a four-year-old child diagnosed with leukemia presents with a headache, nausea and vomiting, and slight confusion. which action should the nurse take?
The action that the nurse should take is securing consent for lumbar puncture. The correct option is a.
What is leukemia?Cancers of the blood cells are collectively referred to as leukemia. The type of blood cell that develops into cancer and how rapidly or slowly it grows determine the type of leukemia.
Headache, nausea, vomiting, and mild confusion in a child with leukemia are signs of central nervous system involvement. The nurse obtains parental or guardian approval after informing them that the youngster may have a lumbar puncture.
Therefore, the correct option is a. Secure consent for lumbar puncture.
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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:
a. Secure consent for lumbar puncture.
b. Assess the child's level of consciousness.
c. Administer acetaminophen as prescribed.
d. Reassure parents that symptoms are expected.
for a client who has a chest tube connected to a closed water-seal drainage system, the nurse should include which action in the care plan?
For a client that has a chest tube connected to a closed water seal drainage system, the nurse should include the action of measuring and documenting drainage in the collection chamber in the client's care plan.
In the case above, the patient has a chest tube connected to a closed water seal drainage system. In this case, the nurse that's tending to the patient should measure and document the amount of drainage regularly. The purpose is to detect abnormal drainage patterns. If excessive, it may indicate a hemorrhage. If decreased, it may indicate a blockage. Make sure that the collection chamber is kept below chest level.
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which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? a.syncope and bleeding at distal sites b.general weakness and diaphoresis c.local swelling and ecchymosis d.signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion
The early sign of pit viper envenomation is syncope and bleeding at distal sites. thus, option A is correct.
What is Suprapubic catheter?
A Suprapubic catheter has been used for the drainage of urine from the bladder and it consists of a hollow flexible tube and a client is admitted with a head injury and has large amounts of clear, colorless urine draining from the urinary catheter.
A suprapubic catheter is used for long-term continuous drainage and is inserted through a small incision above the pubic area. Suprapubic bladder drainage diverts urine from the urethra when injury, stricture, prostatic obstruction, or abdominal surgery has compromised the flow of urine through the urethra.
Therefore, The physiological response is possibly causing the increased urine output Suprapubic catheter.
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which condition does the nurse anticipate in a patient with mild dementia with impaired physical function and lack of self-management.
What nurses do when caring for patients with mild dementia with impaired physical function and lack of self-management is to provide a safe place and communicate in simple, slow, and clear sentences.
Dementia is a group of conditions characterized by a decrease in at least two brain functions, such as loss of memory and judgment.
Symptoms of dementia include forgetfulness, limited social skills, and the ability to think so severely that it interferes with daily functioning.
However, medications and therapy can help manage the symptoms and some of the causes can be explained. Dementia is caused by damage to the brain's nerve cells in certain parts, thereby reducing the ability to communicate with other body nerves.
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if a patient is taking fluconazole (diflucan) with an oral anticoagulant, the nurse will monitor for which possible interaction?
The nurse will monitor for Increased effects of oral anticoagulants possible interaction.
What are anticoagulants give examples?Warfarin, commonly known as Coumadin, and other anticoagulants like heparin slow down the clotting process in your body. Antiplatelets, including such aspirin and antiplatelet, stop platelets, which are blood cells, from congregating to form a clot. Most patients who have suffered a stroke or a heart attack take antiplatelets.
What dangers come with using an anticoagulant?Thromboembolism is frequently treated and prevented with anticoagulant drugs. Despite being very effective, they come with considerable risks of bleeding. Age, anemia, and renal illness are only a few of the individual clinical variables that have been associated to an elevated risk of bleeding.
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Shere Hite's book Women and Love reported that 70% of women married 5 years or more were having affairs. She based
her findings on a 4.5% response rate from mailings to an unrepresentative sample of 100,000 women. Not only was her
response rate low, but also the women initially contacted were members of women's organizations. Another psychologist
applied improved research methods and found that in fact only 1 in 7 (14%) report having had an affair during her current
marriage. The critical research method that this psychologist used to get a more accurate statistic was called
O experimentation
Ocorrelation
O random sampling
Owording effects
Answer:
The question?
in primary immune thrombocytopenia purpura (itp), the client has which type of disorder that primarily destroys which blood component?
