explain how are frequency, wavelength, energy, and penetrating ability of the waves change and differ from one another PLEASE HELP YOU WILL GET 56 POINTS IT HAS TO BE CORRECT PLEASE HELP YOU WILL GET 56 POINT IT HAS TO BE CORRECT

Answer:

temper; hot sauce

Explanation:

The context clue here is "raise the temperature slowly" gives a quick clue to temper (as a verb). The 4th definition of temper (as a verb) is "to bring to a suitable state by mixing or adding a usually liquid ingredient." Knowning, this leads to the second blank being hot sauce, as that's a liquid.

Answer:

B: The scale reading will increase momentarily then will decrease as the student is moving upward from the scale

Explanation:

The way weighing scale works is that when you climb on it, it will take your weight reading but when you are moving off the top of it, the reading slowly approaches 0 until you are completely off it.

Thus, the lab partner will observe that the reading will increase for a while and then gradually decrease to zero as the student moves upwards off the scale.

The correct answer is (B)The scale reading will increase momentarily then will decrease as the student is moving upward from the scale.

According to the third law of motion, every action has an equal and opposite reaction. In order to jump, the student will apply force to the bathroom scale in downward direction and there will be an equal force exerted by the bathroom scale upwards on the student which helps him jump.

 So when the student applies downward force on the scale in order to jump, the scale reading will increase momentarily and then will decrease as the student moves upwards.

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Answer:

Since there are hundreds of nails, instead of puncturing your skin the nails actually support you.

Explanation:

If you step on the point of a nail, your foot exerts a tremendous amount of pressure on the nail's tiny point. As a result, the point can go straight through your foot. But a bed of nails has lots of points that are close together -- there's a lot of surface area for the body to cover. Hundreds of nails support the weight of your body instead of just one. Typically, your body doesn't exert enough pressure on any one nail for it to break the skin. You can even place a second bed on top of you and break a cinderblock on it. The resulting force is distributed over all of the nails, so you shouldn't be injured.

The impact force will be less because of the pressure is equally distributed over the body of man. The nails will not puncture his skin.

The pressure of any object is given by the force acting per unit area. When the contact area is less, the object will penetrate.

If one steps on the point of a nail, his foot exerts a tremendous amount of pressure on the nail's contact point. As a result, it will penetrate into the foot. In case of a bed of nails, many nail points placed close together. The surface area for the body to make contact is increased.
Then, hundreds of nails now will support the weight of his body.

Thus, the impact force will be less because of the pressure is equally distributed over the body of man. The nails will not puncture his skin.

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Answer:

Double

Explanation:

Newton's second law of motion states that the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to and acts in the same direction as the net force acting on the object. The second law of motion can be represented by the equation:

F ∝ a;

F = ma

where m is the mass which is the constant of proportionality, F is the net force and a is the acceleration of the object.

Hence for a car with a constant mass, if the engine is replace with one that doubles the net force, the acceleration of the car would also double.

Answer:

See the explanation below.

Explanation:

We have to take into account that the potential difference is equal to the voltage, and this is measured between two points as the resistors are connected in parallel to the voltage source, the resistors will have the same voltage.

For ease, we will take the attached image of resistors connected in parallel.

As both resistors at their ends share the A & B connection points, these are at a voltage of 12V

Answer:

1 and 3

Explanation:

Scientists can use the following techniques to determine the characteristics of Earth's layers: a) conduct experiments on how minerals change under high pressure; and b) investigate how seismic waves travel through different layers.

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Answer:

Follows are the solution to this question:

Explanation:

Energy shifts at such a rollercoaster ride many times throughout a ride from possibility to dramatic power. Kinetic energy is the energy the object provides for its movement. The coaster machine is traditionally lifted by a rope from the very first hill. It gains energy stored because as vehicles move up.

OR

we can say that whenever anyone travels through an amusement park ride often recognized as a ring road, energy transfers from the opportunity to kinetic energy, because of the layout of the curves as well as the slope, and it is replicated few more occasions during the ride.

Kinetic energy seems to be used in motion.

Its amusement ride vehicles were usually climbed back by a rope from the very first hill, but as the other vehicles move along that route, they acquire potential power.  

