prioritizing tasks in a medical office, I would first categorize them into three groups: immediate, essential, and optional. Immediate tasks such as emergencies or critical patient needs.
Essential tasks are those that must be completed within a certain time frame, such as lab results or patient follow-up. Optional tasks are those that can be completed at a later time, such as scheduling appointments or ordering supplies. To prioritize these tasks, I would first focus on immediate tasks, followed by essential tasks and then optional tasks. When disruptions occur, such as a last-minute emergency, I would re-prioritize tasks by reassessing the situation essential and determining which tasks need to be completed first. For example, if a patient is experiencing a severe allergic reaction, I would prioritize their care over any other task.
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what part of the eye is pulled into shapes that focus incoming light onto the receptor cells in the back of the eye
Light is directed towards to retina of the eyes by the lens and the cornea working together. Light is absorbed by retinal cells, which convert it all into electrical impulses, and indeed the optic nerve subsequently carries
What are the two purposes of the optical nerve?Function. All visual information, including perceptions of contrast, color, and brightness, is transmitted by the optic nerve (visual acuity). Additionally, it carries the retinal impulses that are in charge of two significant neurological reflexes: the accommodation reflex and the light reflex.
Can injury to the optic nerve be cured?Optic neuritis frequently gets better on its own. Occasionally, steroid drugs are used to lessen optic nerve inflammation. Weight gain, mood swings, flushing of the face, gastrointestinal distress, and insomnia are all potential side effects of steroid therapy. Typically, steroid therapy is administered through vein
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which term would be used to describe the occurance of when bone marrow activity and white blood ccell couunts arre at theri lowest level of chemotherapy?
Myelosuppression describes the occurrence where bone marrow activity and white blood cell counts are at their lowest level after chemotherapy
A common side effect of chemotherapy is myelosuppression, also known as bone marrow suppression. Myelosuppression is characterized by a decrease in the production of blood cells.
The body's bone marrow produces three distinct types of blood cells: platelets, red blood cells, and white blood cells.
One, two, or all three types of blood cells can be reduced by myelosuppression. The most common form of myelosuppression experienced by chemotherapy patients is a decrease in red blood cells. Anemia is the name given to this kind of suppression of the bone marrow.
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(Complete question)
Which term describes the occurrence where bone marrow activity and white blood cell counts are at their lowest level after chemotherapy?
the polymer of the macromolecule that is made in the ribosome__
Ribosomes are composed of two macromolecules: proteins and nucleic acids.
Ribosomes are made whilst a specific form of ribonucleic acid (RNA), referred to as ribosomal RNA (rRNA) combines with proteins.
First, natural ribosomes had been evolutionarily optimized to polymerize α-l-amino acids, leading to bad compatibility with backbone-prolonged monomers.
Ribosomes are very small macromolecular complexes, composed of rRNA and proteins, and are liable for protein synthesis (translation) on mRNA templates. each ribosome consists of a huge and a small subunit.
If DNA is the blueprint, then ribosomes are the masons - they build the protein the use of amino acids as the 'bricks'. To construct proteins, the two ribosomal subunits, small and huge, assemble together to shape the complete ribosome. It has binding sites for mRNA and transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules.
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which organ determines the metabolic fate of every nutrient we digest and absorb, in addition to performing a wide variety of other functions, most of them essential for life?
Answer:
The organ that determines the metabolic fate of every nutrient we digest and absorb, in addition to performing a wide variety of other functions, most of them essential for life, is the liver. The liver is an organ with many important functions, including metabolizing carbohydrates, proteins, and fats; producing bile to help digestion; storing and releasing glucose as needed; detoxifying drugs and other substances; and producing clotting factors and other proteins essential for blood clotting.
In pea plants, the allele for having round peas (R) is dominant over the allele for having wrinkled peas (r). As seen in the Punnett square, a pea plant with RR genotype is crossed with a pea plant with Rr genotype. What should be written in the squares marked 1 and 2
In pea plants, the allele for having round peas (R) is dominant over the allele for having wrinkled peas (r). In a Punnett square, the genotype of one parent is written along the top, and the genotype of the other parent is written along the side.
When a pea plant with RR genotype is crossed with a pea plant with Rr genotype, the Punnett square would look like this:
R - R
R - r
Square 1 would have the genotype of Rr and square 2 would also have the genotype of Rr. The R allele codes for round peas, and the r allele codes for wrinkled peas.
