HELP QUICK ILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!!!!

Answer:

(27xy +3)/5x^2 +6x

Step-by-step explanation:

((15xy^2 )/ x^2 + 5x + 6 ) × ((2x^2 + 7x + 3) / 5x^2y)

(3y ×(2x+ 7x + 3)) / 5x^2 +6x)

Answer:

15 feets 2 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the widths :

1st dresser = 5 feets 5 inches

2nd dresser = 5 feets 10 inches

3rd dresser = 3 feets 11 inches

Their combined width is :

5ft + 5ft + 3 ft + 5in + 10in + 11in

13 feets 26 inches

Recall :

1 foot = 12 inches

26 inches = 26/12 feets = 2 feets 2 inches

Hence,

13 feets + 2feets 2 inches

Combined width = 15 feets 2 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]hope \: its \: helful[/tex]

if cos7x - cos8x/1 + 2cos5x = cos(ax) - cos(bx), where a, b are positive integers, then a²+b²= 100.

The given equation is:

cos7x - cos8x/1 + 2cos5x = cos(ax) - cos(bx)

The LHS can be expanded as follows:

cos7x - cos8x/1 + 2cos5x = (2*cos4x*sin3x)/(2*cos2x) = sin3x

The RHS can be expanded as follows:

cos(ax) - cos(bx) = -2sin((a + b)/2)*sin((a - b)/2)

For the given equation to be true, the following must be true:

sin3x = -2sin((a + b)/2)*sin((a - b)/2)

3x = 180(a + b)/2

3x = 180(a - b)/2

Solving for a and b, we get a=6 and b=3.

Therefore, a² + b² = 6² + 3²=100.

To learn more about positive integers, here

https://brainly.com/question/26051073

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Answer:

The house is 6274.8 feet from the pilot.

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

subtracting equation i from it got cropped

so the answer for x is 7 and y is -17

hope this helps. :)

Answer:

-10

Step-by-step explanation:

5(2) or fives times two is positive ten. The rule about multiplying with negatives is a negative times a positive is a negative. We take the multiplication answer from 5(2)=10 and apple the nagative from 5(-2). Hope this helps:)

Answer:

75 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

From the first part of the diagram,

vertically opposite angles are equal,

hence we have

125° + (4x-5)° + 125° + (4x-5)° = 360°

(Angles about a point equals 360°)

4x – 5 + 4x – 5 + 125 + 125 = 360

8x + 250 – 10 = 360

8x = 360–250 + 10

8x = 120

x = 15°

Now we have (5x)° in the second part.

5x = 5 × 15 = 75°

1 is vertically opposite to angle 75°

hence it is equal to 75 degrees.

Answer:75

Step-by-step explanation:

The first pump fills one tank in 2 hours, so it works at a unit rate of (1 tank)/(2 hours) = 0.5 tanks/hour.

The second pump takes 3 hours to fill the same tank, so it works at a rate of (1 tank)/(3 hours) ≈ 0.33 tanks/hour.

Working together, the pumps can fill one tank at a rate of

(1/2 + 1/3) tanks/hour = (3/6 + 2/6) tanks/hour = 5/6 tanks/hour ≈ 0.83 tanks/hour

Then the time it takes both pumps to fill one tank is

(1 tank) / (5/6 tanks/hour) = 6/5 hours = 1.2 hours = 72 minutes

Explanation:

For any 30-60-90 triangle, the short leg is half of the hypotenuse. The short leg is opposite the smallest angle 30 degrees.

So this means n = 10/2 = 5

Because n = 5, there's only one answer choice that fits and it's choice C.

49 - 2/3 x = 32 - 1/6 x

Move the constant terms to one side and the terms containing x to the other:

49 - 32 = 2/3 x - 1/6 x

Simplify the left side, and pull out the common factor of x on the right side:

17 = (2/3 - 1/6) x

Write the fractions in terms of a common denominator. In this case, you would take

2/3 = 4/6

so that

(2/3 - 1/6) x = (4/6 - 1/6) x = 3/6 x = 1/2 x

Then the equation is

17 = 1/2 x

Multiply both sides by 2:

2 × 17 = 2 × 1/2 x

34 = x

Answer:

C. Complex

Step-by-step explanation:

A complex number consists of a real part (-4.8) and an imaginary part (56i)

Answer: [tex]a=\sqrt{60}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve for a, we want to use Pythagorean Theorem as provided int eh problem. a and 2 are the legs while 8 is the hypotenuse.

