Four long wires are each carrying 6.0 A. The wires are located
at the 4 corners of a square with side length 9.0 cm. All of
these wires are carrying current out of the page. The
magnetic field (in T) at one corner of the square is:

Answer:

A. K = 0.546 eV

B. cooper and iron will not emit electrons

Explanation:

A. This is a problem about photoelectric effect. Then you have the following equation:

[tex]K=h\nu-\Phi=h\frac{c}{\lambda} -\Phi[/tex]   (1)

K: kinetic energy of the ejected electron

Ф: Work function of the metal = 2.48eV

h: Planck constant = 4.136*10^{-15} eV.s

λ: wavelength of light = 410nm - 750nm

c: speed of light = 3*10^8 m/s

As you can see in the equation (1), higher the wavelength, lower the kinetic energy. Then, the maximum kinetic energy is obtained with the lower wavelength (410nm). Thus, you replace the values of all variables :

[tex]K=(4.136*10^{-15}eV)\frac{3*10^8m/s}{410*10^{-9}m}-2.48eV\\\\K=0.546eV[/tex]

B. First you calculate the energy of the photon with wavelengths of 410nm and 750nm

[tex]E_1=(4.136*10^{-15}eV)\frac{3*10^{8}m/s}{410*10^{-9}m}=3.02eV\\\\E_2=(4.13610^{-15}eV)\frac{3*10^{8}m/s}{750*10^{-9}m}=1.6544eV[/tex]

You compare the energies E1 and E2 with the work functions of the metals and you can conclude:

sodium = 2.3eV < E1

cesium = 2.1 eV < E1

cooper = 4.7eV > E1 (this metal will not emit electrons)

iron = 4.5eV > E1 (this metal will not emit electrons)

Answer:

a)Car E = Car D  > (Car F = Car B = Car C) > Car A

b)Car E = Car D  > (Car F = Car B = Car C) > Car A

Explanation:

Car A: mass = 500 kg; speed = 10 m/s

Car B: mass = 2000 kg;speed = 5 m/s

Car C:mass = 500 kg; speed = 20 m/s

Car D: mass = 1000 kg; speed = 20 m/s

Car E:mass = 4000 kg; speed = 5 m/s

Car F: mass = 1000 kg; speed = 10 m/s

Part a) Now we know that momentum of each car is product of mass and velocity , so we will have

CarA:

[tex]P_1 = m \times v\\P_1 = (500)(10)\\P_1 = 5 \times 10^3 kg m/s[/tex]

Car B:

[tex]P_2 = m v\\P_2 = (2000)(5)\\P_2 = 10^4 kg m/s[/tex]

Car C:

[tex]P_3 = m v\\P_3 = (500)(20)\\P_3 = 10^4 kg m/s[/tex]

Car D:

[tex]P_4 = m v\\P_4 = (1000)(20)\\P_4 = 2\times 10^4 kg m/s[/tex]

Car E:

[tex]P_5 = m v\\P_5 = (4000)(5)\\P_5 = 2\times 10^4 kg m/s[/tex]

Car F:

[tex]P_6 = m v\\P_6 = (1000)(10)\\P_6 = 10^4 kg m/s[/tex]

So the momentum is given as ,

Car E = Car D  > (Car F = Car B = Car C) > Car A

Part b)Impulse is given as change in momentum so here we can say that final momentum of all the cars will be zero as they all stops and hence the impulse is same as initial momentum of the car

so the order of impulse from largest to least is given as

Car E = Car D  > (Car F = Car B = Car C) > Car A

Answer:

65 m/h

Explanation:

Let the distance of the car moving south be y.

Let the distance of the car moving west be x.

Let the distance between the two cars be a.

These three distances can be represented as a right angled triangle. So we can say:

[tex]a^2 = x^2 + y ^2[/tex]

Let us differentiate with respect to time, since the distances are changing with respect to time:

[tex]2a\frac{da}{dt} = 2x\frac{dx}{dt} + 2y\frac{dy}{dt} \\\\=>a\frac{da}{dt} = x\frac{dx}{dt} + y\frac{dy}{dt}[/tex]__________(1)

da/dt = rate of change of distance between two cars

The speed of the car moving south (dy/dt) is 60 m/h and the speed of the car moving west (dx/dt) is 25 m/h.

