Hiro tests the efficiency of the lab’s autoclave and blood gas analyzer. He adjusts the machines when necessary so that test results will come out as accurately as possible. What specialty of biomedical engineering does Hiro MOST likely work in?


bioengineer


medical engineer


clinical engineer


rehabilitation engineer

Answers

Answer 1

Hiro most likely holds a position as a clinical engineer.

Is working in biomedical engineering stressful?

After earning a degree, a biomedical engineer's job is rigorous but not overly difficult or stressful. In contrast, other healthcare professions entail lengthy hours and strenuous physical and mental demands of the body.

Do biomedical engineers practise medicine?

Both physicians and biomedical engineers assist individuals, but in different ways. A doctor has an impact on the lives of the people they treat. Biomedical engineers don't always deal directly with patients; instead, they create and develop the tools that are utilised to identify and treat patients' medical issues.

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An article in the local paper is discussing a new copper mine in new mexico. it states that all that is needed to identify a substance is the mass and volume of a sample. is this an accurate statement? why or why not?
a- yes, because mass and volume are unique properties of a substance.
b- yes, because mass and volume allows for finding density, which is a unique property of a substance.
c- no, because although mass is a unique property of a substance, volume is not.
d-no, because only density is a unique physical property of a substance and mass and volume are not enough to find it.

Answers

This is not an accurate statement because only density is a unique physical property of a substance and mass and volume are not enough to find it.

What is density?

The density of a material is its mass per unit volume. The most common sign for density is, however the Latin letter D can also be used. Density is defined mathematically as mass divided by volume. The density of a substance is the measure of how densely it is packed together. It is expressed as mass per unit volume. Symbol for density: D or Formula for Density: = m/V, where is the density, m is the object's mass, and V is the object's volume. The density of something describes how compact or dense it is. Let's say you have two boxes, one huge and one tiny. They both, however, weigh the same. That suggests the small box is denser than the large box.

Here,

This is not an accurate statement since density is a unique physical feature of a substance that cannot be found using mass or volume.

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which practice lead to the greatest genetic diversity and which practives lead to the least genetic diversity

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Giving equal opportunities to every organism for growth and participation practice lead to the greatest genetic diversity and reducing the number of chances which can help the organism grow practices lead to the least genetic diversity.

Contrasted with genetic variability, which is the possibility of inherited features changing, it is different. Genetic diversity allows populations to adapt to changing environmental conditions. There is a higher likelihood that some members of a group will have allele variants that are environment-appropriate as population variation rises. They have a higher likelihood of surviving long enough to pass that allele on to their offspring. The accomplishments of these people will increase population longevity.

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a(an) ________ begins as a one-cell structure that is created when a sperm and egg merge.
o embryo
o placenta
o protean
o zygote

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The correct option is D; zygote , a(an) zygote begins as a one-cell structure that is created when a sperm and egg merge.

A sperm and an egg combine to form a one-cell structure known as a zygote. At this moment, the baby's sex and genetic composition have been determined. The zygote splits and grows throughout the first week following conception, growing from a one-cell structure to two cells, then four cells, then eight cells, and so on.

zygote. the haploid gametes (sperm and egg), which unite to form the diploid fertilized egg, during fertilization. meiosis. the division of cells inside the reproductive organs of a sexually reproducing organism to create haploid gametes from diploid cells.

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in response to glucose in the stomach, mechanisms are stimulated resulting in release of insulin, which acts to increase glucose uptake and thus decrease blood glucose. this happens before blood glucose levels have increased. this response is best described as . in response to glucose in the stomach, mechanisms are stimulated resulting in release of insulin, which acts to increase glucose uptake and thus decrease blood glucose. this happens before blood glucose levels have increased. this response is best described as . homeostasis negative feedback control positive feedback control feedforward control

Answers

Before blood glucose levels have increased, this response is best described as feedforward control.

A hormone called insulin is released when blood sugar levels rise?

A hormone known as insulin is released through endocrine cells within the pancreas when blood glucose levels increase. The purpose of insulin is to stabilize blood glucose levels.

What bodily function is active when insulin is released?

Secretion of Insulin Mechanisms

The "initial phase" of glucose-mediated insulin secretion is triggered by elevated glucose levels and involves the release of insulin via secretory granules in the beta cell. Glucokinase detects the introduction of glucose into the cell and phosphorylates it to glucose-6-phosphate (G6P), producing ATP. Insulin is released when glucose and other sugars that are digested by islets are consumed.