The autoimmune disorder known as immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP) is marked by the destruction of platelets by the immune system.
A reduction in the quantity of platelets in the blood is a characteristic of the blood condition known as immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Blood cells called platelets aid in the cessation of bleeding. Easy bruising, bleeding gums, and internal bleeding are all symptoms of platelet deficiency. An immune response directed against one's platelets results in this sickness. Another name for it is autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura.
In thrombocytopenia, the blood's platelet count is reduced.A bruise-like purple discoloration of the skin is referred to as purpura.ITP is a blood condition that can affect both children and adults.
Acute thrombocytopenic purpura: Ages 2 to 6 years old children are often affected by this. The signs and symptoms might come after a viral infection like chickenpox. The symptoms of acute ITP typically emerge rapidly and diminish in less than 6 months, frequently in a matter of weeks. Treatment is frequently unnecessary. Usually, the condition doesn't come back. The most prevalent type of the condition is acute ITP.
Chronic thrombocytopenic purpura: The symptoms of the illness might appear at any age and endure for at least six months, a number of years, or a lifetime. Although it affects teens, this kind is more common in adults. It affects women more frequently than men. Recurrence of chronic ITP is common.
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osteoporosis drugs are most commonly used in post-menopausal women. why is this population in most need of treatment? g
Because estrogen, a female hormone that aids in maintaining bone mass, is less present in women's bodies after menopause, they are more likely to develop osteoporosis.
What is drug explain?Substances that alter a person's physically or mentally state are known as drugs. They might have an impact on your senses, behaviour, comprehension, emotions, and brain function. They are so unpredictable and hazardous, particularly for young individuals. Drug results differ types of drugs and the user.
What purpose do drugs serve?Medicines are materials or molecules that alleviate symptoms, treat, stop, or prevent illness, or help with disease diagnosis. Doctors can now save and treat numerous diseases because of advances in medicine.
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What are 3 examples of unintentional injuries?.
The most common unintentional injuries result from motor vehicle crashes, falls, fires and burns, drowning, poisonings and aspirations.
what are unintentional injuries?
Unintentional injuries are those injuries that are not inflicted purposely and that occur without intent of harm.
Child injury has important consequences for lifelong health and
wellbeing. To ensure prevention activities are effective, they need to
be incorporated into local plans and strategies that aim to improve the
population’s health
1.support for multispectral working and a requirement for agencies
to work in partnership
2.support for data collection on the incidence, severity, cause and
place of injury, and evidence that these data are being used to
inform decision-making and monitor outcomes
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a nurse was administering a scheduled subcutaneous dose of heparin to a patient who has hiv when the needle penetrated the nurse's thumb. what prophylactic action should the nurse first take?
Wash the wounded location with soap and water to remove any dirt and debris.
Is getting into nursing school difficult?There is a ton of material to learn, challenging examinations, confusing schedules, and an endless supply of assignments. All of these characteristics may make it difficult for you to succeed academically. Nursing is a tremendously competitive job from the moment you begin the application process until you finish.
Is there a role for math in nursing?Although almost every institution requires at least one college-level math course, usually algebra, nursing in the "real world" generally just requires basic arithmetic skills.
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ohn is the compliance officer for abc medical group. if one of the providers ask john the meaning of the acronym cert, how should he reply? a. certified entry rate technology b. comprehensive error rate testing c. comprehensive error rate technology d. certified error rate technology
Certified error rate technology to one of the providers ask john the meaning of the acronym cert, how should he reply
What does the word CERT mean at its root?root, -cert- The word "cert" is derived from Latin and means "certain; sure; true." Words like "ascertain," "certain," "certificate," "certify," "concert," and "disconcerted" all have this meaning.