Therefore:

dy/dt = 60 m/h and dx/dt  = 25 m/h

After two hours, the distance of the two cars will be:

y = 2 * 60 = 120 miles

x = 2 * 25 = 50 miles

Therefore:

[tex]a^2 = 50^2 + 120^2\\\\a^2 = 2500 + 14400 = 16900\\\\a = \sqrt{16900}\\ \\a = 130 miles[/tex]

From (1):

130(da/dt) = 50(25) + 120(60)

130(da/dt) = 1250 + 7200 = 8450

da/dt = 8450/130 = 65 m/h

Therefore, after two hours, the distance between the two cars is changing at a rate of 65 m/h.

Answer:

55.3

Explanation:

The computation of the number of bright-dark-bright fringe shifts observed is shown below:

[tex]\triangle m = \frac{2d}{\lambda} (n - 1)[/tex]

where

d = [tex]3.95 \times 10^{-2}m[/tex]

[tex]\lambda = 400 \times 10^{-9}m[/tex]

n = 1.00028

Now placing these values to the above formula

So, the  number of bright-dark-bright fringe shifts observed is

[tex]= \frac{2 \times3.95 \times 10^{-2}m}{400 \times 10^{-9}m} (1.00028 - 1)[/tex]

= 55.3

We simply applied the above formula so that the number of bright dark bright fringe shifts could come

Answer:

The nature of the wave formed is a transverse  progressive wave.

Explanation:

A wave is a disturbance that travels through a material medium without permanent displacement of the particles of the medium. The two major types are: transverse and longitudinal.

A transverse wave is one in which the direction of vibration of the particles of the medium is perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. Examples are: water wave, light wave etc. While a longitudinal wave is one in which the direction of vibrations of the particles of the medium is parallel with the direction of propagation of the wave, creating a region of rarefaction and compression. Examples are; sound wave, wave in a rope, wave in a slinky etc.

The cited wave formed in the given question is a transverse wave because each person stands and sits after some time to create a moving (progressive) wave without them moving from their positions.

Answer:

The average  emf induce is   [tex]V = 2.625 * 10^{-5} \ V[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

  The radius of the coil is  [tex]r = 0.30 \ m[/tex]

   The number of turns is  [tex]N = 420 \ turns[/tex]

    The frequency of the transition radio wave is  [tex]f = 1.3\ MHz = 1.3 *10^{6} Hz[/tex]

     The magnetic field is  [tex]B_,{max} = 1.7 * 10^{-13} \ T[/tex]

     The time taken for the magnetic field to go from zero to maximum is [tex]\Delta T = \frac{T}{4}[/tex]

The period of the transmitted radio wave is  [tex]T = \frac{1}{f}[/tex]

    So  

              [tex]\Delta T = \frac{T}{4} = \frac{1}{4 f}[/tex]

 The potential difference can be mathematically represented as

               [tex]V = NA (\frac{\Delta B}{\Delta T} )[/tex]

           [tex]V = NA ([B_{max} - B_{min} ] * 4f)[/tex]

Where  [tex]B_{min} = 0T[/tex]

substituting values

                   [tex]V = 420 * (\pi *(0.30)^2) * (1.7 *10^{-13} * 4 * 1.3 *10^{6})[/tex]

                  [tex]V = 2.625 * 10^{-5} \ V[/tex]

Answer:

This example shows that alloys are stronger than either of it's parent materials by themselves.

Explanation:

Since carbon is added to iron to make steel, it means steel is an alloy of iron and carbon.

This is because an alloy is a mixture of two or more elements, where at least one element is a metal.

Now, steel is stronger than either carbon or or iron by itself because Steel contains atoms of other elements including carbon and iron. These atoms have different sizes to iron carbon atoms, so they distort the layers of atoms in the pure iron and carbon. This means that a greater force is required for the layers to slide over each other in steel, so steel is harder than pure iron.

