The calcium transient is a process that occurs in both cardiac and skeletal muscle, but it differs in some key ways.
In cardiac muscle, the calcium transient is triggered by the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR), which is a specialized organelle that stores calcium ions. This release of calcium ions causes a brief increase in the concentration of calcium ions in the cytoplasm, which in turn triggers muscle contraction.In skeletal muscle, the calcium transient is triggered by the release of calcium ions from the SR, but it is also dependent on the release of calcium ions from the extracellular space. The release of calcium ions from the SR is triggered by the action potential that travels along the muscle fiber, while the release of calcium ions from the extracellular space is triggered by the binding of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine to the muscle cell membrane.What are the difference in both?The difference in the calcium transient between cardiac and skeletal muscle influences contractility, or the ability of the muscle to contract.
Cardiac muscle contractility is largely dependent on the amount of calcium ions released from the SR, while skeletal muscle contractility is dependent on both the amount of calcium ions released from the SR and the amount of calcium ions released from the extracellular space.
Additionally, cardiac muscle has a slower rate of relaxation, which allows for a more sustained contraction. Skeletal muscle has a faster rate of relaxation, which allows for a more rapid contraction and relaxation cycle.
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the nava mode can be used in which of the following situations? a. paralysis b. heavy sedation c. injury to the respiratory brain centers d. spontaneous breathing
Answer:
a. paralysis
The NAVA mode, Neurally Adjusted Ventilatory Assist, is a mode of mechanical ventilation that uses the electrical activity of the diaphragm (EAdi) to adjust the level of pressure support provided to the patient. It is used in situations where the patient is paralyzed and is unable to initiate spontaneous breathing. It allows for more physiological breathing patterns and may reduce the risk of complications associated with traditional mechanical ventilation.
It is not typically used in situations of heavy sedation, injury to the respiratory brain centers, or spontaneous breathing.
Explanation:
a. paralysis
The NAVA mode, Neurally Adjusted Ventilatory Assist, is a mode of mechanical ventilation that uses the electrical activity of the diaphragm (EAdi) to adjust the level of pressure support provided to the patient. It is used in situations where the patient is paralyzed and is unable to initiate spontaneous breathing. It allows for more physiological breathing patterns and may reduce the risk of complications associated with traditional mechanical ventilation.
It is not typically used in situations of heavy sedation, injury to the respiratory brain centers, or spontaneous breathing.
a diploid individual with two identical alleles for a particular gene is said to be:
a. homozygous for that gene b. heterozygous for that gene c. pleiotropic for that gene d. autosomal for that gene e. codominant for that gene
The correct option is A ; Homozygous for that gene . In genetics, homozygous means having inherited the same versions (alleles) of a genomic marker from both biological parents. As a result, a person who is homozygous for a genetic marker has two identical copies of that marker.
Homozygous means you inherited the same version of the gene from both parents, resulting in two matching genes. Heterozygous means that you have a distinct version of a gene from each parent. They are incompatible.
Brown eyes or freckles are examples of homozygous dominant traits. Homozygous recessive disorders, marked by two lowercase letters such as bb, have two copies of the alleles encoding the recessive trait.
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Why do secondary sexual characters(jikffbihpz) grow during adolesecnece?
Answer:
typically develop during adolescence as a result of hormonal changes in the body.
Explanation:
I am not sure what you mean by "jikffbihpz." Could you please provide more context or clarify your question?
Also the term "secondary sexual characters" typically refers to physical characteristics that distinguish males from females in sexually reproducing species, such as antlers on male deer or breasts on human females. These characteristics are not related to the reproductive organs themselves (the primary sexual characteristics) and typically develop during adolescence as a result of hormonal changes in the body.
The intramuscular fat deposits within the muscle fibers.a. True
b. False
Intramuscular fat deposits can be found within muscle fibers(true).
These fat deposits are also known as "marbling" and are a type of fat called intramuscular triglycerides. They can be found in different types of meat, like beef, pork, and lamb.
The degree of marbling in meat is associated with the taste and juiciness of the meat. It is also associated with the quality grade of beef, where the higher the marbling, the higher the quality grade.