What roles does CERT play?US-CERT is in charge of identifying and minimizing cyberthreats and vulnerabilities, sharing information on cyberthreat warnings, and organizing incident response procedures.
How can CERT help victims of cyberattacks by offering services?the avoidance of cyberattacks against the nation's cyberspace. Taking action after a cyberattack to minimize damage and speed up recovery can ultimately reduce the country's susceptibility to cyberattacks. increasing the general public's understanding of cyberspace.
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drugs that are used to decrease blood cholesterol are called: group of answer choices antihypertensives thrombolytics antihyperlipidemics antiarrhythmics
Drugs that are used to decrease blood cholesterol are called antihyperlipidemic.
Blood lipid levels are reduced by antihyperlipidemic drugs. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol and triglyceride levels are the goals of certain antihyperlipidemic medications, whereas high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol is the goal of others. They can avoid both the primary and secondary symptoms of coronary heart disease by lowering LDL cholesterol.
A class of medications called lipid-lowering medicines, often referred to as cholesterol-lowering, hypolipidemic, or antihyperlipidemic agents, is used to lower high blood levels of lipids (fats) and lipoproteins (fats containing protein).
The lipid-lowering medications are used to treat dyslipidemia and hypercholesterolemia. These substances rank among the most widely prescribed drugs in the country.
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the physician prescribed furosemide for mrs. campbell. which lab value do you need to obtain and evaluate before administering furosemide?
The physician prescribed furosemide for Mrs. Campbell. Serum potassium levels need to Be obtained and evaluate before administering furosemide.
Furosemide is utilized alone or in combination with other solutions to treat high blood weight. Furosemide is utilized to treat edema caused by different medical issues, counting heart, kidney, and liver illnesses. Furosemide is in a lesson of drugs called diuretics. It works by causing the kidneys to urge rid of unneeded water and salt from the body into the urine. High blood pressure could be a common condition and when not treated, can cause harm to the brain, heart, blood vessels, kidneys, and other parts of the body. Harm to these organs may cause, a heart attack, heart disease, heart failure or a stroke, kidney failure, misfortune of vision, and other issues.
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the nurse is assessing clients on a cardiac unit. which client does the nurse assess most carefully for developing left-sided heart failure?
Clients at a cardiac unit are being evaluated by the nurse. A middle-aged woman with aortic stenosis is the patient the nurse evaluates most carefully for developing left-sided heart failure.
The heart's ability to pump blood is lost in left-sided heart failure. As a result, organs cannot get adequate oxygen. Complications of the condition include organ damage and right-sided heart failure. There are two distinct forms of left-sided heart failure: heart failure with systole: Your left ventricle, the bottom pumping chamber of your heart, is unable to adequately pump blood to your body. Heart failure with low ejection fraction is another name for it. Diastolic heart failure: The stiffness of the left ventricle prevents it from relaxing properly, which makes it challenging to fill with blood. The term cardiac failure with maintained ejection fraction is another name for this situation.
People who have coronary artery disease, heart attacks, high blood pressure, valvular heart disease, abnormal heart rhythms, and infiltrative illnesses like amyloid and sarcoid may experience left-sided heart failure. Additionally, certain cancer chemotherapy regimens that produce cardiotoxicity, diabetes, obesity, sleep apnea, advanced age, smoking, and heart-harming substances including certain medicines and energy drinks are risk factors for left-sided heart failure. Less frequently but nonetheless present are in several drugs used to treat various disease processes, including autoimmune illnesses and attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
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which medications are often used to provide adrenal support for the patient with severe sepsis? select all that apply.
Epinephrine are often used to provide adrenal support for the patient with severe sepsis
What is sepsis ?When an infection that is already present in your body causes an extreme immune response, sepsis results. Your immune system releases proteins and other chemicals to fight an infection when it occurs. When this reaction spirals out of control, it leads to significant inflammation, which is sepsis.