Answer:

Explanation:

total weight acting downwards

= 3g + 10g

13 g

volume of lead = 10 / 11.3 = .885 cm³

Let the volume of bobber submerged in water be v in floating position . buoyant force on bobber  = v x 1 x g

Buoyant force on lead =  .885 x 1 x g

total buoyant force = vg + .885 g

For floating

vg + .885 g  = 13 g

v = 12.115 cm³

total volume of bobber

= 4/3 x 3.14 x 2³

= 33.5 cm³

fraction of volume submerged

= 12.115  / 33.5

= .36  

= 36 %

The fraction of the bobber's volume submerged as a percent of the total volume is 36.2 %.

The given parameters;

The volume of the bobber is calculated as follows;

[tex]V = \frac{4}{3} \pi \times r^3\\\\V = \frac{4}{3} \pi \times (2)^3\\\\V = 33.52 \ cm^3[/tex]

The buoyant force experienced by the bobber due to the volume submerged is calculated as follows;

[tex]F _b= \rho Vg\\\\F_b = 1 \times V \times g\\\\F_b = Vg[/tex]

The volume of the lead is calculated as follows;

[tex]V = \frac{mass}{density} \\\\V = \frac{10}{11.3} \\\\V = 0.885 \ cm^3[/tex]

The buoyant force experienced by the lead due to the volume submerged is calculated as follows

[tex]F_b = \rho Vg\\\\F_b = 0.885 g[/tex]

The total buoyant force is calculated as;

[tex]Vg + 0.885g = (3+ 10)g\\\\g(V + 0.885) = 13g\\\\V+ 0.885 = 13\\\\V = 13 -0.885\\\\V = 12.12 \ cm^3[/tex]

The fraction of the bobber's volume submerged as a percent of the total volume is calculated as follows;

[tex]= \frac{12.12}{33.52} \times 100\%\\\\= 36.2 \ \%[/tex]

Learn more here:https://brainly.com/question/17009786

Explanation:

The first equation of motion in kinematics is given by :

[tex]v=u+at[/tex] .....(1)

u is initial speed

a is acceleration

v is final speed

t is time

Equation (1) is valid when the object is moving with constant acceleration. This equation gives relation between velocity and time.

Answer:

239 N/C

Explanation:

Electric field strength at distance R from a charge Q is given by the expression

E = k Q / R² where Q is charge , R is distance of charge from the point . k is a constant .

R = 40 cm , Q = 4.25 x 10⁻⁹

Putting the given values

E = 9 x 10⁹ x 4.25 x 10⁻⁹ / ( 40 x 10⁻²)²

= 239 N/C .

Answer:

I dont know someone deleted answers. But they were wrong. INERTIA IS CORRECT I DID THIS IN MY SCHOOL

C IS CORRECT

Answer:

Explanation:

capacitance of air capacitor

C = ε₀ A /  d

ε₀ is permittivity of medium , A is plate area , d is distance between plate .

C = 8.85 x 10⁻¹² x 25 x 10⁻⁴ / 1.3 x 10⁻²

= 170.19 x 10⁻¹⁴ F .

charge on the capacitor when it is charged to  potential of 255 V

= CV , C is capacitance and V is potential

= 170.19 x 10⁻¹⁴  x 255

= 4.34 x 10⁻¹⁰ C .

After it is disconnected from the source , and it is immersed in water , charge on it remains the same .

So its charge when immersed in water will be constant at 4.34 x 10⁻¹⁰ C.

b )

When it is immersed in water its capacity increases  k times where k is dielectric constant of water which is 80 .

capacitance of capacitor in water = 80 x 170.19 x 10⁻¹⁴  F

= 13615.2  x 10⁻¹⁴ F .

= 1.36 x 10⁻¹⁰ F

potential difference = charge / capacitance

= 4.34 x 10⁻¹⁰ / 1.36 x 10⁻¹⁰

= 3.2 V

c )

Energy of capacitor = 1/2 C V²

Initial energy = 1/2 x 170.19 x 255² x 10⁻¹⁴

=  55.33 x 10⁻⁹ J

Final energy = 1/2 x 1.36 x 10⁻¹⁰ x 3.2²

= .7  x 10⁻⁹ J .

decrease of energy = 54.63 x 10⁻⁹ J .

