In Home Alone, Kevin orders a cheese pizza all for himself while he's alone at home. He calls the pizza place and confidently places his order, using his dad's credit card to pay for it. Kevin also has a fun interaction with the delivery driver, instructing him to leave the pizza on the doorstep and then pretending to be an adult when the driver questions his age. Overall, Kevin's pizza ordering skills in Home Alone are impressive for a young kid left alone at home.
Kevin calls Little Nero's Pizzeria and requests a large cheese pizza to be delivered to his home address. However, because of his young age and the altered voice, there are comedic moments of miscommunication during the phone conversation. Despite the challenges, Kevin successfully places the pizza order and eagerly awaits its delivery.
The scene showcases Kevin's resourcefulness and independence as he takes charge of his situation. It adds to the humor and charm of the movie, highlighting Kevin's cleverness in finding ways to manage on his own.
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An alternating-possession throw-in results in all of the following situations, EXCEPT:
All double fouls.
Simultaneous free-throw violations.
A live ball lodges between the backboard and the ring.
A live ball comes to rest on the flange.
A held ball.
An alternating-possession throw-in results in all of the following situations, EXCEPT simultaneous free-throw violations.
Alternating-possession throw-ins occur when there are double fouls, a live ball lodges between the backboard and the ring, a live ball comes to rest on the flange, and a held ball.
However, simultaneous free-throw violations do not result in an alternating-possession throw-in.
Summary: An alternating-possession throw-in occurs in various situations, but it does not happen during simultaneous free-throw violations.
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How long is ONS chemotherapy certification good for?
The ONS (Oncology Nursing Society) chemotherapy certification is valid for two years.
Renewing the ONS chemotherapy certification involves meeting certain requirements, such as completing continuing education hours, demonstrating ongoing clinical practice in chemotherapy administration, and staying engaged in professional development activities related to oncology nursing. By renewing their certification every two years, oncology nurses can demonstrate their commitment to maintaining high standards of knowledge and competence in delivering safe and effective chemotherapy treatments to patients.
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The maximum volume of air a person can exhale after a maximum inspiration is termed the:
a. expiratory reserve volume
b. inspiratory reserve volume
c. total lung capacity
d. vital capacity
Answer:
D. Vital capacity.
Explanation:
The maximum volume of air a person can exhale after a maximum inspiration is termed the vital capacity.
a nurse is caring for a client who has recently emigrated from another country and states
When caring for a client who has recently emigrated from another country, it's important for the nurse to approach the situation with cultural sensitivity and understanding. This means taking the time to learn about the client's cultural background, beliefs, and values in order to provide care that is respectful and appropriate.
It may also be helpful to work with an interpreter or language services to ensure effective communication between the nurse and the client. Additionally, the nurse should be aware of any cultural differences in healthcare practices and preferences, such as traditional remedies or avoidance of certain foods or medications. By taking these factors into consideration, the nurse can provide the best possible care and help the client feel more comfortable and supported in their new environment.
A nurse caring for a client who has recently emigrated from another country should practice cultural competence to provide effective and appropriate care. This involves being aware of cultural differences, respecting the client's beliefs and traditions, and ensuring effective communication. The nurse should take the time to learn about the client's background, ask open-ended questions, and adapt their care approach based on the client's needs and preferences. By doing so, the nurse can establish trust and promote a positive healthcare experience for the client.
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the first sign of testicular cancer is quizlet
The first sign of testicular cancer is typically a painless lump or swelling in the testicle.
Other possible signs and symptoms may include a feeling of heaviness or discomfort in the scrotum, changes in the size or shape of the testicle, a dull ache or pain in the groin or abdomen, and a sudden collection of fluid in the scrotum. However, it's important to note that not all lumps or swelling in the testicle are cancerous, as there can be various causes for such changes. If any concerning signs or symptoms are noticed, it is essential to consult a healthcare professional for further evaluation and diagnosis. Early detection and prompt medical attention are crucial in the successful treatment of testicular cancer.