According to the Surviving Sepsis Campaign recommendations, epinephrine should be used as a second-line vasopressor. Strong alpha- and beta-adrenergic activity causes it to raise mean arterial pressure by boosting cardiac output and vasomotor tone.Learn more about Sepsis here:
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a postoperative patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with hypovolemic shock. which nursing action does the nurse delegate to an experienced nursing assistant?
Nursing action the nurse delegate to an experienced nursing assistant is to Measure hourly urine output
What is hypovolemic shock ?Severe blood or other fluid loss renders the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body, resulting in hypovolemic shock, a life-threatening condition. Many organs may stop functioning after this kind of shock.
The nurse assigns the hourly urine output measurement on a patient in hypovolemic shock to an accomplished ICU UAP. Nursing assistant education covers monitoring hourly urine output and doesn't call for any unique clinical judgment. The results will be assessed by the nurse. Critical care nurses must use their clinical judgement when taking vital signs, checking oxygen saturation, and gauging a patient's mental state when they are critically ill because an urgent intervention might be required.Learn more about Hypovolemic shock here:
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There are so many of us you will probably have a hard time seeing just one of us. I am small but i have a big job. I make compounds that build your muscles, fight disease, transports oxygen, and speed up your metabolism. What am i?.
Answer:
BLOOD CELLS RBC it has hemoglobin with helps in oxygen transportation and RBC that improves metabolism and fight disease
the total of all amounts due to a physician, from all patients, for services rendered or procedures performed is called the
The total of all amounts due to a physician from patients for services rendered or procedures performed is called the accounts receivable.
What do you understand by accounts receivable?
Account receivable services include management of reports dealing with insurance, write-offs, bad debt reviews, collection analysis, and ratio analysis. It also contains an analysis of insurance contracts to ensure healthcare providers are being reimbursed correctly.
The recording and processing of financial transactions relating to sales and customers is called accounts receivable . The opportunities span over a number of roles such as: billing analyst who liaise with the organization's sales teams to carry out invoicing of customers.
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a client has just been started on opioid analgesia for pain control. the nurse assesses the client's level of sedation using a sedation scale and notes that the client is awake and alert. the nurse would assign which rating?
The nurse would assign which rating is 1.
A physiological response of sympathetic activation may indicate the presence of pain. Behaviors that may indicate pain include splinting, grimacing, moaning or groaning, slouched posture, and reluctance to move. Pain assessment in the Progressive Dementia Scale is a reliable assessment tool for people with dementia. It can be used for both nonverbal and verbal patients.
After the administration of analgesics, a re-evaluation will be performed to determine if the intervention was effective. Reassessment will occur within 60 minutes after drug administration. Effective methods of postoperative analgesia include prophylactic analgesia 24-hour analgesia PCA PRN administration breakthrough pain management and non-pharmacological interventions.
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a client admitted to the telemetry unit has a serum potassium level of 6.6 meq/l. which electrocardiographic (ecg) characteristic is commonly associated with this laboratory finding?
The electrocardiographic characteristic commonly associated with this laboratory finding is Peaked T waves.
The client has a high serum potassium level. The T-wave is an ECG feature that reflects ventricular repolarization. High serum potassium levels in the client can cause it to become large or spiky. The U-wave is an ECG waveform that can reflect the repolarization of the Purkinje fibers.
It is usually seen when the client's serum potassium level is low. The P-wave is an EKG characteristic that reflects the conduction of electrical impulses through the atria and is independent of the patient's serum potassium level. The QT interval is an ECG characteristic that reflects the time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization and is independent of the patient's serum potassium level.
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which information should the nurse include when providing discharge instructions to a client with psoriasis? trim fingernails regularly. avoid applying creams after bathing. use a washcloth when bathing. scrub vigorously when bathing to remove scales on skin.
According to the declaration, one feeding should be eliminated gradually.
What purposes do creams serve?Creams are also beneficial for dry hands, elbows, and heels as well as other rough areas. Since the skin's natural oil production decreases with age, several anti-aging face moisturizers include cream formulations. Creams are also frequently used to treat skin disorders like rashes and eczema.