ANSWER: num 1 is black hole

Answer:

663N

Explanation:

We need to find the force that will overcome the frictional force.

The angle of the normal force is 15°.

The mass of the crate is 32 kg

The coefficient of static friction is 0.49

Frictional force is given in terms of Normal force as:

F = μNcosθ

where μ = coefficient of static friction

N = normal force

θ = angle of normal force

Frictional force is given as:

F = mg

=>mg = μNcosθ

=> N = mg/(μcosθ)

N = (32 * 9.8) / (0.49 * cos15)

N= 313.6 / 0.473

N = 663 N

The force needed to cause the box to move must be 663N or greater.

Answer:

for an object to be in equilibrium, it must be experiencing no acceleration. Both the net force and the net torque must be zero.

Hope I helped

Answer:

An object in static equilibrium has zero net force acting upon it.

The First Condition of Equilibrium is that the vector sum of all the forces acting on a body vanishes. This can be written as

 F = F1+ F2+ F3+ F4+. . . = 0

Answer:

Air masses move with the global pattern of winds. In most of the United States, air masses generally move from west to east. They may move along with the jet stream in more complex and changing patterns. 

Answer:

Answer D is correct

Explanation:

[tex]pressure = \frac{force}{area} \\ = \frac{320}{0.5} \\ = 640[/tex]

hope this helps

brainliest appreciated

good luck! have a nice day!

Answer:

vBxf = 0.08625m/s

Explanation:

This is a problem about the momentum conservation law. The total momentum before equals the total momentum after.

[tex]p_f=p_i[/tex]

pf: final momentum

pi: initial momentum

The analysis of the momentum conservation is about a horizontal momentum (x axis). When the quarterback jumps straight up, his horizontal momentum is zero. Then, after the quarterback throw the ball the sum of the momentum of both quarterback and ball must be zero.

Then, you have:

[tex]m_Qv_{Qxi}+m_{Bxi}v_{Bxi}=m_Qv_{Qxf}+m_{Bxf}v_{Bxf}[/tex]    (1)

mQ: the mass of the quarterback = 80kg

mB: the mass of the football = 0.43kg

(vQx)i: the horizontal velocity of quarterback before throwing the ball = 0m/s

(vBx)i: the horizontal velocity of football before being thrown = 0m/s

(vQx)f: the horizontal velocity of quarterback after throwing the ball = ?

(vBx)f: the horizontal velocity of football after being thrown = 15 m/s

You replace the values of the variables in the equation (1), and you solve for (vBx)f:

[tex]0\ kgm/s=-(80kg)(v_{Bxf})+(0.46kg)(15m/s)\\\\v_{Bxf}=\frac{(0.46kg)(15m/s)}{80kg}=0.08625\frac{m}{s}[/tex]

Where you have taken the speed of the quarterback as negative because is in the negative direction of the x axis.

Hence, the speed of the quarterback after he throws the ball is 0.08625m/s

Responder: 12000N

Explicación: Usando la fórmula para encontrar la eficiencia de una máquina. Eficiencia = ventaja mecánica / relación de velocidad × 100%

Dado MA = Carga / Esfuerzo

Relación de velocidad = distancia recorrida por esfuerzo (brazo de fuerza) / distancia recorrida por carga (brazo de resistencia)

MA = Carga / 3000

VR = 2 / 0.5 VR = 4

Asumiendo que la eficiencia es 100% 100% = (Carga / 3000) / 4 × 100%

1 = (Carga / 3000) / 4

4 = Carga / 3000

Carga = 4 × 3000

Carga = 12000N

Esto significa que el peso máximo que se puede levantar es 12000N

Answer:

The distance is  [tex]S = 39.2 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The distance covered after t = 1 s is  [tex]d = 4.9 \ m[/tex]

According to the equation of motion

      [tex]v^2 = u^2 + 2ad[/tex]

 Now  u  =  0 m/s  since before the drop the ball was at rest

     [tex]v^2 = 2ad[/tex]

here  [tex]a =g = 9.8 \ m/s^2[/tex]

    So

       [tex]v = 9.8 m/s[/tex]

Also from equation of motion we have that

     [tex]S = ut + \frac{1}{2} at^2[/tex]