The intramuscular fat deposits are not the same as the subcutaneous fat, which lies between the skin and muscle. Intramuscular fat deposits are beneficial in moderation because they contribute to the flavor and juiciness of meat, but excessive amounts can be harmful to one's health.
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What two nations in the modern Middle East used to be Persia and Sumer
Answer:
Iraq and Iran.
Explanation:
The land of Sumer was found in the south-western portion of the Akkadian Empire, and borders that of the Persian Gulf to the south-east to the northern border city of Kish. Persia, on the other hand, started on the Iranian Plateau, and spanned from modern-day Egypt upwards to modern-day Negev of Greece. The eastern border ended near modern-day India.
In noting the main portion of the empire (as seen on the attached image, the main portions include present-day Iraq and Iran, which take up the bulk of the middle of the empire.
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the most common mineral group contains___ minerals 3.1.3
Answer: silicate minerals
Explanation: I am truly sorry if i didn't understand or got it wrong ty
- ☈⊙⌘☿
which one would happen first in the body systemsthe nervous system directs muscles to shiver and teeth to chatter. the brain detects that the body is too cold. muscles warm the body by shivering and chattering teeth. the brain senses body temperature.
The first thing that happens in the human system is that the brain detects that the skin is too cold.
The brain senses the epidermis temperature and sends signals to the nervous system to direct the muscles to shaken and teeth to chatter. The muscles then warm the skin by shaking and chattering teeth. A reflex is a rapid, automatic response to a signal that does not involve conscious thought. The nervous system plays a crucial role in reflexes, as it receives the signals, processes the information, and sends a response to the appropriate muscles or organs. These reflexes are mediated by the spinal cord and do not involve the brain. The brain is the central organ of the nervous system in all vertebrates and most invertebrates. It is located in the head and is responsible for controlling and coordinating the body's functions and responses to the environment. It is the most complex organ in the body, and is composed of billions of nerve cells (neurons) and support cells (glia).
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what type of ends do the enzymes bamhi and ecori produce? how does this type of end facilitate cloning
BamHI and EcoRI are both restriction enzymes. BamHI produces blunt ends and EcoRI produces sticky ends.
What kinds of endings are produced by the enzymes bamhi and ecori?BamHI and EcoRI are both restriction enzymes that cut DNA at specific sequences. BamHI produces blunt ends, meaning the ends of the DNA are not overhangs, while EcoRI produces sticky or cohesive ends, meaning the ends of the DNA have single-stranded overhangs. The cohesive ends that EcoRI produces facilitate cloning because they can anneal or bond to a complementary sequence, allowing two DNA fragments to be ligated together.BamHI and EcoRI are both type II restriction endonucleases, meaning they cleave DNA at specific palindromic sequences and produce sticky ends. BamHI cleaves at the recognition sequence of 5' -GGATCC-3' and 3' -CCTAGG-5', and EcoRI cleaves 5' -GAATTC-3' and 3' -CTTAAG-5'. These sticky ends are unique to each enzyme and are complementary to each other, meaning BamHI and EcoRI can be used together to cleave double stranded DNA.The sticky ends produced by BamHI and EcoRI facilitate cloning by creating overhangs on the ends of the DNA fragments that may be joined together to form a recombinant plasmid. This is possible because the sticky ends are complementary to each other, so they can join together in a process called ligation. This allows the recombinant plasmid to be transformed into a host cell, where it can be replicated and expressed.In conclusion, BamHI and EcoRI create sticky ends that are complementary to each other, which facilitates cloning by allowing DNA fragments to be joined together and then introduced into a host cell.To learn more about the enzymes bamhi and ecori refer to:
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the skin is not able to receive stimuli because the cells of the epidermis are not living and therefore there are no sensory receptors in the skin. the skin is not able to receive stimuli because the cells of the epidermis are not living and therefore there are no sensory receptors in the skin. true false
It is untrue to say that the skin lacks sensory receptors and is therefore unable to respond to stimuli because the cells of the epidermis are not alive.
All layers of skin have sensory receptors. Mechanoreceptors around hair follicles, Pacinian corpuscles, Meissner corpuscles, Merkel complexes, Ruffini corpuscles, and C-fiber LTM are among the six types that can detect harmless stimuli in the skin (low threshold mechanoreceptors). Meissner's corpuscles, also known as tactile corpuscles, are a particular class of mechanoreceptor that react to touch. These are present on the skin of the lips, fingers, and other places. Nerve endings can be found in both the dermis and epidermis. These communicate information about pressure, temperature, and sensation (such as pleasure or pain). The fingertips, for example, have more of these nerves than other parts of the body.