[tex]a^2+2^2=8^2[/tex]           [exponent]

[tex]a^2+4=64[/tex]            [subtract both sides by 4]

[tex]a^2=60[/tex]                  [square root both sides]

[tex]a=\sqrt{60}[/tex]

Now we know that [tex]a=\sqrt{60}[/tex].

Answer:

x=4and -5/7

Step-by-step explanation:

i hope it will be easy

[tex]\huge\text{Hey there!}[/tex]

[tex]\large\text{Equation}\downarrow[/tex]

[tex]\large\textsf{(2x - 8)(7x + 5) = 0}[/tex]

[tex]\large\text{Step-by-Step}\downarrow[/tex]

[tex]\large\text{SIMPLIFY EACH SIDES OF THE EQUATION}[/tex]

[tex]\large\textsf{14x}\mathsf{^2} \large\textsf{ - 14x - 40 = 0}[/tex]

[tex]\large\text{FACTOR the LEFT SIDE of the EQUATION}[/tex]

[tex]\large\textsf{2 (7x + 5) (x - 4) = 0}[/tex]

[tex]\large\text{SET the FACTORS to EQUAL 0}[/tex]

[tex]\large\textsf{7x + 5 = 0 OR x - 4 = 0}[/tex]

[tex]\large\text{SIMPLIFY BOTH OF YOUR EQUATIONS \& YOU HAVE YOUR ANSWER}[/tex]

[tex]\boxed{\boxed{\large\textsf{Therefore, your ANSWER is: \bf x = }\mathsf{\bf - \dfrac{5}{7}\large\textsf{ \bf or x = 4}}}} \huge\checkmark[/tex]

[tex]\huge\text{Good luck on your assignment \& enjoy your day!}[/tex]

~[tex]\frak{Amphitrite1040:)}[/tex]

Answer:

I. Amount = 5618 Rupees

II. Compound interest = 618 Rupees

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the compound interest;

Mathematically, compound interest is calculated using the formula;

A = P(1 + r)^t

Where;

Substituting into the formula, we have;

A = 5000(1 + 0.06)^2

A = 5000(1.06)^2

A = 5000 * 1.1236

A = 5618 Rupees

Next, we would determine the compound interest using the formula;

C.I = A - P

C.I = 5618 - 5000

Compound interest (C.I) = 618 Rupees

Answer:

Option (1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Surface area of a cylindrical vessel is given by the expression,

Surface area = [tex]2\pi r^{2}+2\pi rh[/tex]

                     = [tex]2\pi r(r+h)[/tex]

Here, r = Radius of the vessel

h = Length of the vessel

By substituting the values of 'h' and surface area in the expression,

2πr(12 + h) = 540

Therefore, Option (1) will be the correct option.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Because the cosine is a positive function from which we can deduce                   [tex]\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\la\la\la\la\ddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddcleverdddddd\ffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffff\pppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppp\dddddd \displaystyle \Large \boldsymbol{Rule : cos(-\alpha)=cos\alpha } \\\\\\ \cos\bigg(\frac{-3\pi }{4} \bigg)=cos135=-sin45=-\frac{\sqrt{2} }{2} \\\\\\cos\bigg(\frac{5\pi }{4} \bigg)=cos225=-sin45=-\frac{\sqrt{2} }{2}[/tex]                            Therefore, they are equal                      

Answer:

x = 14

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum of the interior angles of a six sided figure is 720

10x + 8x-16+12x-8 +7x+2 +9x+4 +6x+10 = 720

Combine like terms

52x-8=720

Add 8 to each side

52x-8+8 = 720+8

52x = 728

Divide by 52

52x/52 = 728/52

x = 14

Step-by-step explanation:

here's the answer for thy question

At the start, it's given that x₁ (0) = 80 lb and x₂ (0) = 30 lb.