Now at  t = 2 s , as given from the question

  Then  u =  v = 9.8 m/s

And

     [tex]S = 9.8 * 2 + \frac{1}{2} * (9.8) * (2^2)[/tex]

     [tex]S = 9.8 * 2 + \frac{1}{2} * (9.8) * (2^2)[/tex]

    [tex]S = 39.2 \ m[/tex]

Answer:

a) 0.147 N

b) 9.408 N

c) 9.261 N

Explanation:

The tension on the cord is the only force keeping the block in circular motion, thus representing the entirety of its centripetal force [tex]\frac{mv^{2} }{r}[/tex]. Plugging in values for initial and final states and we get answers for a and b. The work done by the person causes the centripetal force to increase, and thus is the difference between the final tension and the initial tension.

Answer:

Light is less energetic than X-rays.

Explanation:

The electromagnetic spectrum refers to the range of wavelengths or frequencies over which electromagnetic radiation extends. It is the entire range of wavelengths or frequencies of electromagnetic radiation extending from gamma rays to the longest radio waves and including visible light. In the electromagnetic spectrum, the entire distribution of electromagnetic radiation is done according to their frequency or wavelength.

The energy of an electromagnetic wave depends on its frequency and wavelength. The shorter the wavelength, the greater the energy of the electromagnetic wave but the larger frequency, the greater the energy of the electromagnetic wave.

X-rays has a frequency of about 1×10^20 Hz compared to visible light of frequency of about 1×10^15 Hz. Hence X-rays, having a larger frequency, is more energetic than visible light.

Answer:

The five kinds of stressors are:

Acute time-limited

Brief naturalistic

Stressful events sequences

Chronic

Distant

Explanation:

yeah

Answer:

Explanation:

The velocity at the inlet and exit of the control volume are same [tex]V_i=V_e=V[/tex]

Calculate the inlet and exit velocity of water jet

[tex]V=V_j+V_e\\\\V=30+14\\\\V=44m/s[/tex]

The conservation of mass equation of steady flow

[tex]\sum ^e_i\bar V. \bar A=0\\\\(-V_iA_i+V_eA_e)=0[/tex]

[tex]A_i\ \texttt {is the inlet area of the jet}[/tex]

[tex]A_e\ \texttt {is the exit area of the jet}[/tex]

since inlet and exit velocity of water jet are equal so the inlet and exit cross section area of the jet is equal

The expression for thickness of the jet

[tex]A_i=A_e\\\\\frac{\pi}{4} D_j^2=2\pi Rt\\\\t=\frac{D^2_j}{8R}[/tex]

R is the radius

t is the thickness of the jet

D_j is the diameter of the inlet jet

[tex]t=\frac{(100\times10^{-3})^2}{8(230\times10^{-3}} \\\\=5.434mm[/tex]

(b)

[tex]R-x=\rho(AV_r)[-(V_i)+(V_c)\cos 60^o]\\\\=\rho(V_j+V_c)A[-(V_i+V_c)+(V_i+V_c)\cos 60^o]\\\\=\rho(V_j+V_c)(\frac{\pi}{4}D_j^2 )[V_i+V_c](\cos60^o-1)][/tex]

[tex]1000kg/m^3=\rho\\\\44m/s=(V_j+V+c)\\\\100\times10^{-3}m=D_j[/tex]

[tex]R_x=[1000\times(44)\frac{\pi}{4} (10\times10^{-3})^2[(44)(\cos60^o-1)]]\\\\=-7603N[/tex]

The negative sign indicate that the direction of the force will be in opposite direction of our assumption

Therefore, the horizontal force is -7603N

Answer:

I = 4.189 mA    V = 0.338 V

Explanation:

In order to do this, we need to apply the following expression:

I = Is[exp^(qV/kT) - 1]   (1)

However, as the junction of the diode is illuminated, the above expression changes to:

I = Iopt + Is[exp^(qV/kT) - 1]   (2)

Now, as the shunt resistance becomes infinite while the current becomes zero, we can say that the leakage current is small, and so:

I ≅ Iopt

Therefore:

I ≅ I₀Aλq / hc  (3)