How do creams get put on?Always properly dry and wash your hands before applying anything. The skin should be directly treated with topicals. Apply the cream evenly over the afflicted region in a thin layer. They should not be smoothed or rubbed into the skin, but rather lightly spread.
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a nurse is teaching a patient about warfarin (coumadin). what assessment finding by the nurse indicates a possible barrier to self-management?
A nurse is teaching a patient about warfarin (coumadin) .Then, the nurse should had to indicate strict vegetarian for self- management.
Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors. Foods high in vitamin K thus interfere with its action and need to be eaten in moderate, consistent amounts. A vegetarian may have trouble maintaining this diet. The nurse should explore this possibility with the client.
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which of the following categories of medications are used to treat clients diagnosed with bipolar (choose all that apply)? group of answer choices a. mood stabilizers b. antipsychotics c. antidepressants d. anticonvulsants
Mood stabilizers, antipsychotics, and antidepressants are the three primary types of medication used to treat bipolar illness, and there is sometimes debate about the safety and efficacy of these drugs in this context. The most recognizable phase of bipolar disorder is mania, which is also a major factor in disability, stigma, and cognitive impairment. The conventional form of treatment is lithium, although Combining medication and psychotherapy is the most successful treatment for bipolar disorder. Most people take multiple medications, such as an antipsychotic or an antidepressant together with a mood stabilizer.
With a number needed to treat (NNT) of 2 as opposed to 5 to 11 for other FDA-approved atypical antipsychotics, OFC may statistically be the most successful treatment for acute bipolar depression.
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the nurse leader teaches the student nurse about stamp (staring, tone and volume of voice, anxiety, mumbling, pacing) assessment. during the session, the leader mentions rapid speech and dilated pupils. which component is responsible for these two conditions?
The nurse leader teaches the student nurse about stamp (staring, tone, volume of voice, anxiety, mumbling, pacing) assessment. during the session, the leader mentions rapid speech and dilated pupils avoiding the use of personal intuition over facts.
Anxiety is a sense of worry, dread, and uneasiness. it might cause you to sweat, feel restless and worrying, and feature a rapid heartbeat. it could be a normal response to pressure. for instance, you may feel annoyed whilst confronted with tough trouble at paintings, earlier than taking a check, or earlier than making a crucial decision.
Tough studies in formative years, early life, or maturity are common triggers for tension troubles. Going via strain and trauma whilst you're very young is probable to have a specifically big impact. studies that may cause tension issues to consist of such things as physical or emotional abuse.
To diagnose an anxiety disorder, a health practitioner performs a bodily exam, asks about your symptoms, and recommends a blood check, which facilitates the health practitioner to decide if another situation, which includes hypothyroidism, may be causing your signs. The health practitioner may additionally ask about any medicines you take.
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a nurse is caring for a client with diabetic glomerulosclerosis. the presence of which substance in the urine would be used in diagnosing this condition?
In a case whereby a nurse is caring for a client with diabetic glomerulosclerosis the presence of albumin in the urine would be used in diagnosing this condition .
How can the presence of diabetic glomerulosclerosis be known ?It should be noted that thed Microalbuminuria can be regarded as one of the predictor of future diabetic nephropathies which can as well be seen as an evidence of glomerular damage.
The albumin can be described as the large protein molecule, that can be used in the process of determining the presence of the diabetic glomerulosclerosis this is because when the solution is been passed through the glomerular filtration process this albumin will not pass through like other substance.
And once this is unable to pass , it can be recorded that there would be a high tendency that the albumin is present and this can help to indicate the availability of the diabetic glomerulosclerosis
Therefore the option A is correct.
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Check the complete question:
A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic glomerulosclerosis. The presence of which substance in the urine would be used in diagnosing this condition?
A. albumin
B. potassium
C. sodium
D. hemoglobin
a client is receiving a continuous tube feeding. which accurately describes an aspect of this procedure?
For continuous feeding, a feeding pump is utilized.