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pls help my hw is due in a few hrs ​

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The primary functional difference between mitotic anaphase and meiotic anaphase II is that in mitotic anaphase, the sister chromatids are separated and move to opposite sides of the cell while in meiotic anaphase II, the homologous chromosomes are separated and move to opposite sides of the cell.

What is the primary functional difference between mitotic anaphase and meiotic anaphase II ?The primary functional difference between mitotic anaphase and meiotic anaphase II is that in mitotic anaphase, the sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles of the cell, whereas in meiotic anaphase II, the homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell.During mitotic anaphase, the sister chromatids are pulled apart by the spindle fibers, and they move to opposite poles of the cell. This results in two identical daughter cells, each with the same genetic information as the original parent cell.During meiotic anaphase II, the homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell. This results in four haploid daughter cells, each with half of the genetic information of the original parent cell. This process is known as reductional segregation, and it is important for sexual reproduction because it allows for genetic diversity in the offspring.In summary, the primary functional difference between mitotic anaphase and meiotic anaphase II is that in mitotic anaphase, the sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles of the cell, whereas in meiotic anaphase II, the homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell. This process of reductional segregation allows for genetic diversity in sexual reproduction.

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This protein on the vesicle binds calcium, and when activated, swings down to knock complexin out of the SNARE complex, allowing it to fully zip closed and release transmitter from the vesicle

Answers

Synaptotagmin-1, a protein that recognises calcium ions at synapses, collaborates with the SNARE complex to promote vesicle fusion with the cell membrane.

What does snare protein stand for?NSF stands for N-ethylmaleimide sensitive factor, SNARE stands for soluble NSF attachment protein, and SNAP represents for SNARE receptor! Soluble N-ethylmaleimide-sensitive factor-attachment protein receptors is a less descriptive but more straightforward use of the SNARE acronym recently employed [1, 4-5].A helical bundle made up of four SNARE motifs mediates the interaction of individual SNAREs to form a complex (Figure 1(a)). In the instance of the synaptic SNARE complex, syntaxin (t-/Q-SNARE) contributes one SNARE motif, SNAP-25 (t-/Q-SNARE) contributes two, and VAMP (v-/R-SNARE) contributes one.SNAREs are membrane- and surface-bound small proteins that are joined by a segment that spans the membrane or by lipid chains that are covalently adhered. The SNARE proteins produce a compact bundle of alpha helices when they interact, drawing the membranes together.

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The pedigree of a family with a history of a particular genetic disease is shown. Squares represent males and circles represent females. Shaded symbols represent those who have the disease.If Individual 2 were to marry a woman with no family history of the disease, which of the following would most likely be true of their children?answer choicesAll of the children would have the disease.None of the children would have the diseaseOnly the sons would have the diseaseAll of the sons would be carriers of the disease

Answers

If Individual 2 were to marry a woman with no family history of the disease then none of the children would have the disease.

When your genes are harmed by a mutation, you get a genetic condition. Carrying the mutation does not always imply that you will develop an illness. There are several sorts of illnesses, including single-gene, multifactorial, and chromosomal abnormalities. The majority of the DNA in our genes tells your body to produce proteins. These proteins initiate complicated cell connections that aid in your overall wellness.

Whenever a mutation arises, it changes the instructions for generating proteins in the genes. Proteins might be lacking. Or the ones you have don't work correctly. When you have a family history of the a genetic condition, you should explore genetic counselling to determine whether genetic testing is right for you. Typically, lab testing can reveal if you have the gene alterations that cause the illness. Carrying the mutation does not necessarily imply that you will develop it.

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ergot is a fungus . a. found atop desert cactus plants b. in moldy rye grain c. attached to morning glory seeds d. related to penicillin

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In moldy wheat grains, ergot is usually found (option B)

The fungus Claviceps purpurea, which infects the growing grains of wheat and grasses, is the cause of the plant disease ergot. When ergot bodies instead of kernels emerge during kernel formation, ergot symptoms become visible.

The overwintering structures in the disease cycle are the ergot bodies, also known as sclerotia, which are made of a dense mass of fungal mycelium. The ergot bodies are composed of an inside that ranges in color from white to grey and an exterior that is hard and protective. They can be up to ten times larger than the seed they have replaced, are frequently elongated, and emerge from the glumes of developing heads. Ergot bodies may be up to two centimeters in some grains.