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which of the following is a dietary factor that contributes to the risk of osteoporosis?
A dietary factor that contributes to the risk of osteoporosis is low calcium intake.
Calcium is essential for maintaining strong bones and preventing bone loss.
When there is insufficient calcium intake, the body will draw calcium from the bones to maintain its necessary functions, which can weaken the bones over time and increase the risk of developing osteoporosis.
Summary: Low calcium intake is a dietary factor that increases the risk of osteoporosis, as it leads to weakened bones and potential bone loss.
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the term that means new growth (of abnormal tissue, benign or malignant) is
The term that means **new growth of abnormal tissue, benign or malignant** is **neoplasm**.
A neoplasm refers to an abnormal mass or tissue growth that arises due to uncontrolled cell division. It can be benign (non-cancerous) or malignant (cancerous). Neoplasms can occur in various organs or tissues of the body and can have different characteristics and implications depending on their nature.
The term "neoplasm" is often used in medical contexts to describe the presence of abnormal tissue growth, and further investigations and evaluations are typically done to determine the nature of the neoplasm and guide appropriate treatment options.
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AN, BN, and BED most commonly arise during which of the following?
A. Adolescence B. Late adulthood
C. Infancy
A. Adolescence
AN (anorexia nervosa), BN (bulimia nervosa), and BED (binge-eating disorder) most commonly arise during adolescence. This is a time when individuals are going through significant physical and psychological changes, and social pressures can contribute to the development of disordered eating patterns. It is important for parents, educators, and healthcare providers to be aware of the warning signs and risk factors associated with these disorders in order to provide appropriate support and treatment for affected individuals.
AN, BN, and BED (anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge eating disorder) most commonly arise during adolescence. These eating disorders typically develop during the teenage years, although they can also occur in early adulthood. Adolescence is a period of significant physical, emotional, and social changes, and it is a time when body image concerns and societal pressures related to appearance may be heightened.
During adolescence, individuals may experience a variety of stressors, including academic pressures, peer influences, and identity development, which can contribute to the development of disordered eating patterns. Additionally, hormonal changes and increased independence during this stage of life may further impact eating behaviors.
It is important to note that while these eating disorders commonly emerge during adolescence, they can persist into adulthood if left untreated. Early detection, intervention, and appropriate treatment are crucial for individuals struggling with these disorders to promote recovery and prevent long-term health consequences.
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the idea that both partners share the accountability for sexual dysfunction is known as:
The idea that both partners share the accountability for sexual dysfunction is known as a "biopsychosocial approach."
This approach recognizes that sexual dysfunction is often caused by a combination of biological, psychological, and social factors, and that both partners may need to work together to address the issue. It emphasizes the importance of open communication, mutual support, and a willingness to explore and experiment with different solutions. While there may be individual factors that contribute to sexual dysfunction, a biopsychosocial approach recognizes that a healthy sexual relationship involves both partners and requires both partners to take responsibility for their part in resolving any issues.
The idea that both partners share the accountability for sexual dysfunction is known as "shared responsibility." This concept emphasizes the importance of communication and mutual understanding in addressing sexual issues within a relationship.
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in the context of the opponent-process theory of color vision, afterimages refer to
In the context of the opponent-process theory of color vision, afterimages refer to the visual phenomenon where an image persists in one's vision even after the original stimulus has been removed.
This occurs because the cells in the retina that detect color are sensitive to specific wavelengths of light and respond in an opposing manner to different colors. For example, there are cells that respond to red light and inhibit green light, and vice versa. When we stare at a particular color for a prolonged period, these cells become fatigued and when we shift our gaze, the opposing cells are still firing, creating an afterimage of the complementary color.
This effect is often seen in optical illusions and is used in some forms of art. The opponent-process theory explains why we see these afterimages and why certain color combinations can create illusions of movement or depth.This theory, proposed by Ewald Hering, suggests that our perception of color is based on three opposing pairs of colors: red-green, blue-yellow, and black-white. The brain processes these pairs through interconnected cells in a push-pull mechanism, allowing us to differentiate colors.