When a pea plant with the genotype RR is crossed with a pea plant with the genotype Rr, the offspring will all have the genotype Rr, which means they will all have the round pea phenotype (R is dominant over r). So, the squares marked 1 and 2 should have Rr written in them.
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Which of the following is a renewable resource? a. coal b. trees c. oil d. natural gas
The correct answer is B. trees. Trees are a renewable resource, as they can be replanted and harvested over and over again. Coal, oil, and natural gas are all non-renewable resources, as they are finite and will eventually run out.
Trees are a sustainable resource that can be replenished over time, making them a renewable source of energy. They can be grown, harvested, replanted, and used for a variety of applications. Trees are an important source of fuel, both for burning and for producing charcoal, and their wood is used to make furniture, paper, and other products.
In addition, trees provide a habitat for animals, help to reduce soil erosion, and absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. By planting and maintaining forests, we can ensure that this important renewable resource is available for generations to come.
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how can natural selection be defined? group of answer choices random events resulting in the selection of individuals whose phenotypes are best suited for the environment. migrations resulting in the selection of individuals whose phenotypes are best suited for the environment. environmental conditions resulting in the selection of individuals whose phenotypes are best suited for the environment. man-made conditions resulting in the selection of individuals whose phenotypes are best suited for the environment.
Natural selection be defined as environmental conditions resulting in the selection of individuals whose phenotypes are best suited for the environment.
The process through which populations of living things adapt and change is known as natural selection. A population's members are naturally varied, which means that they are all distinctive in some ways. This variety indicates that some people have characteristics that are more environment-appropriate than others.
Darwin views natural selection as a protracted, complicated process involving numerous interrelated causes. Variation among the organisms in a population is necessary for natural selection. It must be heritable and transmitted in some way to the descendants of the organisms for the process to function.
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Some humans exhibit piebald spotting: patches of skin that lack pigmentation. The condition results from the inability of pigment-producing cells to migrate properly during development. Two adults with piebald spotting have one child who has this characteristic and a second child with normal skin pigmentation g
Answer:
Piebald spotting is caused by an inability of pigment-producing cells to migrate properly during development. This condition is usually inherited, and it results in patches of unpigmented skin. In some cases, two adults with piebald spotting may have a child who has this characteristic and a second child with normal skin pigmentation. This happens because the genetic trait responsible for piebald spotting is a recessive trait. In other words, the child must inherit two copies of the recessive gene in order to display the trait. If the child only receives one copy of the gene, they will not exhibit piebald spotting.
describe the effects of temperature, light intensity, and carbon dioxide concentration on rates of photosynthesis.
Up until the ideal temperature is reached, the respiration rises exponentially as temperature rises.
What happens during photosynthesis?Light energy is transformed into sunlight into chemical energy of sugars through a process called photosynthesis. Both carbon dioxide and water are converted into glucose molecules in a process powered by light energy, with oxygen being produced as a byproduct.
Where is photosynthesis carried out?In the chloroplasts that are located in the mesophyll of the leaves, photosynthesis occurs. The chlorophyll in the thylakoids, which are found inside the chloroplast, absorbs the various colors of light to produce energy.
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what situation shows kinetic energy being transformed into potential energy ???????????
A situation of kinetic energy being transformed into potential energy is when an object is lifted upward.
As the object is lifted, its potential energy increases while its kinetic energy decreases. This is because the object has the ability to do work due to its position, or potential energy, and as it is lifted higher, the amount of potential energy it possesses increases. Conversely, as the object is lifted, its speed, or kinetic energy, decreases.
This is because work is being done on the object to lift it, which reduces its kinetic energy. Overall, as the object is lifted, its kinetic energy is being converted into potential energy.
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Organisms can reproduce in one of two ways—sexually or asexually. Amoeba are examples of organisms that reproduce asexually.
When amoeba reproduce, they replicate their DNA and then divide in half. Thus,
A.
half of the offspring's genes come from the parent.
B.
very few of the offspring's genes come from one parent.
C.
none of the offspring's genes are identical to those of the parent.
D.
all of the offspring's genes come from one parent.
In a case whereby Organisms can reproduce in one of two ways—sexually or asexually. Amoeba are examples of organisms that reproduce asexually. When amoeba reproduce, they replicate their DNA and then divide in half. Thus, D.all of the offspring's genes come from one parent.