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the length of the biologic width of tissue covering a tooth is approximately: group of answer choices a) 1 mm b) 2 mm c) 3 mm d) 4 mm

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The correct option is b ; 2 mm ,Under local anesthesia, the biologic width can be determined by probing to the bone level (referred to as "sounding to bone") and subtracting the sulcus depth from the resulting value.

If this distance is smaller than 2 mm in one or more spots, a biologic width violation diagnosis can be validated.

The PDL's typical width ranges from 0.15 mm to 0.21 mm and may shrink with aging. 1,4 PDL widening is one of the most significant changes in the circumrenal structures and may be associated with a variety of disorders.

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In any field of sunflowers, the height of the plants vary. birds first eat the seeds from the tallest plants. if this eating pattern continues season after season, what would we expect to happen to sunflowers over time?

Answers

The right response is: A.

Natural selection will favour this characteristic since shorter plants are better fitted to survive (the taller ones are devoured by birds).

The greatest flowers and plants for luring songbirds should include nesting materials as well as edible seeds or fruit. The best choice is to choose hardy perennials that are native to your area and should do well in most gardens.

Heliotropic indicates that sunflowers turn their flowers to face east as the Sun moves across the sky.Thus, now we know that birds prefer tall plants to eat first as compared to the short plants.

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In any field of sunflowers, the height of the plants vary. Birds first eat the seeds from the tallest plants. If this eating pattern continues season after season, what would we expect to happen to sunflowers over time?

A. Get shorter

B. Become extinct

C. Reproduce asexually

D. Stop producing seeds

if a plant cell is placed in a salt solution and the following observation is observed, what is the probable explanation of the net movement of molecules? (1 point)

Answers

When a plant cell is placed in a salt solution, the salt will lose water and will shrivel up.

When a particular plant cell is placed in a salt solution, we will be able to observe that the water flows out from plant cells as a result of the process of exosmosis and this causes the shrinkage of cells which is known as  plasmolysis and these cells will now be called plasmolyzed cells.

During osmosis, the movement of the flow of water occurs from a region of highwater potential to low water potential. In this case, the water potential present inside the plant cell is more as compared to the water which is present outside in the salt solution.

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How does dry air affect transpiration rate (Increase, decrease, no change) and why?

Answers

Answer:

The effect of dry air is in Increased movement of the air around a plant will result in a higher transpiration rate.

Explanation:

It is easier for water to evaporate into dryer air than into more saturated air. Increased movement of the air around a plant will result in a higher transpiration rate. If there is no wind, the air around the leaf is still and transpiration raises the humidity around each leaf.

Answer:

Dry air can decrease the transpiration rate.

Explanation:

Dry air can cause the stomata to close in order to conserve water, which also reduces transpiration.

a . how does the process of mitosis faithfully parcel out exact copies of this heritable information in the production of genetically identical daughter cells?

Answers

The process of mitosis faithfully parcel out exact copies of heritable information in the production of genetically identical daughter cells is the mitosis ensure the exact amount of genetic material, including parental chromosomes, is distributed to daughter cells during mitosis.

Mitosis, in which identical daughter cells are created, is thought to be the fundamental process of life. Meiosis, on the other hand, makes sure that all generations of offspring have the same quantity of genetic material. The process of mitosis is when a cell repeats its genetic makeup and cellular makeup. These cells then divide, giving rise to two daughters that are identical.

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although koch's postulates present a logical framework for establishing a particular microbe as the cause of a disease, they cannot always be applied today because blank . multiple choice question. it is unethical to use animals for medical testing virtually all pathogens have been identified some causative disease agents cannot be grown in pure culture molecular methods are much more reliable and rapid

Answers

Using molecular and genetic evidence, koch's postulates provide a justification for identifying a specific bacterium as the origin of an illness.

How well does genetic evidence lend credence to evolution?

The shared origin of life is reflected in DNA as well as the genetic code. DNA comparisons can reveal how closely related different species are. Biogeography. The diversity of life on Earth is reflected in both the dispersion of organisms as well as the distinctive characteristics of island species.

What three places can you find genetic data?

Mutation, recombination, and gene immigration are the three main causes of genetic variation.

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Where is epinephrine and norepinephrine released from?

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The inner, more often known as the adrenal medulla, portion of the adrenal glands is where norepinephrine is made. Additionally, epinephrine, often known as adrenaline, is produced in the adrenal medulla.