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what mechanisms might result in reproductive isolation?
One of the most common forms of reproductive isolation is habitat isolation.
This occurs when two species or populations of the same species become separated geographically and are unable to interbreed due to their separation. This can be caused by a variety of factors, such as the formation of a physical barrier such as a mountain range, or a change in the environment that makes one area more suitable for one species than another.
Another form of reproductive isolation is temporal isolation. This occurs when two species or populations of the same species that could potentially interbreed are forced to breed at different times due to the timing of their breeding season. This can be seen in birds that breed during different times of the year, or in fish that spawn at different times of the year.
A third form of reproductive isolation is behavioral isolation. This occurs when two species are unable to interbreed due to differences in their behavior. This is often seen in species that require complex courtship rituals in order to breed, or in species that may be attracted to different types of mates or habitats.
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Loss of epigenetic information as a cause of mammalian aging is called: ___________
The loss of epigenetic information as a cause of mammalian aging is called epigenetic drift. Epigenetics refers to the study of changes in the way genes are expressed.
Epigenetic modifications, such as methylation and acetylation, can silence or activate genes. As cells divide and aging , these epigenetic modifications can change, leading to an accumulation of errors in the way genes are expressed. This process is called epigenetic drift. Epigenetic drift is thought to be one of the causes of aging in mammals. As cells age, the epigenetic modifications on their genes become less stable, which can lead to changes in gene expression that contribute to the decline of tissue function. This can lead to an increased risk of diseases associated with aging, such as cancer, heart disease, and neurodegeneration.
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An artificial cell consisting of an aqueous solution enclosed in a selectively permeable membrane is immersed in a beaker containing a different solution. The membrane is permeable to water and to the simple sugars glucose and fructose but impermeable to the disaccharide sucrose. Is the solution outside the cell isotonic, hypotonic or hypertonic
Answer:
The solution outside the cell is hypotonic, since it has a lower concentration of solutes than the solution inside the artificial cell. This means that water will move from the solution outside the cell into the solution inside the cell, causing the artificial cell to swell.
Explanation:
The solution outside the cell is hypotonic, since it has a lower concentration of solutes than the solution inside the artificial cell. This means that water will move from the solution outside the cell into the solution inside the cell, causing the artificial cell to swell.
Vernon wonders whether nadph and atp should be classified as reactants or as products of photosynthesis. how should these compounds be classified?
a. as reactants, because they are used up by photosynthesis
b. as products, because they are generated by photosynthesis
c. as either reactants or products, depending on the rate that photosynthesis occurs
d. as neither reactant nor product, because they are recycled instead of made or used up
NADPH and ATP should be classified as Option b, as products, because they are generated by photosynthesis
During the process of photosynthesis, light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll, which is used to convert water and carbon dioxide into oxygen, glucose, NADPH, and ATP.
NADPH and ATP are the energy storage molecules produced during the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, they are not used as reactants but they are the end product of this process. They are used in the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis to generate glucose from carbon dioxide.
Therefore, NADPH and ATP are considered the products of photosynthesis as they are generated through the process, and they are essential for the continuation of the photosynthetic process, as they provide the energy required for light-independent reactions.
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which type of blood vessel carries blood toward the heart?
Answer: Veins
Explanation:
Veins carry the deoxygenated blood to the heart.
how your genetic inheritance (nature) interacted with your experience (nurture) to influence your development:
The environment is what makes us who we are.
What role do nature and nurture play in human development?The Scientific Influences of Nature, the Social Constructs of Nurture Nature, in general, considers the impact of physical ways such as neurotransmitters and genome sequencing on infant development, whereas nurture considers factors such as peer pressure and social impacts.
The theory of nurture holds that relationships between environmental variables and psychological outcomes are caused by the environment. How frequently parents read with their children, for example, appears to be connected to how well youngsters learn to read. Environmental stress and its impact on depression are two further examples. Two decades of study have revealed that both nature and nurture always play a role—that is, the amount to which genetic variables influence behavior is determined by the social context in which individuals live, work, and play.