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Hjam and colleagues (2007) investigated gender differences and burnout in coaches and found
a. coaches of female teams had higher levels of burnout than coaches of male teams
b. female coaches had higher levels of burnout than male coaches c. no differences in burnout among male and female coaches
d. male coaches had higher levels of burnout than female coaches
e. both male and female coaches of individual sports had lower levels of burnout than coaches of team sports
Hjam and colleagues (2007) investigated gender differences and burnout in coaches and found that female coaches had higher levels of burnout than male coaches, option b is correct.
In their investigation of gender differences and burnout in coaches, Hjam et al. (2007) found that female coaches experienced higher levels of burnout compared to their male counterparts. This suggests that being a female coach is associated with an increased risk of burnout.
The study's findings emphasize the importance of understanding and addressing the unique challenges and stressors faced by female coaches. Further research and targeted interventions may be necessary to support female coaches and promote their well-being in the demanding and high-pressure field of coaching, option b is correct.
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why is the forbidden to take a bath at 6 o'clock on the first day of period?
There is no scientific or medical evidence to suggest that taking a bath at 6 o'clock on the first day of a menstrual period is harmful or forbidden. In fact, maintaining good hygiene practices during menstruation, including regular bathing or showering, is essential for preventing infections and promoting comfort.
However, it is possible that certain cultures or religions may have specific customs or practices related to menstruation that involve restrictions or prohibitions on bathing or other activities during certain times or days.
These customs or practices may be based on beliefs or traditions that have been passed down through generations, and may vary from region to region. It is important to respect and honor individual beliefs and cultural practices related to menstruation while also promoting evidence-based practices for good hygiene and health.
If you have concerns or questions about specific customs or practices related to menstruation, it may be helpful to speak with a healthcare provider or cultural/religious authority to gain a better understanding.
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what type of mental health professional is most likely to specialize in work with students?
an example of an asian food item that is a good source of protein would be
Answer:
meat
Explanation:
none in spesific
A group of young men and women with drug addictions meet each week to share their experiences and encourage one
another in their efforts to overcome their addiction. The benefits they receive from this interaction best illustrate the value
of
A. Free Association
B. A token economy
C. Virtual reality exposure therapy
D. Self-help groups
Answer:
The answer is D. Self-help groups.
Explanation:
Self-help groups are groups of people who share a common problem or concern and meet regularly to provide each other with support, information, and advice. They can be very helpful for people who are struggling with addiction, as they provide a safe and supportive environment where people can share their experiences and learn from others who are going through the same thing.
Self-help groups can offer a number of benefits, including:
Social support: Self-help groups provide a sense of community and belonging, which can be very helpful for people who are struggling with addiction.
Information and advice: Self-help groups can provide members with information about addiction and recovery, as well as advice on how to cope with cravings and triggers.
Role models: Self-help groups can provide members with positive role models who have been through addiction and recovery.
Hope: Self-help groups can provide members with hope for the future and help them to believe that recovery is possible.
If you are struggling with addiction, consider joining a self-help group. It could be one of the best decisions you ever make.
men are ten times more likely to die of a(n) ____ injury than women.
Men are ten times more likely to die of a traumatic injury than women.
It is a known fact that men are more likely to die from a traumatic injury than women. Traumatic injuries are injuries that happen suddenly and can be life-threatening, such as severe head injuries, gunshot wounds, or serious burns.
There are several reasons why men are ten times more likely to die from a traumatic injury than women. One of the reasons is that men are often more involved in high-risk activities than women, such as extreme sports, dangerous jobs, and reckless behavior. For example, men are more likely to be involved in car accidents and to drive under the influence of drugs or alcohol.
Another reason why men are more likely to die from a traumatic injury is that men tend to have more muscle mass and a larger body size than women. This means that when men experience an injury, there is more trauma to their body, and they may require more medical attention and treatment to recover.