A hormone and a neurotransmitter, epinephrine, often known as adrenaline, has two functions. It is a hormone that is produced and released by your adrenal glands, which are hat-shaped glands that are located on top of each kidney.

It functions as a chemical messenger and central nervous system neurotransmitter to help send nerve signals from one nerve cell, muscle cell, or gland cell to another.

Norepinephrine, also known as noradrenaline, is a chemical that is mostly released from the terminals of sympathetic nerve fibres and works to speed up and intensify heartbeats as well as the force and rate at which skeletal muscles contract.

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when a drug binds to a receptor and has a response, how is the drug best described? competitive antagonist antagonist partial agonist agonist

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A medication or chemical drug that attaches to a receptor found inside or on the surface of a cell and has the same effect as the substance that typically does so. It described as competitive antagonist.

Antagonists stop the activation of receptors. There are various benefits to avoiding activation. If an antagonist prevents the effect of a drug that typically causes a decline in cellular function, the cellular function will increase.

An agonist is a substance that binds to a receptor and causes a reaction that is comparable to that of the target chemical and receptor.

A substance that lessens an agonist's effects. both competitive and non-competitive, with the option for reversibility or irreversibility in each case. A competitive antagonist inhibits the effect of the agonist by binding to the same location as the agonist but not activating it.

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the gene for melanin (skin pigment) is transcribed similarly in humans and apes. where does the transcription of the melanin gene take place? responses only in the nucleus only in the nucleus in the nucleus and the ribosome in the nucleus and the ribosome in the ribosome in the ribosome in the nucleus and the cytoplasm

Answers

Transcription is typically carried out in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells/organisms.

Transcription is the process by which the genetic information contained by DNA is transcribed into another molecule, RNA.

Transcription occurs in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells because the DNA is located there. The encoded message (RNA) is subsequently transported to the cytoplasm and translated into protein.

Transcription is the process of copying a segment of DNA into RNA. Messenger RNA is produced by segments of DNA that are translated into RNA molecules that could also encode proteins. Other DNA segments are copied into RNA molecules called noncoding RNA. mRNA accounts for only 1-3% of total RNA samples.

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Select the term that best fits the definition. is the process of cutting DNA into fragments and inserting the fragments with a desired gene into another organism of the same or different species. is DNA made by connecting fragments of DNA with desired traits from different DNA sources. is an organism that contains functional recombinant DNA.

Answers

The term that best fits the definition : Genetic engineering, Recombinant DNA and transgenic organism.

What is genetic engineering?

Cutting DNA into pieces and putting the desired gene(s) into another organism of the same or different species is known as genetic engineering. By joining or recombining DNA fragments from several sources, recombinant DNA is created.

Recombinant DNA is a mixture of DNA from two or more different organisms. Segments of DNA from one organism are inserted into chromosomes of another host organism.

A transgenic organism is one that has undergone genetic modification using recombinant DNA technology, which either entails the fusion of DNA from various genomes or the introduction of foreign DNA into a genome.

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The primary difference between an enhancer and a promoter proximal element is that: a. Enhancers are transcription factors, promoter proximal elements are DNA sequences. b. Enhancers enhance transcription; promoter proximal-elements inhibit transcription c. Enhancers are part of the core promoter: promoter proximal elements are regulatory sequences distinct from the core promoter. d. Enhancers are at considerable distances from the core promoter; promoter proximal elements are close to the core promoter

Answers

The primary difference between an enhancer and a promoter proximal element is that: Enhancers are transcription factors, promoter proximal elements are DNA sequences.

What is transcription factors?

Proteins called transcription factors are involved in the process of turning DNA into RNA, or transcribed DNA. A large variety of proteins—aside from RNA polymerase—called transcription factors start and control how genes are transcribed.

Promoter proximal element :

Any regulatory region in eukaryotic DNA that is close to (within 200 base pairs) a promoter and binds a particular protein, influencing the transcription of the related protein coding gene is termed as Promoter proximal element. Many promoter-proximal elements regulate many genes.

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what mechanisms allow us to utilize the energy in the food we eat?

Answers

The process through which food energy is transformed into energy that the body's cells can utilise is known as cellular respiration.