The amounts of salt in either tank change according to

dx₁/dt = (2 gal/min) (x₂/(100 - t ) lb/gal) - (3 gal/min) (x₁/(100 + t ) lb/gal)

dx₂/dt = (3 gal/min) (x₁/(100 + t ) lb/gal) - (2 gal/min) (x₂/(100 - t ) lb/gal)

To break this down a bit, consider tank A, for instance:

• solution flows in from B at a rate of 2 gal/min

• the volume of liquid in tank B after t minutes is

100 gal + (2 gal/min - 3 gal/min) (t min) = (100 - t ) gal

because the tank starts with 100 gallons of liquid, and 2 gallons are pumped in while 3 gal are pumped out each minute

• at any time t, the solution in B contains x₂ pounds of salt

• the concentration of the solution in A is then x₂/(100 - t ) lb/gal

• multiplying this by the inflow rate tells you how much salt is moving around each minute

Answer:

My best guess rn is the first option

Step-by-step explanation:

the last dude had it close but it was basically flipped as you can tell.

The answer is (C) [tex]R_2=\frac{R_TR_1}{(R_1-R_T)}[/tex]

We need to make [tex]R_2[/tex] the subject of the formula [tex]R_T=\frac{R_1R_2}{R_1+R_2}[/tex]

First remove the denominator by multiplying both sides by the binomial [tex](R_1+R_2)[/tex]

[tex]R_T\times (R_1+R_2)=\frac{R_1R_2}{R_1+R_2}\times(R_1+R_2)\\\\R_TR_1+R_TR_2=R_1R_2[/tex]

Arrange all terms containing [tex]R_2[/tex] on one side

[tex]R_1R_2-R_TR_2=R_TR_1[/tex]

Factor out [tex]R_2[/tex] from the LHS

[tex]R_2(R_1-R_T)=R_TR_1[/tex]

Finally, divide both sides by the binomial [tex](R_1-R_T)[/tex] to leave [tex]R_2[/tex]

[tex]R_2(R_1-R_T)\times\frac{1}{(R_1-R_T)}=R_TR_1\times\frac{1}{(R_1-R_T)}\\\\R_2=\frac{R_TR_1}{(R_1-R_T)}[/tex]

Learn more about change of subject of formula here: https://brainly.com/question/343660

Answer:

$203

Step-by-step explanation:

15x8=$120

120+83=$203

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

we have 8 choises   8  its even number so

we can write 8= 2*4

X=4 ss the answear between the fiveth  and sixeth choise  72+92/2 AND YOU WILL FIND THE ANSWEAR

the probability is made of the desired outcome divided by the total outcome.

desired = wins = 8

total = wins and losses = 15

8/15 is the probability (approx. 53%)

hope it helps :)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

(x+3)² -5 =0 , use the formula (a+b) ² = a²+b²+2ab

x²+9 +6x -5 =0 , combine like terms

x²+6x +4 =0, use the quadratic formula x = (-b±√b²-4ac)/2a

x= (-6 ±√6²-4*1*4)/2*1

x= (-6 ± √36-16) /2

x= (-6±√20)/2

x=(-6 +2√5)/2 and x=( -6-2√5) /2, factor 2 in the numerator and simplify

x= -3 +√5 and x= -3 -√5

Answer:

The answer is B..... The corresponding is the identical number between all

The is 7 in each...

Answer:

Bajaj Pulsar of a great time in the 7th century there where you will have the gall the subcontinent the

Answer:

Mary would have to work 5 hours to afford a mobile phone.

Step-by-step explanation:

$15-$4.25= $10.75 that Mary would need to save.

2.15 x 5= 10.75

Answer:

0*i+5j

Step-by-step explanation:

The vector is given by 0*i+5j

Answer:

2^0

Step-by-step explanation:

When you are dividing 2 exponents with the same base (in this case, 2) you subtract them. 2^5 ➗ 2^5 => 2^(5-5) = 2^0 => which is equal to 1, but the answer here would be 2^0.

There are two ways to go about this problem.

The first way, the generic way, is to know that,

[tex]\frac{a^n}{a^m}=a^{n-m},a\neq0[/tex].

So,

[tex]\frac{2^5}{2^5}=2^{5-5}=\boxed{2^0}[/tex].

The second way is to realise that both numerator and denominator are equal and when diving two equal numbers you obtain 1. (except when diving zeros) aka,

[tex]\frac{a}{a}=1, a\neq0[/tex]

And 1 equals to any number raised to the power of zero,

[tex]a^0=1,a\neq0[/tex]

So we just have to say that the 1 we got is rewritten as some base to the power of zero.

Since our base needs to be 2, we just simply say,

[tex]2^0[/tex].

Et Viola.

Hope this helps.