What was sexual reproduction ?Asexual reproduction refers to a type of reproduction where a child is born to a single parent. The newly created people are clones of their parents since they have the same genetic makeup and physical characteristics. Both multicellular and unicellular species can reproduce asexually.
Lower eukaryotes like Acanthamoeba have asexual reproduction, which is defined as the mother cell dividing into two daughter cells by a process called binary fission. To put it another way, amoebae do not require genetic material from other organisms to reproduce.
Therefore, option D is correct.
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What is the enzymatic activity of a kinase and of a phosphatase
A kinase is a chemical that connects a phosphate gathering to a protein. A phosphatase is a catalyst that eliminates a phosphate bunch from a protein. Together, these two groups of compounds act to regulate the exercises of the proteins in a cell.
Amino acids at the site of phosphorylation figure out where a protein kinase or protein phosphatase will play out its enzymatic movement. This prompts an amino corrosive succession making a particular restricting site for the kinase so one kinase can phosphorylate quite certain proteins at a particular site.
Protein kinases are a significant class of intracellular chemicals that assume an essential part in most sign transduction overflows, from controlling cell development and multiplication to the commencement and guideline of immunological reactions.
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Watch this short ted talk (its like 6-8 minutes long) and answer the following questions to it (link for it is in the image)
How did Braitman become interested in mental illness in animals?
Why is it not totally surprising that animals can suffer from emotional distress or mental illness?
The video discusses giving animals human medications like anti-anxiety or anti-depression drugs. Do you think animals should be treated with drugs used for mental illness? Why or why not?
Briefly describe at least two of the disorders that Braitman explains animals can suffer from.
Why do veterinarians often ask about an animal’s behaviors and life during an office visit?
Why does Braitman say that we owe our entire psychopharmaceutical arsenal to animals? Explain.
How could thinking about an animal’s mental health influence veterinary care?
Braitman became interested in mental illness in animals because she observed that her own pets were displaying symptoms similar to human mental illnesses.
It is not surprising that animals can suffer from emotional distress or mental illness because they are living beings with brains and nervous systems that are capable of experiencing emotions and responding to stressors in similar ways to humans.
The use of human medications for animals is a controversial topic. Some argue that it is necessary to provide animals with the same level of care and treatment as humans, while others argue that animals may have different physiological responses to these drugs and that more research is needed before administering them.
Two disorders that Braitman explains animals can suffer from are separation anxiety and compulsive disorders.
Veterinarians often ask about an animal’s behaviors and life during an office visit because it can provide insight into the animal’s emotional and psychological well-being and can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
Braitman says that we owe our entire psychopharmaceutical arsenal to animals because animals have been used in the testing and development of many of the drugs used to treat human mental illnesses.
Thinking about an animal’s mental health could influence veterinary care by leading to more comprehensive and holistic treatment plans that take into account not just the physical symptoms, but also the emotional and psychological well-being of the animal.
What is the medication about?Regarding the use of human medications for animals, it is important to consider the potential benefits and risks of administering these drugs to animals. On one hand, administering anti-anxiety or anti-depression drugs to animals could provide relief from symptoms and improve their quality of life.
On the other hand, there is a lack of research on the safety and efficacy of these drugs in animals, and administering them could have unintended consequences. Additionally, animals may have different physiological responses to these drugs than humans, which could lead to ineffective treatment or adverse reactions.
Therefore, Separation anxiety is a disorder in which an animal experiences severe distress and agitation when separated from its owner or primary caregiver. This can manifest as excessive vocalization, destructive behavior, and attempts to escape.
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The results of the Meselson-Stahl experiments relied on all of the following except _______.
A. that a heavy isotope of nitrogen could be incorporated into replicating DNA molecules
B. a cesium chloride gradient
C. the fact that DNA is the genetic material
D. a means of distinguishing among the distribution patterns of newly synthesized and parent molecule DNA possible
The results of the Meselson-Stahl experiments relied on all of the following except the fact that DNA is the genetic material. Here option C is the correct answer.
The Meselson-Stahl experiment, conducted in the late 1950s, was a key experiment in the discovery of the semi-conservative nature of DNA replication. The experiment was performed using E. coli bacteria, which were grown in a medium containing a heavy isotope of nitrogen (15N) for several generations.
The bacteria were then transferred to a medium containing the normal isotope of nitrogen (14N) and allowed to replicate. The researchers then used a technique called density gradient centrifugation to separate the DNA molecules based on their densities.