Through a sequence of chemical processes called cellular respiration, glucose is broken down to create ATP, which can then be used as energy for a variety of bodily functions. Glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation are the three primary phases of cellular respiration. The citric acid cycle happens in the mitochondrial matrix, oxidative phosphorylation takes place on the inner mitochondrial membrane, and glycolysis happens in the cytoplasm. Glucose, ATP, and NAD+ are the initial reactants and ATP and water are the end products of cellular respiration. Phosphofructokinase-1, pyruvate dehydrogenase, and isocitrate dehydrogenase are the enzymes that control the rate of cellular respiration.

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which part of the phospholipid is found inside the membrane away from water?

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The phosphate heads of phospholipids face the external watery side, while the fatty acid tails face within, away from water.

Phospholipids are lipids with phosphate groups and are a crucial part of cell membranes. The hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail make up phospholipids.

The phospholipid is simply a triglyceride in which a phosphate group of some kind has been added in place of a fatty acid. A phospholipid's long fatty acid chains are nonpolar and avoid water because they are insoluble in it.

The phosphate group is located in the "head" of the molecule, which is hydrophilic and will dissolve in water. Two hydrophobic fatty acids make comprise the molecule's "tail," which prevents it from dissolving in water.

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describe what would occur in the cell if the activated kinase enzyme continued to be active for a long time

Answers

As long as the protein kinases were active, the transcription factor would continue to transcribe the DNA strand.

Failure to activate tyrosine kinase would impede the phosphorylation of the tyrosine's substrate protein, which is essential for receptor activation. As a result, the specialized relay proteins found within the cell would be unable to recognize the receptor.

When MAP kinases are active, transcription factors in the cytoplasm or nucleus are phosphorylated and activated, resulting in the production of certain target genes and a biological response.

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a technologist performing an antibody identification in the blood bank has recorded the following results found in the worksheet below. which antibody(ies) are most likely the cause of the agglutination reactions?

Answers

IgG or IgM  antibodies are most likely the cause of the agglutination reactions.

In general, Agglutination  reaction occurs when an insoluble or particle antigen come in contact with an antibody. Thus , a  positive reaction occurs  and can be seen macroscopically in a short time. antigen-antibody complex may be seen with our eye if the complex size is large. Both IgG or IgM could be involved in the agglutination reaction.

Their  are two types of  agglutination active agglutination or the passive agglutination. In case of  active agglutination, the antigen occurs naturally on particle. on the other hand on passive agglutination, the antigen is bound to an inert particle to detect an antibody.

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imagine that you are enjoying a day at the beach in california, exploring tide pools. you find a california sea hare in the shallow water and gentle scoop it into your hand, as shown in the figure above. as you touch it, the sea hare releases purple ink into your hand. you think maybe the sea hare released the ink to scare you (a potential predator) away, but you are not sure. what steps of the scientific method have you performed in your inquiry?

Answers

The scientific methods that we performed are hypothesis formation and observation.

While exploring tide pools at a beach in California, we find a California sea hare in the shallow water. On holding and touching the sea hare, it is observed that it releases purple ink into our hand. It is possible that the sea hare released the ink to scare us, a potential predator, away.

The scientific methods that we have used in this situation are hypothesis formation and observation. We first observed that the sea hare releases ink in our hand on touch. We then formed a hypothesis that the sea hare releases the purple ink on touching as it sees us as a potential predator and does it to scare us away which might or might not be true. We can only know that after testing our hypothesis.

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what findings did watson and crick make from this image? shaped like a helix has a consistent diameter contains four nucleotides stores biological information includes 10 base pairs per repeat

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Watson and Crick discovered that DNA has a helical structure with a consistent diameter, and four nucleotides, stores biological information, and includes 10 base pairs per repeat.

The image you are referring to is likely a representation of the structure of DNA, which was discovered by James Watson and Francis Crick in 1953. From this image, Watson and Crick made several key findings:

The structure of DNA is shaped like a helix, meaning it is a spiral structure.The helix has a consistent diameter, meaning it is uniform in size throughout.The structure contains four nucleotides, which are the building blocks of DNA and are composed of a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base.DNA stores biological information in the sequence of these nucleotides.The helix structure includes 10 base pairs per repeat.

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Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have many differences, but they also share some common features. Which of the following may be found in either type of cell?
answer choices
Golgi bodies
ribosomes
mitochondria
nuclei

Answers

Answer: Ribosomes

Explanation: Ribosomes are found in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells which help in the protein synthesis.
Golgi bodies and mitochondria are only found in eukaryotic cells.
Also, eukaryotic cells contain true nucleus whereas prokaryotic cells have nucleoid.