Answer:

Impulse of force = -80 Ns

Explanation:

Given the following data;

Mass = 50kg

Initial velocity = 1.6m/s

Since she glides to a stop, her final velocity equals to zero (0).

Now, we would find the change in velocity.

[tex] Change \; in \; velocity = final \; velocity - initial \; velocity [/tex]

Substituting into the equation above;

Change in velocity = 0 - 1.6 = 1.6m/s

[tex] Impulse \; of \; force = mass * change \; in \; velocity [/tex]

Substituting into the equation, we have;

[tex] Impulse \; of \; force = 50 * -1.6[/tex]

Impulse of force = -80 Ns

Therefore, the impulse of the force that stops her is -80 Newton-seconds and it has a negative value because it is working in an opposite direction, thus, bringing her to a stop.

Answer:

a. 14000

Explanation:

Given parameters:

Efficiency of the machine  = 70%

Work done on machine  = 20000J

Unknown:

Work done by machine = ?

Solution:

 Efficiency of a machine is determined by;

  Efficiency  = [tex]\frac{Work done by machine}{Work done on machine} x 100[/tex]  

   70  = [tex]\frac{Work done by machine}{20000}[/tex] x 100

   70  = [tex]\frac{work done by machine}{200}[/tex]  

 Work done by machine  = 70 x 200 = 14000J

Answer:

459.6J

Explanation:

Given parameters:

Angle of pull  = 40°

Force applied  = 30N

Distance moved = 20m

Unknown:

Work done by Kraig  = ?

Solution:

To solve this problem;

   Work done  = F x dcosФ

d is the distance

F is the force

Ф is the angle given

  Work done  = 30 x 20cos40°   = 459.6J

Answer:

Force that acted on the body was F = 13 N

Explanation:

If once accelerated, the body covers 60 meters in 6 seconds, then its velocity is 60/6 m/s = 10 m/s

When the force was acting (for 10 seconds) the object accelerated from rest (initial velocity vi = 0) to 10 m/s (its final velocity). therefore we can use the kinematic equation for the velocity in an accelerated motion given by:

[tex]v_f=v_i+a*t[/tex]

which in our case becomes;

[tex]10\,m/s=0+a*(10\,s)[/tex]

and we can solve for the acceleration as:

a = 10/10  m/s^2 = 1 m/s^2

Therefore the force acting on the body, based on Newton's 2nd Law expression: F = m * a is:

F = 13 kg * 1 m/s^2 = 13 N

Answer:

Velocity of the box: 10.67 m/s

Explanation:

Recall that impulse is defined as the force applied times the time the force is in action. Then we can obtained the value of the impulse given to the box as:

Impulse = F * time = 33.3 N * 2.35 s = 78.225 kg m/s

then we use the momentum of the box at that precise time to find its velocity recalling that :

Momentum = mass * velocity

Then

78.225 kg m/s = 7.33 kg * v

v = 78.225/7.33  m/s = 10.67 m/s

The object changes direction when its velocity changes sign. You can get the velocity function by differentiating the position function with respect to time t :

x(t) = 4t ² - 41t + 78

→   v(t) = dx(t)/dt = 8t - 41

Solve v(t) = 0:

8t - 41 = 0

8t = 41

t = 41/8 = 5.125

Just to confirm that the velocity indeed changes sign:

• Pick any time before this one to check the sign of v :

v (0) = 8•0 - 41 = -41 < 0

• Pick any time after and check the sign again:

v (6) = 8•6 - 41 = 7 > 0

Now just find the position at this time:

x (5.125) = -433/16 = -27.0625

which means the object is 27.0625 units on the negative x-axis.

You can also do this without calculus by completing the square in the position function:

4t ² - 41t + 78 = 4 (t ² - 41/4 t ) + 78

… = 4 (t ² - 2• 41/8 t + (41/8)² - (41/8)²) + 78

… = 4 (t ² - 2• 41/8 t + (41/8)²) - 4•1681/64 + 78

… = 4 (t - 41/8)² - 433/16

which describes a parabola that opens upward. When t = 41/8 = 5.125, the quadratic term vanishes and the turning point of the parabola occurs at a position of -433/16 units.

