Biodiversity can help an ecosystem recover from a volcanic eruption in several ways:
Increased resilience: Biodiverse ecosystems are more resilient to environmental stressors, such as volcanic eruptions, as they contain a variety of species that are adapted to different conditions. This allows the ecosystem to recover more quickly as different species can fill the gaps created by the eruption and re-establish a balance.
Soil stability: Many plant species have deep roots that help to stabilize the soil and prevent erosion. This is especially important in the aftermath of a volcanic eruption, where the soil can become loose and prone to erosion. A diverse array of plants can help to restore stability to the soil and prevent further damage.
Nutrient cycling: Biodiverse ecosystems have a greater variety of species that are able to process and recycle nutrients, such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and sulfur. This can help to restore the nutrient balance in the ecosystem and support the growth of new vegetation.
What does the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure suggest?
A fluid mosaic model of membrane structure suggests that the membrane consists of protein molecules embedded in a liquid bilayer of phospholipids.
What does fluid mosaic model of membrane structure mean?Fluid Mosaic model has been proposed by S.J. Singer and Garth L. Nicolson. The fluid mosaic model describes the cell membrane as a carpet of multiple types of molecules (phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins) in constant motion. This movement helps the cell membrane maintain its role as a barrier between the inside and outside of the cellular environment.
What are conclusions of the fluid mosaic model?Fluid mosaic models have been demonstrated for gross tissue, protein structure, and lipids in bio-membrane. This model is consistent with the necessary constraints of thermodynamics. Proteins, which are an integral part of membranes, are a heterogeneous set of globular molecules in this model.
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describe two environmental benefits of using algae for biofuel production, rather than corn, palm oil, or sugarcane.
Two environmental benefits of using algae for biofuel production rather than corn, palm oil, or sugarcane are reduced land use and carbon sequestration, as they have the potential to reduce carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere.
What is the importance of algae in biofuel?Algae biofuel production is environmentally friendly, it requires less land and takes up less space than the vast monoculture plantations of corn and palm oil, and algae can consume up to 10 times more carbon dioxide than traditional crops.
Hence, two environmental benefits of using algae for biofuel production rather than corn, palm oil, or sugarcane are reduced land use and carbon sequestration, as they have the potential to reduce carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere.
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what is the kingdom that contains single-celled organisms that live in extreme environments?
The Archaea kingdom is home to single-celled creatures that can endure harsh conditions.
A significant class of unicellular microbes known as archaea has developed particular adaptations to endure in harsh environments including high temperatures, high salt, and severe pH levels.
Salt lakes, hot springs, and hydrothermal vents are a few of the settings where these species may be found. They may also be found in the soil, the animal intestines, and even the deepest regions of the ocean.
The genetic material of archaea is separate from that of other creatures, and they also have distinctive membrane architectures.
These traits enable them to endure in harsh conditions and to be resistant to a variety of antibiotics. Archaea are crucial to the ecology because they participate in the global carbon cycle, assist to recycle nutrients, and provide energy.
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it is unknown whether a parent organism is homozygous dominant or heterozygous so it is mated in a test cross. what can be concluded if half of the offspring have the same phenotype as the parent?
If half of the offsprings have the same phenotype as that of the parents, then it can be concluded that the genotype of parents is heterozygous containing one dominant and other recessive allele.
Test cross is a type of cross in which one of the heterozygous offspring is crossed with their homozygous recessive parent. It is performed when only the phenotype of the offsrping is known, but not their genotype. Dominant phenotype can be expressed when both the dominant allele, or even when a single dominant allele is present. Crossing this individual with the homozygous recessive parents can determine whether the offspring is homozygous or heterozygous.
According to the question, the genotype of the parent is not known, but the phenotype is dominant. This means that when a heterozygous offspring is crossed with this parent, the new offsprings would be produced in a phenotypic ratio of 3:1 if the parent is homozygous dominant, or otherwise the parent is heterozygous dominant.