Where:

I₀A = Area of diode (radiation)

λ: wavelength

q: electron charge (1.6x10⁻¹⁹ C)

h: Planck constant (6.62x10⁻³⁴ m² kg/s)

c: speed of light (3x10⁸ m/s)

Replacing all these values, we can get the current:

I = (8x10⁻³) * (0.65x10⁻⁶) * (1.6x10⁻¹⁹) / (6.62x10⁻³⁴) * (3x10⁸)

I = 4.189x10⁻³ A or 4.189 mA

Now that we have the current, we just need to replace this value into the expression (2) and solve for the voltage:

I = Is[exp^(qV/kT) - 1]

k: boltzman constant (1.38x10⁻²³ J/K)

4.189x10⁻³ = 9x10⁻⁹ [exp(1.6x10⁻¹⁹ V / 1.38x10⁻²³ * 300) - 1]

4.189x10⁻³ / 9x10⁻⁹ = [exp(38.65V) - 1]

465,444.44 + 1  = exp(38.65V)

ln(465,445.44) = 38.65V

13.0508 = 38.65V

V = 0.338 V

Answer:

D. Presynaptic terminal button

explanation:

Terminal Buttons are small knobs at the end of an axon that release chemicals called neurotransmitters. The terminal buttons form the Presynaptic Neuron

hope this helped!

Answer:

d. 1.00 m

Explanation:

In 1905, Einstein proposed special theory of relativity of light.

This theory had a number of consequences or results. One of them is called "Length Contraction".

According to this consequence, whenever an object travels at a speed comparable to the speed of light, its length decreases.

But this decrease in length is only seen in the dimension, which is parallel to the direction of motion of the body. All other dimensions of the object remains same.

In the given situation, the length of meter stick is not parallel to the direction of motion, but it is perpendicular. Hence, the length of meter stick will be same as the length of meter stick at rest. Hence, the correct option will be:

d. 1.00 m

Answer:

(A) 3. Dipoles in the plastic will polarize and orient themselves radially, with their negativeends pointing toward the center

(B) 2. There will be no polarization inside the glass sphere since the net electric field there is zero.

Explanation: charges are only distributed on the surface of the charged hollow conductor. The core must have zero charge.

(C) 2. Larger, because the positive charges displaced during polarization are closer to P than thenegative charges.

Answer:

(a) [tex]emf_L=-LI_{max}\omega cos(\omega t)[/tex]

(b) neither increasing or decreasing

(c) opposite to the flow of charge carriers

Explanation:

The current through an inductor of inductance L is given by:

[tex]I(t)=I_{max}sin(\omega t)[/tex]   (1)

(a) The induced emf is given by the following formula

[tex]emf_L=-L\frac{dI}{dt}[/tex]    (2)

You derivative the expression (1) in the expression (2):

[tex]emf_L=-L\frac{d}{dt}(I_{max}sin(\omega t))\\\\emf_L=-LI_{max}\omega cos(\omega t)[/tex]

(b) At t=0 the current is zero

(c) At t = 0 the emf is:

[tex]emf_L=-\omega LI_{max}[/tex]

w, L and Imax have positive values, then the emf is negative. Hence, the induced emf is opposite to the flow of the charge carriers.

(d) read the text carefully

At t zero,  the current through the inductor neither increasing nor decreasing because current is zero.

The current through an inductor of inductance L can be calculated by

[tex]\bold {I_t = I_m_a_x sin (\omega t)}[/tex].........1  

(a) The induced emf can be calculated by  

[tex]\bold {emf_L = - L \dfrac {dI}{dt}}[/tex]............2  

Derivative the equation (1) in the equation (2)

[tex]\bold {emf _L= -L \dfrac {d (I _m_a_x sin (\omega t)} {dt}}\\\\\bold {emf _L= -L (I _m_a_x \omega cos( \omega t) }[/tex]

(b) At t=0 the current is zero,

(c) At t = 0 the emf is:

[tex]\bold {emf_L = -\omega LI _m_a_x}[/tex]  

Therefore, at t zero,  the current through the inductor neither increasing nor decreasing because current is zero.

To know more about inductance,

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