Answer:

The period of this pendulum is [tex]T=1.55\: s[/tex]

Explanation:

The equation of motion of a pendulum is given by:

[tex]\frac{d\theta^{2}}{dt^{2}}+\frac{g}{L}sin(\theta)=0[/tex] (1)

Where:

θ is the angle of motion

g is the gravity at the earth surface (9.81 m/s²)

L is the length of the pendulum (0.6 m)

Now, using equation (1) we can find the square angular frequency (ω), it will be:

[tex]\omega^{2}=\frac{g}{L}[/tex]

[tex]\omega=\sqrt{\frac{g}{L}}[/tex]

Let's recall that the angular frequency is [tex]\omega=\frac{2\pi}{T}[/tex], then the period will be:

[tex]T=\frac{2\pi}{\omega}[/tex]  

[tex]T={2\pi}\sqrt{\frac{L}{g}[/tex]

[tex]T=2\pi}\sqrt{\frac{0.6}{9.81}[/tex]

Therefore, the period of this pendulum is [tex]T=1.55\: s[/tex]

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

Resistivity = 231.481 K Ohm

Yes, Intrinsic Silicon is the semiconductor.

Explanation:

Solution:

At 300K:

Let suppose mobility of electron in intrinsic semiconductor = [tex]M_{e}[/tex]

Mobility of electron in intrinsic semiconductor is:

[tex]M_{e}[/tex]  = 1300 [tex]cm^{2}[/tex]/volt.sec

Let suppose mobility of hole in intrinsic semiconductor = [tex]M_{h}[/tex]

[tex]M_{h}[/tex] = 500 [tex]cm^{2}[/tex]/volt.sec

We know that, intrinsic silicon semiconductor has equal number of holes and electrons. So,

At 300 K

Intrinsic Carrier Concentration = 1.5 x [tex]10^{10}[/tex]/[tex]cm^{3}[/tex] = C

And,

Conductivity of intrinsic Silicon is:

σ = C x ([tex]M_{h}[/tex] + [tex]M_{e}[/tex]) e

e = 1.6 x [tex]10^{-19}[/tex] C

So, plugging in the values, we get:

σ = C x ([tex]M_{h}[/tex] + [tex]M_{e}[/tex]) e

σ = 1.5 x [tex]10^{10}[/tex] x (500 + 1300) x 1.6 x [tex]10^{-19}[/tex]

σ = 4.32 x [tex]10^{-6}[/tex]

So, now we can find the resistivity.

Resistivity = 1/σ

Resistivity = 1/ 4.32 x [tex]10^{-6}[/tex]

Resistivity = 231.481 K Ohm

Yes, Intrinsic Silicon is the semiconductor.

Answer:

1. hold organs and other tissue in place

2. Attaches muscles to bone

Explanation:

From its name, the connective tissue has one of its most important functions to be the connection of tissues and organs.

They offer support and connection to other tissues such as tendons that attaches muscles to bones and also skeletons which offers support to the positions of the body.

Connective tissue also offer protection in various forms such as fibrous capsules and also bones that gives protection to delicate organs of the body

Answer:

- 0.3sin6000t A

Explanation:

Voltage, v = 10 cos 6000t V

Capacitance = 5-uF

Current flowing through, i(t)

i(t) = c * d/dt (V)

c = 5-uF = 5 * 10^-6 F

i(t) = (5 * 10^-6) * d/dt(10 cos 6000t)

d/dt(10 cos 6000t) = (10 * 6000) * (-sin 6000t)

Hence,

i(t) = (5*10^-6) * (10*6000) * (-sin 6000t)

i(t) = 5*10^-6 * 6*10^4 * - sin6000t

i(t) = 30 * 10^-2 * - sin6000t

i(t) = 0.3*-sin6000t

i(t) = - 0.3sin6000t Ampere

Answer:

Stellar disk: 185 ± 15 kly (kilo Langley/year)

Dark matter halo: 1.9 ± 0.4 Mly (mega light year) (580 ± 120 kpc)

Explanation:

The Milky Way galaxy contains the sun and the planets orbiting around it. This galaxy also contains up to 400 billion stars. The stellar disk of this galaxy is between 170,000 to 200,000 light years which is equal to a diameter of 52 - 61 kiloparsec.

Its thickness is measured at 0.3kpc which is also equal to 1000 light years. Its mass is 890 billion to 1.54 trillion times the mass of the sun. Its size is second to that of the Andromeda galaxy.