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what does it mean to say that a life cycle is gametophyte dominant versus sporophyte dominant? select all that apply. what does it mean to say that a life cycle is gametophyte dominant versus sporophyte dominant?select all that apply. the gametophyte is longer-lived than the sporophyte. the gametophyte produces most of the nutrition. the gametophyte differs from the appearance of the sporophyte. the gametophyte exists independently of the sporophyte. the gametophyte is larger than the sporophyte.
In a life cycle where the gametophyte predominates, the gametophyte is bigger, lives longer, and provides the majority of the nutrients. The larger, more durable, and photosynthetic phase of the life cycle is the sporophyte generation, thus the correct options are A and E.
The life cycle is referred to as haplontic if the gametophyte generation outlives the sporophyte generation and is therefore dominant. There is a haplontic life cycle in bryophytes. The single representative of sporophytic generation is the one-celled zygote. Free-living sporophytes don't exist. Haploid spores are produced by meiosis in the zygote. The gametophyte is created by the mitotic division of the haploid spores. The free-living gametophyte is such plants' primary photosynthetic phase.
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The complete question is:
What does it mean to say that a life cycle is gametophyte dominant versus sporophyte dominant? select all that apply.
A. The gametophyte is longer-lived than the sporophyte.
B. The gametophyte produces most of the nutrition.
C. The gametophyte differs from the appearance of the sporophyte.
D. The gametophyte exists independently of the sporophyte.
E. The gametophyte is larger than the sporophyte.
A student compares the emissions from various energy sources. Which energy source would produce the greatest amount of emissions? O fossil fuels O nuclear fuels O solar energy O wind energy
The most emissions are produced by fossil fuel energy.
Again, the dirtiest fuel is coal. It produces hundreds of times more greenhouse gases than nuclear, solar, and wind energy combined. Although to a lesser extent than coal, oil and gas are also significantly worse than nuclear and renewable energy.
Nuclear power and contemporary renewable energy sources are significantly safer and cleaner than fossil fuels, which are the dirtiest and most dangerous energy sources. The variations are substantial. The main components of fossil fuels are carbon and hydrogen. When fossil fuels are burned, oxygen reacts with both carbon and hydrogen to create CO2 and water (H2O). We use the heat produced by these reactions as energy.
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if you were the evolutionary biologist in charge of a project to create a phylogenetic tree that better clarified the evolutionary relationships between the species listed in the accompanying figure, what would be a logical first step?
The first logical step would be to Evaluate evidence to determine the relationships of species D, E, and F if you were the evolutionary biologist in charge of a project to build a phylogenetic tree that better clarified the evolutionary relationships between the species listed in the accompanying figure.
To ascertain the relationships between species D, E, and F, we can assess the available evidence.
This is the best place to start because the third question's evaluation of DNA evidence over morphological evidence points to the basic concept of similarity between closely related species.
When assessing a phylogenetic relationship, we must proceed from most similar to least similar species and from phenotype to genotype.
The study of phylogenetic relationships examines how organisms in a species or population have developed relationships over time. These connections are found by comparing anatomical features or DNA, RNA, or protein sequences that are similar. Phylogenetics is significant because it improves our comprehension of how genes, genomes, species, and, more broadly, molecular sequences, evolve.
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The above question is incomplete. Check complete question below -
If you were the evolutionary biologist in charge of a project to create a phylogenetic tree that better clarified the evolutionary relationships between the species listed in the accompanying figure, what would be a logical first step? ( image is attached )
a) Analyze taxon G as it is the oldest existing species.
b) Compare DNA evidence for taxa B and C as they are the most closely related.
c) Investigate the genetic relationships between species A and G.
d) Evaluate evidence to determine the relationships of species D, E, and F.
e) x
which category of bone is among the most numerous in the skeleton?
The skeletal system's long bones are the most numerous. The most frequent form of cartilage in your body is hyaline cartilage.
It covers the ends of your bones and lines your joints. Articular cartilage refers to the hyaline cartilage at the ends of your bones. The axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton are the two components of the bony skeleton.
The skull, vertebrae, ribs, and sternum comprise the axial skeleton, which is the central core unit. The bones of the extremities make up the appendicular skeleton.