Classify the statements as describing a gene, a chromosome, or a genome.Gene Chromosome Genome Each organism has one Determines a particular characteristic of an organism Describes the collection of all of the replicable genetic material of a cell or organism Codes for a specific Is the largest Is a linear or protein or RNA molecule in the cell circular molecule Encodes all the heritable Is a unit of DNA carrying genetic traits of an organism information encoded in genes Is a contiguous Functions to package, organize, Acts as the basic piece of DNA and regulate access to DNA unit of heredity May include plasmids

Answers

Answer:

Gene – Codes for a specific protein or RNA molecule in the cell Chromosome – Is a linear or circular molecule, is a unit of DNA carrying genetic information encoded in genes, and acts as the basic unit of heredity Genome – Describes the collection of all of the replicable genetic material of a cell or organism, encodes all the heritable genetic traits of an organism, functions to package, organize, and regulate access to DNA, and may include plasmids.

layer of connective tissue that surrounds a skeletal muscle?

Answers

Each muscle is surrounded by a connective tissue sheath called the epimysium.

which is the outermost layer of connective tissue?

A layer or sheet of connective tissue is referred to as fascia. The body wall, blood arteries, nerves, and the epimysium are all enclosed or lined by the deep fascia, which also surrounds the epimysium.

What do the 3 connective tissue layers around muscle surround?

The layer of connective tissue known as the endomysium surrounds individual muscle fibers. The layer of connective tissue known as the perimysium surrounds the bundles of muscle fibers. The connective tissue layer that envelops a complete muscle is called the epimysium (multiple muscle fibre bundles).

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basal metabolic rate is the body's resting rate of: group of answer choices a) the settling point. b) insulin secretion. c) energy expenditure. d) homeostasis.

Answers

The body's resting rate of energy expenditure is basal metabolic rate (option C)

The rate at which a person expends energy while at rest is known as basal metabolic rate (BMR), which eliminates the variable effect of physical activity. The BMR is responsible for about 60% of daily energy consumption. This means that it contains the energy required for heart function, proper body cellular equilibrium, brain and other neuron activity, and so forth. Your body burns calories at a basal metabolic rate (BMR), which is a measure of how well your body is able to sustain life.

Age, weight, height, gender, environmental temperature, dietary patterns, and exercise routines are some of the variables that affect the individual metabolism rate, or BMR.

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describe the purpose of the following types of cell division in an organism with a life cycle involving gametic meiosis

Answers

Gametic meiosis is used to produce haploid gametes which are used in sexual reproduction to create offspring with genetic diversity.

What are the types of cell division in an organism?

The types of cell division in an organism are: mitosis, meiosis, cytokinesis, and endoreduplication.

1. Mitosis: Mitosis is the process of cell division that occurs in many organisms and is essential for the growth and development of cells. It is the process by which a single cell divides into two genetically identical cells. Mitosis is necessary for the growth and development of an organism, as it allows for the production of new cells that can then go on to form new organs and tissues. Mitosis is also important in the production of gametes during meiosis, as it is the first step in the process of sexual reproduction.

2. Meiosis: Meiosis is the process of cell division that occurs in organisms with a sexual life cycle, such as humans. It is the process by which a single cell divides into four genetically distinct cells. Meiosis is necessary for the production of gametes, which are required for sexual reproduction. During meiosis, the chromosomes in the parent cell are segregated into four daughter cells, which then go on to form the gametes. Meiosis is also important in maintaining genetic diversity, as the segregation of chromosomes during meiosis results in the creation of new combinations of alleles in the gametes.

3.Cytokinesis is a type of cell division that physically separates the daughter cells produced by mitosis and meiosis.

4.Endoreduplication is a process in which a cell replicates its genetic material without undergoing cell division.