By comparing the distribution patterns of the newly synthesized and parent DNA molecules, they were able to demonstrate that DNA replication is semi-conservative, meaning that each strand of the original DNA molecule acts as a template for the synthesis of a new complementary strand.
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whipworm infection is typically diagnosed by the microscopic observation of adult worms or barrel-shaped eggs with polar plugs in stool specimens. what organism is known as the whipworm?
Soil-transmitted helminths are known as whipworm. They are also named as hookworm, and Ascaris.
What are Helminths?Large macro parasites generally called helminths, or parasitic worms, are typically visible as adults to the unaided eye. Many are soil-transmitted intestinal worms that infect the gastrointestinal tract. Schistosomes and other parasitic worms live in blood vessels.
There are bisexual and hermaphrodite species. The internal and exterior morphology of the egg, larval, and adult stages serve as the basis for the final classification. The general classification of helminths are given as follows;
Flukes (Trematodes)Tapeworms (Cestodes)Roundworms (Nematodes),etc.To know more about Helminths do visit
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t or f: during gastrulation, transcription factors can diffuse through the insect embryo and enter nuclei.
True. Gastrulation is referred to as an early developmental process in which an embryo changes from a one-dimensional layer of epithelial cells (blastula) and reorganises into a multilayered and multidimensional structure termed the gastrula.
Animal embryos go through a period of enormous fluctuation called gestation. The cells formed during cleavage start to move in relation to one another during gastrulation. They interact with new cells as they migrate, which alters their immediate surroundings. The node is where gastrulation, the development of the three germ layers, first starts. By controlling the chordamesoderm's growth, the node establishes and shapes the embryo's anterior-posterior axis.
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A certain bacterium was cultured for several generations in medium containing ISN, transferred to medium containing 14N, and allowed to complete two rounds of cell division _ Given that the bacterium's genome mass is 5.4 fg when grown in 14N media and 5.5 fg when grown in 1SN medium, individual bacteria with which of the following genome masses would most likely be isolated from this culture? 5.4 fg only 5.4 fg and 5.45 fg 5.4 fg and 5.5 fg 5.45 fg only Solution: The correct answer is B_ This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "The structure, growth, physiology, and genetics of prokaryotes and viruses The answer to this question is B because DNA replication is semi-conservative. Therefore, after the first round of cell division the genome mass in each bacterium will be 5.45 fg (one DNA strand will contain 15N and the other strand 14N). Following the second round of cell division, half of the bacteria will have a genome mass of 5.4 fg (14N exclusively) and the other half a mass genome of 5.45 fg (14N in one DNA strand and 1SN the other).
DNA replication is semi-conservative. Therefore, after the first round of cell division the genome mass in each bacterium will be 5.45 fg.
This is the simple concept of semi-conservative theory for DNA replication. When the bacteria was grown on N-15, the mass was 5.5 fg. After two generations, the DNA would contain N-14 and the mass of this was 5.4fg.
The average mass would be = 5.4 + 5.5 / 2 = 10.9/2 = 5.45 fg
The mass of bacteria isolated would likely contain both the masses.
DNA is made up of molecules called nucleotides. Each nucleotide contains a phosphate group, a sugar group and a nitrogen base. The four types of nitrogen bases are adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G) and cytosine (C).
The order of these bases is what determines DNA's instructions, or genetic code. Similar to the way the order of letters in the alphabet can be used to form a word, the order of nitrogen bases in a DNA sequence forms genes, which in the language of the cell, tells cells how to make proteins.
Another type of nucleic acid, ribonucleic acid, or RNA, translates genetic information from DNA into proteins. The entire human genome contains about 3 billion bases and about 20,000 genes.
Hence, the correct option is B.
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what is the complementary sequence corresponding to the dna fragment agtcag? group of answer choices
TCAGTC is the complementary sequence corresponding to the dna fragment AGTCAG.
Complementary sequence: A nucleic acid sequence of bases that can be matched to form a double-stranded structure. For example, the complementary sequence to C-A-T-G (where each letter represents one of the bases of DNA) is G-T-A-C. A complementary DNA (cDNA) molecule is a DNA copy of a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule created by reverse transcriptase (a DNA polymerase that can utilise either DNA or RNA as a template).