Which posture is ideal for a person who is using a gastrostomy tube for enteral feedings?Nurses should appropriately cleanse the enteral tube before and after feedings. Position: When clinically practicable, the infant should be put upright since lying prone or supine during feeding increases the risk of aspiration.
During enteral feeding, elevating the head of the bed reduces the possibility of aspiration and permits the formula to enter the client's intestines.
When starting enteral feedings, keep an eye on the patient's tolerance for food. Check the abdomen by palpating for stiffness, distention, and discomfort and auscultating for bowel sounds. Be aware that patients who report feeling nauseous or full after a meal may have a higher GRV.
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the typical healthy window for birth is between 38 and 42 weeks of gestation. however, due to medical advances, infants born as young as 25 weeks still have a 50 percent chance of survival. this is partially due to medical advances, and partially due to what other factor?
Viability is typically calculated as the gestational age at which there is a 50% chance of survival with or without medical treatment. Overall survival increased from 40% to 53% at each gestational week: 9.5% at 23 weeks, 12% at 24 weeks, and 16% at 25 weeks.
Is a baby delivered at 24 weeks considered normal?Only pregnancies that reach 23 or 24 weeks give birth to tiny, fragile infants that commonly do not live. Their hearts, lungs, and brains are not fully formed for them to live outside the womb without intensive medical care. There is a chance that your child will survive, but there is also a chance that the therapy will hurt and injure them.
How many newborns are still alive at week 25?80% or so roughly if they receive intensive care, babies delivered at 25 or 26 weeks have a chance of surviving. If the child survives, one or more of the problems listed below may affect them. The problems might only be present right now, when they are little, or they might last forever.
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the nurse reviews discharge instructions with a client who underwent a left groin cardiac catheterization 8 hours ago. which instructions should the nurse include?
The instructions that should be included are:
1.Avoid waist-bending
2.tension.
3.For the next 24 hours, refrain from lifting anything heavy.
The invasive imaging procedure known as cardiac catheterization, also known as cardiac cath or coronary angiography, enables your doctor to examine your coronary arteries and identify coronary artery disease. Additionally, it can be used to gauge the pressures inside your chambers and assess how well your heart is working.
To stop bleeding from the catheter insertion site for the first three to four days after the procedure, don't strain during bowel movements.
For the first five to seven days following the treatment, refrain from hard lifting (more than 10 pounds) as well as pushing or hauling large things.
After the procedure, refrain from vigorous activity for five days. This includes playing tennis, bowling, golf, and most sports.
If necessary, you may mount the stairs, but proceed more slowly than usual.
Within a week of the surgery, gradually raise your activity level until it matches your usual level.
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a 12-year-old child has had a traumatic head injury from playing in a football game. he is admitted to the emergency department and transferred to the pediatric intensive care unit. he has an iv of dextrose 5% in water at 21 ml/h and nasal oxygen at 2 l/min. the nurse is assessing the child at the beginning of the shift (2300 hours) and reviews the accompanying glasgow coma scale flow sheet. the nurse notes that the child responds to pain, is making incomprehensible sounds, and has abnormal flexion of the limbs. what should the nurse do first?
An intensive care unit nurse is attending to a patient who has a severe brain injury and elevated intracranial pressure.
Why was emergency Cancelled?Despite receiving high ratings, the show was suspended in 1977 after the sixth season because of concerns about the actor Robert Fuller's illness (due to him wanting to do other projects). The series returned in 1978 and 1979 as 6 movie specials, which are referred to as "Season Seven."
What is an emergency and examples?A 911 emergency occurs when someone need immediate assistance due to an injury or a life-threatening situation. For instance, dial 911 in the event of a fire. After an accident, excessive drinking, or a drug or medication overdose, someone is unconscious.
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why is ti necessary to include a note in the patient's chart when he does not show up for scheduled appointmetn
Answer:
It could be to prepare for potential legal consequences.
Explanation:
It can provide a record of whether the patients condition has worsened, but claims that providers refused to see them.