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a manual white blood cell count was performed by the hematology technologist. the cell counts for each of two sides was 38 and 42 respectively. all nine large squares were counted on each side. the dilution for this kit was pre-measured at 1:10. what should the technologist report as the white cell count?
The technologist will report the white cell count as0.44 x 109/ L.
Except for white cell counts in body fluids with incredibly low cell counts ( 1,000 cells/L), such as cerebrospinal fluid, the manual procedure using a diluting chamber and a hemocytometer is no longer used. The red cells are removed from view by diluting blood in a diluent that lyses them. A WBC count is performed to ascertain whether the total number of WBCs falls within a healthy range. This test is frequently done in conjunction with other blood tests, like a CBC, which also measures the blood's other components, like red blood cells and platelets. Either manually counting cells with a hemocytometer or automatically counting cells is possible.
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lobe of the cerebrum involved in the visual memory of objects
Lobe of the cerebrum involved in the visual memory of objects Occipital.
The occipital lobe is one of the four major lobes of the cerebral cortex in the brain of mammals. The majority of the physical region of the visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe, which is the mammalian brain's visual processing hub. The primary visual cortex is designated as Brodmann area 17, or V1 (visual one). Human V1 is situated in the calcarine sulcus, on the medial side of the occipital lobe, and frequently extends all the way to the occipital pole. Because of a distinctive myelin stripe known as the Stria of Gennari, the V1 is frequently referred to as the striate cortex. Extrastriata cortex refers to visual-driven areas that are not located in V1. There are many extrastriate regions, and these are specialized for different visual tasks, such as visuospatial processing, color differentiation, and motion perception. Bilateral lesions of the occipital lobe can lead to cortical blindness (see Anton's syndrome).
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Place the steps of nucleotide excision repair in order. Not all choices will be used. First step recognize damaged site hydrolyze incorrect nucleotide using exonuclease fill in gap with DNA polymerase close DNA ends with DNA ligase a. hydrolyze abasic nucleotide using endonuclease b. hydrolyze base c. hydrolyze incorrect nucleotide using endonuclease d. separate strands using helicase
Nucleotide excision repair in order is hydrolyze incorrect nucleotide using endonuclease
What does nucleotide excision do?Nucleotide excision repair (NER) is the main pathway used by mammals to remove bulky DNA lesions such as those formed by UV light, environmental mutagens, and some cancer chemotherapeutic adducts from DNA. Deficiencies in NER are associated with the extremely skin cancer-prone inherited disorder xeroderma pigmentosum.Deletion. A deletion changes the DNA sequence by removing at least one nucleotide in a gene. Small deletions remove one or a few nucleotides within a gene, while larger deletions can remove an entire gene or several neighboring genesBase excision repair is a pathway that repairs replicating DNA throughout the cell cycle. Nucleotide excision repair is a pathway that repairs constantly damaging DNA due to UV rays, radiation and mutagensTo learn more about nucleotide excision refers to:
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describe specific examples of each of the following ways that cells can communicate with each other: a. no distance b. short distance c. long distance d. local regulators
Chemical signals are frequently used by cells to communicate. These chemical signals, and that are proteins or other compounds produced by the transmitting cell and discharged into the extracellular space, are frequently secreted by the cell.
a. no distance
A cell secretes a hormone or chemical messenger known as the autocrine agent, which attaches to autocrine receptors on the same cell and causes the cell to undergo changes.
b. short distance
Synaptic signalling, which influences the development of the spinal cord, is an illustration of short distance. At that point, signalling crosses the minuscule distance between two neurons.
c. long distance
Endocrine signalling is an example of long-distance communication between cells that contain hormone receptor molecules and tissues, glands and organs that produce hormones.
d. local regulators
Local regulators are non-hormonal chemical signals that trigger reactions in neighbouring target cells in paracrine signalling. Three different local hormone signalling mechanisms are synaptic, autocrine, and paracrine.
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what is the evolutionary advantage to yeast to grow mitotically under good conditions (like when on yed) and meiotically under poor conditions (like when on kac). (you must answer both parts of the question.)