Adenine nucleotides are paired with thymine nucleotides, and cytosines are paired with guanine. This means that the two strands are complementary to each other. For example, a DNA strand with the nucleotide sequence AGTCATGA has a complementary strand with the sequence TCAGTACT.
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the egg is the infective stage of this parasite for humans. what is the identification of this organism?
The organism that the egg is the infective stage of the parasite for humans is Enterobius vermicularis
What is the infective stage of the parasite for humans?The life stage of the parasite starts with the fertilized egg phase. The larva is then detached from the egg and starts growing to adulthood. To survive, a direct or indirect life cycle is important for the parasite. A direct life cycle refers to one in which the life cycle is completed by a single host. When a parasite needs another host to grow, this is referred to as an "indirect life cycle." An infective stage is a point in the parasite's life cycle when it is capable of infecting its host. A parasite's infective stage is one in which the parasite is capable of infecting its host and continuing to grow within the host.In humans, Enterobius vermicularis is a small, thin, white roundworm that causes pinworm infection. It is a parasitic worm that is also known as a seatworm or threadworm. The pinworm infection most commonly affects children or household members, even though it can affect all people. It is a common intestinal parasite in humans and is medically known as pinworm infection.
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during crossing over, chromatids in homologous pairs of chromosomes often twist around each other, break, exchange, segments, and rejoin. this process usually contributes to
Genetic diversity and variation are influenced by cross-pollination and genetic recombination.
What are Examples of geneticsStudies of genes are done in genetics. Information is transferred from one generation to the subsequent through our genes. In contrast to their sibling, who has dark hair like their father, one child had blonde highlights like their mother due to genetics.
What is a genetic explanation?The scientific study in genetics examines genes and heredity, or the process by which specific characteristics or traits are transferred from parents to children as a result of variations in DNA sequence. A gene is an area of DNA that provides instructions for creating one or even more molecules that support bodily function.
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Hormone release caused by altered levels of critical ions or nutrients, this is also known to be the simplest endocrine control.
Answer:
Yes, that is correct.
Explanation:
Hormone release caused by altered levels of critical ions or nutrients is also known as the simplest endocrine control.
Explain how these individuals can carry a fusion gene that is transcriptionally active and yet do not develop CML.
CML is actually developing in a latent form.
A single gene alteration is not the only requirement for CML.
Developing CML after the gene fusion can take a long time.
None of the above
These individuals can carry a fusion gene that is transcriptionally active and yet do not develop CML as : A single gene alteration is not the only requirement for CML.
What is meant by CML?A rare kind of cancer of the bone marrow, the spongy tissue found inside bones where blood cells are formed, is chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). The amount of white blood cells in the blood rises as a result of CML.
A condition known as chronic myelogenous leukemia causes an excessive production of white blood cells in the bone marrow. Chronic granulocytic leukemia, often known as chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), is a slowly growing blood and bone marrow condition that primarily affects adults in or after middle age and very infrequently affects children.
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what is formed when cells of the same type join to perform a common task?
Answer: Tissue
Explanation:
Tissue is formed when cells of the same type join to perform a common task.
why might a point mutation in dna make a difference in the level of a protein's activity?
In the active site, it might swap a different amino acid. For all creatures, the genetic code is fundamentally the same.
A point mutation can alter the degree of protein activity by changing the genetic coding, which can alter the amino acids integrated into the protein. The ultimate code for proteins in the cell is DNA.
In a genome, a point mutation occurs when a single base pair is added, removed, or modified. While most point mutations are harmless, they can have a variety of functional effects, such as changes in gene expression or changes in encoded proteins.
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Among Native Americans, two types of earwax (cerumen) are seen: dry and sticky. A geneticist studied the inheritance of this trait by observing the types of offspring produced by different kinds of matings. He observed the following numbers: g
The recessive phenotype is dry, whereas the dominant phenotype is sticky.
A heterozygous sticky (Ss) x dry testcross produced the ratio (ss). However, the sticky x dry matings here include the homozygous sticky (SS) x dry matings as well as the Ss x ss (ss). Ratio is produced by mating two Ss x SS heterozygotes, despite the fact that both Ss and SS are sticky people. As a result, Ss x Ss, SS x SS, and SS x Ss matings are all represented in the sticky x sticky matings.
The ear canal is surrounded by hair follicles and glands that secrete cerumen, a waxy oil. Sometimes the glands produce more wax than the ear can effectively eliminate. This extra wax may congeal in the ear canal and impede the ear.