In conclusion, men are ten times more likely to die from a traumatic injury than women due to a combination of factors, including higher engagement in high-risk activities, larger body size, delayed medical help-seeking, societal expectations, and biological differences. It is important for both men and women to be aware of these risks and take appropriate precautions to prevent traumatic injuries. This can include wearing protective gear when participating in high-risk activities, practicing safe driving habits, and seeking medical attention immediately after an injury.
Therefore, men are ten times more likely to die of a traumatic injury than women.
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39. you are caring for a client who has knee replacement 2 days ago. the client suddenly states, "i have tingling in my toes on the left foot." what is the first thing the nurse should assess?
As a nurse, the first thing to assess when a client who has had a knee replacement two days ago suddenly experiences tingling in their toes on the left foot is to check for signs of impaired circulation or nerve damage.
The nurse should immediately assess the client's circulation by checking the color, temperature, and pulses of the affected leg and foot. This will help to determine whether there is any compromise to the blood flow in the leg. Additionally, the nurse should assess the client's sensation, motor function, and reflexes in the affected foot to evaluate for potential nerve damage.
It is important for the nurse to act quickly and effectively to identify and address any complications that may arise following knee replacement surgery, including nerve or circulatory issues. Early detection and intervention can help to prevent further damage and promote a successful recovery for the client.
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Which of the following is the correct order of the divisions of periodized program (from shortest to longest)?
I. mesocycle
II. microcycle
III. macrocycle
a) I, II, III
b) III, II, I
c) II, I, III
d) II, III, I
The correct order of the divisions of periodized program from shortest to longest is microcycle, mesocycle, and macrocycle.
Microcycle typically lasts for a week and is the shortest division of a periodized program. It consists of the daily training routine that is tailored to an athlete's needs and goals. Mesocycle is the next longer division, and it usually lasts for a few weeks to a few months. It's focused on achieving specific training goals and includes different types of microcycles.
Finally, macrocycle is the longest division, which lasts for a year or more. It outlines the overall training plan for an athlete, including different mesocycles, recovery periods, and competitions. The correct order of the divisions of periodized program is II, I, III - microcycle, mesocycle, and macrocycle.
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the fixed portion of a long bone between the shaft and the epiphyseal plate is the:
The fixed portion of a long bone between the shaft and the epiphyseal plate is the metaphysis. It is an area of the bone where growth occurs and is located at the end of the shaft, just before the epiphyseal plate.
The metaphysis contains the growth plate, which is responsible for the lengthening of the bone during development. It is composed of a layer of cartilage cells that divide and multiply, leading to new bone formation. Once growth is complete, the growth plate is replaced by bone, and the metaphysis becomes a fixed part of the bone. This process is essential for proper bone development and overall health.
The fixed portion of a long bone between the shaft and the epiphyseal plate is the metaphysis. The shaft, also known as the diaphysis, is the elongated central part of the bone, while the epiphyseal plate, or growth plate, is the area where bone growth occurs during childhood and adolescence. The metaphysis, situated between these two structures, is a transitional zone consisting of spongy bone and serves to connect the diaphysis to the growth plate. Overall, the metaphysis plays a vital role in bone development and growth.
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A person who has cholera would be expected to have which type of diarrhea? a. Osmotic c. Small volume b. Secretory d. Motility.
If a person has cholera, they would be expected to have secretory diarrhea. Cholera is an infectious disease caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. This bacterium produces a toxin that affects the cells lining the small intestine, causing them to secrete large amounts of water and electrolytes into the intestinal lumen.
This excessive secretion of fluid leads to secretory diarrhea, which is characterized by the passage of large volumes of watery stool. The stool may contain flecks of mucus and blood due to the damage caused to the intestinal lining by the toxin. The diarrhea associated with cholera is usually painless and not associated with urgency or tenesmus.