Answer:

Explanation:

The speed will remain unchanged because speed does not depend upon frequency .

So new speed = v

wavelength x frequency = speed

For frequency = 2 f

wavelength = speed / frequency

= v / 2f

So new wavelength = v / 2f .

1. The new wavelength is equal to [tex]\frac{\lambda}{2}[/tex].

2. The new speed is equal to v.

Given the following data:

To determine the new wavelength and new speed are:

Mathematically, the speed of a waveform is calculated by using the formula;

[tex]v = \lambda f[/tex]

Where:

Ideally, the speed of a wave doesn't change when the frequency provided they are both in the same medium.

However, the wavelength would change when frequency changes.

Therefore, the new speed = v.

For new wavelength:

[tex]v = \lambda f=\frac{\lambda}{2} (2f)[/tex]

New wavelength = [tex]\frac{\lambda}{2}[/tex]

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Answer:

okay, So Um,

Explanation:

BTW, There are only 50 points, brainly subtracts half of the points

Answer:

Controlled for useful work

Explanation:

Here we want to select the option that best describes what burning can be used for

Generally, when we talk about something being burnt, we are referring to the fact that we have the thing being on fire.

So basically, when something is on fire, we can say it is burning. We can harness the burning strength of a particular material or substance to do useful work.

For example, in a fire place in our homes, the burning of wood pieces can be used to heat up our homes. It is this same wood burning that has devastating effects in the bushes which in fact when left uncontrolled can cause degrees of catastrophic damages.

But, by taking the pieces and placing in a fire place in our homes, we have successfully controlled its bad effect and use it to do the useful work of heating up the environment

Answer:

53.13 °

Explanation:

In order to do this, we just need to apply the following:

tanα = Dy/Dx

Where:

Vy: speed of the ball in the y axis.

Vx: speed of the ball in the x axis.

At this point we do not need the speed of the first ball after the collision because in that moment is already heading in the direction that we are looking for. Therefore, we just need to use the innitial data to calculate the direction which the first ball will go.

According to this, then:

tanα = (40/30)

tanα = 1.3333

α = tan⁻¹(1.3333)

This means that the final direction of the first ball is 53.13° and in the x axis because the starting momentum of this ball in the x axis has not dissapeared.

Hope this helps

Answer:

a) F = 7.20 10⁵ N,  b) the force between charges is repulsive.

Explanation:

For this exercise we calculate the electric forces given by Coulomb's law

                  [tex]F = k \frac{q_{1} q_{2} }{r^{2} }[/tex]

where in this case they indicate that q1 = 5 103 C and q2 = 1 103 C and the distance between them r = 0.25 m

let's calculate

                  F = [tex]9 10^{9} \ \frac{5 \ 10^{-3} \ \ 1 \ 10^{-3} }{0.25^{2} }[/tex]

                  F = 7.20 10⁵ N

b) when electric charges have the same sign they repel and when they have the opposite sign they attract.

In this case, charge 1 is negative and charge 2 is negative, therefore, since they both have the same sign, the force between charges is repulsive.

Answer:

3k mph

Explanation:

don't take my answer it is wrong

Answer:

I = mgd/4π²f²

Explanation:

The period of the physical pendulum T = 1/f where f = frequency,

T = 1/f = 2π√(I/mgd) where I = moment of inertia of the physical pendulum, m =mass of pendulum, g = acceleration due to gravity and d = distance of center of mass of pendulum from pivot point.

1/f = 2π√(I/mgd)

dividing both sides by 2π, we have

1/2πf = √(I/mgd)

squaring both sides, we have

(1/2πf) = [√(I/mgd)]²

1/4π²f² = I/mgd

multiplying both sides by mgd, we have

I = mgd/4π²f²

Answer:

26 m southwards.

Explanation:

From a North, East, South, West coordinate plane, moving northwards implies positive distance. While moving southwards implies negative distance.

Thus;

It moves 16 meters northward; d = 16 m

It now moves 22 meters southward; d = -22 m

It moves 12 meters northward; d = 12 m

It moves 32 meters southward; d = -32 m

Thus, total magnitude = 16 - 22 + 12 - 32 = -26 m

Thus, the object travels 26 m southwards.

Answer:

due to gravity.

Explanation:

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