Yeasts are single-celled, eukaryotic microorganisms that belong to the fungal kingdom. There are currently 1,500 known species of yeast, which date back hundreds of millions of years.
They are thought to make up 1% of all known fungal species. Yeasts are unicellular creatures that descended from multicellular ancestors. Some species have the capacity to acquire multicellular traits by generating pseudo hyphae or fake hyphae, which are networks of connected budding cells.
The size of yeast varies widely depending on the species and environment; it is normally 3–4 m in diameter, while some yeasts can reach a size of 40 m. The majority of yeasts divide asexually during mitosis, and many do so through the budding method of asymmetric division. In contrast to bacteria, yeasts grow in solitary cells.
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Which of the following is true of the evolutionary species concept?
Select one:
O a. It can be used to determine if two species are reproductively isolated
O b. It can be applied to both asexually and sexually reproducing species
O c.
It can only be used to study prokaryotes
d.
It can only be used to study living organisms
O e.
It can be used to determine traits such as size differences between males and
females
Answer:
It can be applied to both asexually and sexually reproducing species.
genetic crosses in which f1 plants heterozygous for a given allele are crossed to generate a 3:1 phenotypic ratio in the f2 generation are known as .
Genetic crosses in which f1 plants heterozygous for a given allele are crossed to generate a 3:1 phenotypic ratio in the f2 generation are known as monohybrid crosses
A monohybrid mating is a mating between two organisms that have different variations at the locus of interest. Traits examined in monohybrid crosses are determined by two or more variations to a single position in the gene.
In the progeny or F2 generation of monohybrid crosses, Mendel repeatedly observed a phenotypic ratio of three plants with a dominant phenotype and one plant with a recessive phenotype (3:1) F2 generation.
A monohybrid cross is defined as a cross that occurs to offspring in her F1 generation from parents that differ in only one trait.
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Which endocrine organ is found in the thoracic cavity?a. thymusb. thyroidc. pituitaryd. pancreas
Thymus endocrine organ is found in the thoracic cavity.The pink, lobulated lymphoid thymus gland is situated in the neck and thoracic cavities.
The immune system's development in adolescents is important. It shrinks during adolescence and is gradually replaced by fat.The second-largest hollow region in the body is the thoracic cavity, often known as the chest cavity. The sternum, or breastbone, the spinal column, and the ribs encompass it. The diaphragm, a muscular and membrane wall, separates it from the abdominal cavity, the body's biggest empty region. The tracheobronchial tree is made up of the lungs, middle and lower airways, the heart, vessels that carry blood from the heart to the lungs, big arteries that carry blood from the heart into the general circulation, and major veins that collect blood for return to the heart.
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Consider a population of wildflowers in which the frequency of the red allele CR is p = 0.7.
What is the frequency of the white allele (CW ) in this population?
0
0.3
0.49
0.7
Considering a population of wildflowers in which the frequency of the red allele CR is p 0.7. the frequency of the white allele (CW ) in this population is 0.7.
i) The alternative form of a gene, also known as the variant form of a gene, is known as alleles. The frequencies of two alleles at a locus are represented by the symbols p and q. In a population, all allele frequencies will add up to 1.
Therefore, the white allele's frequency in this population (q) is 0.3 if the red allele CW is p=0.7.
According to the punnet square, the expected genotype frequencies in the generation of offspring will be 0.49 CRCR for red flowers, 0.42 CRCW for pink flowers, and 0.09 CWCW for white flowers.
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Identify what enzymes breaks down what substrates? In details
Answer:
sucrase - sucrose
Explanation:
Turn these answers into two paragraphs. (5-8 sentences each)
Thank you! >_<
What are GMOs used for?
To give plants and animals the desired traits for a specific purpose.
Plants-Grow faster, taste better
Animals-Specific breeds, laboratory research, human consumption(Matured faster)
Where can you find organisms that are GMOs?
Produce section in stores
In addition to tasting better, genetically modified crops have higher yields, a longer shelf life, are resistant to pests and diseases, and are longer lasting.
What did you find most interesting?
Something I found interesting was how sometimes genes from one organism could be inserted into an entirely different one. The endless amounts of mixed results this can cause is fascinating. Another thing I found interesting was how GMO’s are used in around 90% of some of our everyday produce.