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What was the cure for methemoglobinemia?
Answer:
The cure for methemoglobinemia is oxygen therapy. Methemoglobinemia is a condition in which there is an abnormal amount of methemoglobin in the blood. Methemoglobin is a form of hemoglobin that is unable to carry oxygen. Oxygen therapy involves the administration of 100% oxygen, which helps to convert the abnormal methemoglobin back to its normal form, allowing the hemoglobin to bind with oxygen and transport it to the body's tissues.
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which harvesting method allows cutting of mature trees without damaging the forest? group of answer choices seed tree harvest selective harvesting clear-cutting patchwork clear-cutting
Clear-cutting is a method of managing forests with the intention of removing mature trees while allowing young seedlings to have adequate light and space to flourish.
Which harvesting technique permits the removal of mature trees?A shelterwood cut involves the removal of mature trees over the course of two to three harvests spaced 10 to 15 years apart. Because a "shelter" is left to protect them, this strategy enables regeneration of species that can tolerate medium to low levels of shade.
Why are clearcuts made?Instead of harvesting timber, clearcutting's main goal is to repopulate the forest with healthier trees. Harvesting timber is a secondary goal. Unlike a commercial clearcut, which only removes trees that can be sold, a true clearcut involves the complete removal of all trees larger than 2 inches in diameter.
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male peacocks have an extravagant train of tail feathers, whereas female peahens lack this trait. this difference between the males and females of this species is referred to as:
This difference between males and females of this species is referred to as: sexual dimorphism.
What do you understand by sexual dimorphism?When two animals or plant species' sexes display differing morphological traits, particularly traits not directly related to reproduction, this condition is known as sexual dimorphism. Majority of animals and certain plants suffer from illness. there can also be sexual dimorphism of internal organs and biological functions, including immune system.
The phrase "sexual dimorphism" is typically only applied to secondary sexual traits that have no bearing on reproduction. Differences in length, weight, facial morphology, cognitive development, mortality, and illness prevalence are a few instances of sexual dimorphism.
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homologous structures, such as arms, wings, and fins, are constructed from the same basic bones and are adapted to locomotion in different environments. such structures support the idea of
Answer:
homologous structures (wings, fins, etc)
Explanation:
homologous structures are different than the opposite which are human hands for example. if you look at the anatomy of a human hand compared to a wing, you will see that humans hand have more bone structure than wings.
fun fact: by looking at animals X-rays of their hands wings etc, you can tell sort of where they evolved from. for example by looking a monkey's hands, we can tell that they evolved from either monkeys or humans and vice versa.
how does an abundance of tryptophan inhibit the production of more tryptophan? view available hint(s)for part a how does an abundance of tryptophan inhibit the production of more tryptophan? inhibit the activity of all three enzymes in the pathway inhibit the activity of the first and second enzymes in the pathway and repress expression of the genes encoding all subunits of the enzymes in the pathway inhibit the activity of the first enzyme in the pathway and repress the genes encoding all enzymes in the pathway repress expression of the genes encoding all subunits of the enzymes in the pathway inhibit the activity of all three enzymes in the pathway and repress expression of the genes encoding all subunits of the enzymes in the pathway
Tryptophan inhibits self-production as it builds up by activating the repressor protein, which binds to the operator and prevents transcription. Tryptophan synthesis enzymes are not produced.
This repressor-tryptophan complex binds to the trp operator when tryptophan is abundant. The operon is not transcribed because this binding prevents RNA polymerase from binding. On the other hand, the operon is transcribed when tryptophan levels drop because the repressor is unable to bind the operator.
An essential amino acid is tryptophan.
Three enzymes are responsible for the biosynthesis of the tryptophan enzyme.
The 5 structural genes that code for the enzymes are as follows:
1. TrpE and TrpD genes code for enzyme 1
2. Genes- trpC-enzyme 2
3. TrpB and TrpA genes; enzyme 3
Tryptophan acts as an inhibitor, which controls the synthesis of tryptophan when there is an abundance of the amino acid.
Feedback inhibition for short-term inhibition happens when the activity of an enzyme is controlled. Tryptophan allosterically inhibits enzyme 1 in the pathway during this kind of inhibition.
Repressor-mediated inhibition takes place for long-term inhibition. The repressor stops the genes from being transcribed, so no enzymes are produced.
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