In contrast to secretory diarrhea, osmotic diarrhea occurs when there is an imbalance between the absorption and secretion of water and electrolytes in the intestines. This can be due to malabsorption syndromes or the ingestion of certain substances that cannot be absorbed by the body. Small volume diarrhea is usually caused by inflammation or infection of the large intestine and is characterized by frequent, small-volume stools. Motility diarrhea occurs when there is increased motility of the intestines, leading to rapid transit time and the passage of loose, watery stools.
In summary, a person with cholera would be expected to have secretory diarrhea, which is caused by the toxin produced by Vibrio cholerae and leads to the excessive secretion of fluid into the intestines.
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according to your text, some researchers believe autism may be due to _____.
According to my text, some researchers believe that autism may be due to genetic factors. Several studies have shown that there is a strong genetic component to autism, and certain genetic mutations and variations have been linked to the development of the condition.
For example, researchers have identified specific genes that are involved in brain development and function that may contribute to autism. Additionally, studies of families with multiple cases of autism have suggested that there may be inherited genetic risk factors for the condition. However, it is important to note that autism is a complex disorder and is likely influenced by a combination of genetic,
According to the text, some researchers believe that autism may be due to a combination of genetic and environmental factors. Genetic factors involve the inheritance of certain genes from parents that increase the likelihood of developing autism. Research has identified numerous genes that may contribute to the development of autism spectrum disorder (ASD). These genetic factors are believed to account for around 80% of the risk of developing autism.
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Which of the following areas regulates body temperature, food intake, and endocrine functions?
a. thalamus
b. epithalamus
c. hypothalamus
d. pineal body
The hypothalamus regulates body temperature, food intake, and endocrine functions.
Here correct option is C.
The hypothalamus is a small area of the brain located below the thalamus and above the pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis in the body by regulating various physiological processes, including body temperature, hunger and satiety, thirst and fluid balance, sleep-wake cycles, and the release of hormones from the pituitary gland.
The hypothalamus receives information from different parts of the body and the nervous system and uses this information to regulate these functions. For example, when body temperature rises, the hypothalamus activates cooling mechanisms such as sweating and increased blood flow to the skin. Similarly, when the body needs energy, the hypothalamus triggers hunger signals, which lead to increased food intake.
In addition to its role in regulating physiological functions, the hypothalamus also plays a crucial role in the release of hormones that control various endocrine functions. It controls the release of hormones from the pituitary gland, which regulates many physiological processes, including growth and development, metabolism, and reproductive functions.
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T/F: hepatitis c does not remain infective in dried blood for any length of time.
False: Hepatitis C can remain infective in dried blood for a certain length of time.
Hepatitis C is a blood-borne virus that can be transmitted through contact with infected blood. Studies have shown that the virus can survive and remain infectious in dried blood on surfaces for up to three weeks, although the risk of transmission decreases as the blood dries. It is essential to handle and dispose of contaminated materials properly to reduce the risk of infection.
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that primarily affects the liver. The virus is spread through contact with infected blood, and can be transmitted in a variety of ways, including sharing needles or other drug paraphernalia, getting a tattoo or body piercing with unsterilized equipment, or receiving a blood transfusion prior to 1992, when screening for the virus became routine.
One of the unique characteristics of the hepatitis C virus is its ability to remain infective in dried blood for a certain length of time. The virus is a small, enveloped RNA virus that is relatively stable in the environment. While the virus is most commonly spread through direct contact with infected blood, such as through sharing needles, it is also possible for the virus to remain viable on surfaces, such as needles or other drug paraphernalia, or on other objects that come into contact with infected blood.
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( I’ll mark brainliest)Directions: For this assignment you will outline the stages of change and simultaneously explain how you can help/support a friend while they are in each stage. Think of a friend and an action or behavior that needs to be changed. Contemplate each stage of change discussed in the lesson, and answer the questions
1. What is your friend's name ? (a fictitious name can be used ) (1 point)
2. What is the action or behavior that needs to be changed ? (2 points) I
3. Complete the chart. (2 points each )
shaking a baby causes neural connections to break and ruptures blood vessels in the brain. T/F
True. Shaking a baby can cause neural connections to break and ruptures blood vessels in the brain.