Do you think there is a benefit to using GMOs?
I do think there is a benefit to using GMOs because there is so much that they already do for us. Though there are risks, there are still ways to improve them. GMOs help our society, research, and food markets.
What did you learn?
I learned that GMO’s can be used to improve health, maturity, taste, and durability.
GMOs are used to give plants and animals the desired traits for a specific purpose as plants grow faster.
Where can you find organisms that are GMOs?In addition to tasting better, genetically modified crops have higher yields, a longer shelf life, are resistant to pests and diseases, and are longer lasting. Something I found interesting was how sometimes genes from one organism could be inserted into an entirely different one. The endless amounts of mixed results this can cause is fascinating. Another thing I found interesting was how GMO’s are used in around 90% of some of our everyday produce.
I do think there is a benefit to using GMOs because there is so much that they already do for us. Though there are risks, there are still ways to improve them. GMOs help our society, research, and food markets. I learned that GMO’s can be used to improve health, maturity, taste, and durability.
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Translate the following mRNA strand. AUG AGC CGG UGU AGA GGG UUG CAC UAU UAA
Answer:
Methionine - Serine - Arginine - Cysteine - Arginine - Glycine - Leucine - Histidine - Asparagine - Stop.
Explanation:
Methionine - Serine - Arginine - Cysteine - Arginine - Glycine - Leucine - Histidine - Asparagine - Stop.
Which of the following is a facultative, rather than obligate, intracellular pathogen?
A. Chlamydia
B. Brucella
C. Rickettsia
D. All of the choices are correct.
The correct option is b ; Brucella , Brucella abortus is the causative agent of bovine brucellosis, a serious zoonotic illness.
Acute illness may reoccur in latently infected humans and animals under situations that reduce host resistance. This bacteria is classified as an intracellular pathogen.
The adjective "facultative intracellular pathogens" refers to "intracellular" to signify that these infectious organisms may reproduce both inside and outside cells (Moulder, 1985).
All viruses, certain bacteria such as Chlamydia and Rickettsia, certain protozoa such as Trypanosoma spp., Plasmodium, and Toxoplasma, and fungi such as Pneumocystis jiroveci are obligate intracellular parasites that infect humans.
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i need help examining karyotypes.
Karyotyping is a type of genetic testing. It looks at the size, shape and number of chromosomes in a sample of cells from your body. Chromosomes are located within the nucleus, the command center of the cell. Chromosomes contain your genes.
Genes contain information called DNA that controls how we look and how our bodies work.
You inherit chromosomes from your parents. Normally, all cells (except eggs and sperm) have the same set of 46 chromosomes.
Chromosomes are classified into 23 pairs. Each pair has two chromosomes, one for her from each parent. Certain genetic disorders can develop if the cell
-Whole or part of a chromosome is missing
-Do you have an extra chromosome or extra piece of chromosome
Karyotyping checks the chromosomes in the cell as follows:
Check if you have the complete set of 46 chromosomes. Having too many or too few chromosomes can cause serious problems with health, growth, and normal development.
Down syndrome (extra chromosome 21) and Turner syndrome (missing X chromosome).
Look for changes in the structure of chromosomes such as:
Damaged, missing or extra parts. These changes can lead to a variety of problems, depending on which chromosome is affected. However, some chromosomal changes do not cause problems.
Certain chromosomal problems are present from birth. Chromosome problems can also develop in certain cells after birth. These problems can lead to certain types of cancer.
Other name:
genetic testing, chromosomal testing, chromosomal studies, cytogenetic analysis.
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i dont understand this help please
The skin is superior to the liver. The greatest solid organ in the human body seems to be the liver. It's located in the front upper abdomen, below the rib cage.
What are the skin's three principal layers?The epidermal, dermis, & hypodermis are indeed the three constituent layers, and each has a distinctive architecture and function. The complicated network that makes up the natural skin structure acts also as body's first line of defense against viruses, UV rays, chemicals, and psychological harm.
What purpose does the skin serve?provides a barrier of defense against harmful substances, mechanical, thermal, and bodily injury. prevents moisture loss minimizes the negative effects from UV radiation. The skin, which covers the body's entire exterior surface and acts a first-order barrier against the outside, is its primary and main defensive organ.
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