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Other Questions
A business owner invested $7,000 in a treasury bond paying 4.3% compounded semiannually. After 30 years, the value of the bond will be $25,084.20. If the business owner's investment was compounded continuously instead of twice per year, what would be the difference in the account balance after 30 years? Part G What is the ratio of the radius of circle A to the radius of circle B?Course Activity: Proving That All Circles Are SimilarEdmentun Geometry The choice of the brand of your company is not something that you should choose at random and simply because you like it. You must select a brand with which your customers will feel identified. However, loyalty to a brand is not a rational act, but an emotional one. Therefore, to know how a brand is made, you must bear in mind that what you must achieve is the customer's loyalty to it and that, in a medium / long term, that relationship is still alive.1. Define your target audience.It is impossible to please everyone. The products or services you offer will satisfy a specific type of needs, specific to a certain type of client. Define very well, through a segmentation of the market, the target audience your brand, to ensure good feedback and success.2. Project an image according to your brand philosophy.Your customers expect you to behave and act in a certain way. So it looks like your clients expect you to do it and do it in environments according to them. For example, your focus of action will not be social networks if your target audience is people over 65.3. Unique and special customer.We all like to feel special. So, if you want to know how to create a successful brand, a basic thing is to make your customers feel special for the simple fact of using your brand. That the client feels heard, valued and loved.4. A brand that provides value.To create a strong brand, it is essential that it offers some added value, that makes it unique and different from the rest of competing companies. For example, highlight customer service, after-sales service, return policy, etc. For this, the brand must present a value proposal that makes it different from the others, and for which the public chooses it against the competition.The client must feel that by using your brand his life improves, that by using your products or services he obtains greater quality and satisfaction. Therefore, work for that differential point that makes your brand unique and special.5. Keep the relationship alive.You should not keep the same message forever. The needs of your customers are changing, as well as customs and social habits. So you must innovate in your message, you must create campaigns that attract new customers and keep working because your brand is identified as a powerful and differentiated brand.6. Measure your performance.Not only you must design and implement actions in order to enhance your brand. But you must measure the results of those actions. You will have established goals for both short, medium and long term: increase engagement, increase the conversion rate or increase the traffic of your website ... Set goals, measure and compare results. This way you can correct errors on time and improve your brand strategy. kramarae is certain that the language of a particular culture does not serve all its speakers equally. t/f What word means a limit or boundary that defines the scope of a particular process or activity? Which of the following occurs during the Calvin cycle?(A) carbon fixation(B) reduction of NADP(C) release of oxygen(D) generation of Co2 1. To investigate the association between ascariasis and hand wash investigators conducted a case-control study with 100 cases (100 children with stool-test Positive) and 100 controls (100 children Negative). Among Positives children, 50 gave a history of exposure (frequent hand washes). Among those Negatives, 25 gave a history of exposure to hand washes. For this study, calculate the odds ratio & interpret the result. Describe FOUR ways in which the political organization of the Taino was different from the political organization of the Kalinago. what bony landmark can be located by sliding off the acromion, inferiorly and laterally, approximately one inch It takes Mr. Tuchtie x minutes to rake his yard. It takes his daughter x-30 minutes to do it. When they work together it takes 60 minutes. How long does it take Mr. Tuchtie to do it by himself? Which of these abbreviations indicates four times a day?answer choicesq.i.d.q.d.q.f.d.q.h. Which of the following is NOT true of the type of game known as the prisoners dilemma?A) It is a zero-sum game.B) it is a non-zero-sum game.C) it is a situation in which two firms achieve the worst outcomes if both act in their own best interest.D) It is characteristic of industries with two dominant competitors Between the two investment plans listed below, which will have the greatest future value and by what amount oint g is an example of an inefficient point, while point f is an example of an unattainable point. b. does the economy above demonstrate the law of increasing opportunity cost? Consider the two functions shown here. Which function has the greater rate of change? Explain your answer. Responses A Function 1, because its rate of change is .Function 1, because its rate of change is . B Function 1, because its rate of change is 2.Function 1, because its rate of change is 2. C Function 2, because its rate of change is .Function 2, because its rate of change is . D Function 2, because its rate of change is 7. How do you find the axis of symmetry of an absolute value function? FILL IN THE BLANK Scroll through the figures presented within the website, and look for the information presented within these statements.Then, use what you have found to complete each sentence.According to the information on the website, Germany is the _______ largest economy in the world and the ________ in Europe.In 2012, Germany's GDP per capita was______ trillion .In 2012, Germany's unemployment rate was ______ . a client is returned to the nursing unit after thoracic surgery with chest tubes in place. during the first few hours postoperatively, what type of drainage should the nurse expect? 1.serous 2.bloody 3.serosanguineous 4.bloody, with frequent small clots The ultimate measure of performance is: A)The amount of the firm's earnings B)How the earnings are valued by the investor C)The firm's profit margin D)Return on the firm's total assets What's the title of a 2020 sports documentary about the abuse of US gymnastics?