Shaken Baby Syndrome (SBS), also known as abusive head trauma, is a serious form of child abuse that occurs when a baby or young child is violently shaken.
The rapid back-and-forth motion can cause the brain to rotate within the skull, leading to the stretching and tearing of nerve fibers, which disrupts neural connections.
Additionally, the forces generated during shaking can rupture blood vessels, leading to bleeding within the brain. These injuries can result in severe brain damage, cognitive impairments, developmental delays, or even death.
Shaken Baby Syndrome is a preventable form of child abuse, and it is crucial to raise awareness about the dangers and educate caregivers on appropriate methods of handling infants.
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which of the following is an alternative choice for meats in the usda food guide?
According to the USDA food guide, the best alternative choice for meat is pulses.
Pulses are a good source of protein and it includes beans, peas, and lentils. They naturally have a low-fat content and a high fiber, vitamins, minerals, and protein content. Pulses are also rich in iron and can be used as an alternative to meat.
Pulses are also rich in Vitamin B, zinc, and potassium. The high protein content of pulses is associated with the high amounts of nitrogen present in the pulses. This is due to the biological N2 fixation that takes place in these legumes. Therefore pulses are the best alternative option for meat eaters who want to take proteins from other sources.
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Question 1 of 10
How can 100% of STDs be prevented?
A. By only having one partner at a time
B. By taking a shower after any sexual activity
C. By only having sex with an infected partner when the symptoms
are gone
OD. By practicing abstinence
SUBMI
Answer:
D
Explanation:
any person could have an stf so any sexual activity has some chance
what is the sequential order of masters and johnson's stages of sexual response model?
Masters and Johnson's stages of the sexual response model are typically described in the following sequential order:
This is the initial stage characterized by sexual arousal and anticipation. During this phase, physiological changes such as increased heart rate, blood flow to the genitals, and muscle tension occur.Plateau Phase: In this stage, sexual arousal continues to increase, and the body prepares for orgasm. The changes that started in the excitement phase become more intense.Orgasm Phase: The orgasm phase is the peak of sexual pleasure and is characterized by rhythmic contractions of the pelvic muscles, intense pleasurable sensations, and release of sexual tension. In males, it is often accompanied by ejaculation.
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what illness, when contracted by a pregnant woman, increases the risk of miscarriage?
When a pregnant woman contracts an illness, it can increase the risk of complications and miscarriage. One such illness that can increase the risk of miscarriage is rubella, also known as German measles.
When a pregnant woman contracts Listeriosis, it can lead to serious complications such as miscarriage, premature birth, or stillbirth. In some cases, the infection can also result in severe illness or death of the newborn baby. It is crucial for pregnant women to take precautions to avoid contracting Listeriosis by practicing proper food handling and avoiding high-risk foods, such as unpasteurized dairy products, deli meats, and raw seafood.
In conclusion, Listeriosis is an illness that significantly increases the risk of miscarriage when contracted by a pregnant woman. To reduce the risk, it is important for expectant mothers to follow food safety guidelines and maintain good hygiene practices throughout their pregnancy.
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how can a nurse best meet a preschooler's developmental needs just before a physical examination?
A nurse can best meet a preschooler's developmental needs before a physical examination by using developmentally appropriate communication and activities.
They can start by explaining what will happen during the exam in simple terms and using pictures or dolls to demonstrate.
It's important to offer choices when possible, such as letting the child choose which arm to have their blood pressure taken.
Providing comfort items, such as a stuffed animal, can also help ease anxiety. The nurse should maintain a calm and reassuring demeanor throughout the process.
Finally, praise and positive reinforcement can help the child feel proud of their accomplishments during the exam.
By meeting the child's developmental needs, the nurse can help them feel more comfortable and empowered during the physical examination.
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