with the basic requirements for approval, would the IRB accept research involving pregnant people or foetuses.To learn more about vulnerable categories refer to:
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a patient has a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 30mmhg. what assessment finding by the healthcare professional would be most consistent with this reading?
The assessment finding by the healthcare professional would be most consistent with this reading is Pink, frothy sputum
What is pulmonary capillary wedge?A combined measurement of the left side of the heart's compliance and the pulmonary circulation is the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure. A number of diagnostic contexts can benefit from PCWP assessment. The pulmonary wedge pressure, also known as the pulmonary arterial wedge pressure, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure, or cross-sectional pressure, is the pressure obtained by inserting a pulmonary artery catheter with an inflated balloon into a small pulmonary arterial branch.At a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of 20 mmHg, pulmonary edoema typically starts to manifest. Dyspnea, hypoxemia, and increased strain of breathing are symptoms of pulmonary edoema. Physical examination may indicate ventricular dilatation, inspiratory crackles (rales), dullness to percussion over the lung bases, and other symptoms (S3 gallop and cardiomegaly). Pink, foamy sputum is spat during episodes of severe edoema, hypoxemia intensifies, and hypoventilation with hypercapnia may occur. Breathing normally is eupnea. Rhonchi are low-pitched, rumbling sounds made by the lungs when airflow is disturbed because of a blockage or secretions in the major airways.To learn more about pulmonary capillary wedge refer to:
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a prenatal client has acquired the sexually transmitted infection condyloma acuminatum (human papillomavirus). when assisting in planning care, which treatment would the nurse consider to be safe for this client?
Condyloma acuminatum, a sexually transmitted infection, has been contracted by a pregnant customer. The nurse would consider laser therapy to be safe for this client while aiding in care planning.
A powerful light beam is used in laser therapy to burn, cut, or otherwise damage tissue. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation is referred to as LASER. For instance, an endoscope must first be put into the body to inspect the tumour before laser treatment may be used to cure the tumour. The tumour is then targeted by the laser, and focused light beams are employed to either eliminate or reduce the tumour. The laser is used to treat the skin directly in cosmetic procedures. In order to eliminate or eradicate cancer and aberrant cells that have the potential to become cancer, laser treatment employs an intense, focused beam of light.
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midazolam is frequently used as an index drug for assessment of drug-drug interactions (ddis). this is because it:
Midazolam is frequently used as an index drug for assessment of drug-drug interactions (ddis). this is because it is sensitive to CYP3A substrate and is therefore used in drug drug interactions.
Midazolam is commonly used as a benzodiazepine.
Midazolam is used for sedation to cure headaches problems and give relief and also used before and after surgery to cure pain and gives relief in the pain caused.
As this drug is much sedative and only should be used by the doctors.
Drug Drug interaction is based on induction and inhibition of several CYP isoforms and midazolam is used for this.
Midazolam is also a strong inhibitor of CYP3A4.
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