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stabilizing selection increases genetic and phenotypic variation and decreases the frequency of intermediate phenotypes true or false
According to The sentence is False stabilising selection reduces the frequency of transitory phenotypes and enhances genetic and phenotypic diversity.
What is a phenotypic example?Phenotypes include things like height, wing extent, and hair colour. In addition to measurable traits that may be observed and tested in a lab, phenotypes also include blood cell or hormone levels.
Describe genotypic and phenotypic terms.An individual's genotype is determined by their unique DNA pattern. More specifically, the 2 alleles a person acquired for a given gene are referred to by this phrase. This genotype, or phenotype, manifests itself in a patient's clinical presentation.
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After a sensory receptor is stimulated and sensory impulses travel to the brain, the brain becomes aware of the stimulus. This is called __________.
When other areas of the brain interpret the incoming sensory impulses, the process of __________ has occurred.
After a sensory receptor is stimulated and sensory impulses travel to the brain, the brain becomes aware of the stimulus. This is called sensation. When other areas of the brain interpret the incoming sensory impulses, the process of perception has occurred.
Sensation refers to the process by which sensory information is detected by sensory receptor and transmitted to the brain for processing. This involves the conversion of physical stimuli, such as light or sound waves, into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. Perception, on the other hand, refers to the process by which the brain interprets and organizes sensory receptor in order to make sense of the world around us. This involves the integration and interpretation of sensory information by various areas of the brain, including the primary sensory cortex and higher-order brain regions. Together, sensation and perception are the processes by which we detect, interpret, and make sense of the world around us.
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which of the mrna modifications is common in human cells?
The term "5' capping" refers to one of the most frequent mRNA modifications in human cells.
The 7-methylguanosine (m7G) cap is an addition made to the 5' end of the mRNA molecule during this modification. A short time after mRNA is synthesised, the m7G cap is attached to it. It prevents mRNA from being degraded and attracts ribosomes for translation.
The m7G cap can also play a role in the control of mRNA stability, translation, and processing in addition to regulating the mRNA's access to the cytoplasm.
In addition to 5' capping, polyadenylation, splicing, and editing are frequently occurring mRNA changes in human cells. A poly(A) tail is added to the 3' end of the mRNA during polyadenylation, which aids in stabilising the mRNA and improving its translation efficiency.
Splicing is the process by which exons are linked together and introns are cut from the pre-mRNA transcript, resulting in a mature mRNA.
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What is the organelles that capture the energy from sunlight and convert it into chemical energy in a process photosynthesis?
Chloroplasts function to transform solar light energy into sugars that may be used by cells. It converts solar energy into chemical energy similarly to a solar panel.
How does photosynthesis work?The process through which plants convert carbon dioxide, water, and sunshine into oxygen and sugar-based energy is known as photosynthesis.
Who made photosynthesis possible?Jan Ingenhousz was a Dutch-born British paediatrician and scientist who passed away in Bowood, Wiltshire, England on September 7, 1799. He is best known for discovering the photosynthesis process which allows green plants to absorb carbon dioxide from the air and release oxygen when exposed to sunlight.
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the collection of microorganisms that live on or on a human host in a mutually beneficial way is called the human ______.
microbiome is the collection of microorganisms that live on or on a human host in a mutually beneficial way .
microbiome is defined as the collection of all microbes which includes bacteria, fungi, viruses, and their genes which naturally live on our bodies and inside us.
They have the role of protecting our bodies against the outside pathogens and also help in making the immunity for our body.
microbes often interact the environment, some are harmful or some are useful and act as buffer.
each part of body have different microbes, the whole body has varieties of microbes.
environmental conditions can also affect the microbiomes present in human body.
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hich of the following is not a characteristic that all arthropods share? question 1 options: ability to breathe underwater exoskeleton segmented body jointed legs / appendages
A closed circulatory system is a trait that does not apply to arthropods; hence choice D is the best one.
Arthropoda, the biggest phylum, with over nine lakh species and includes parasitic, aquatic, and even terrestrial species. They have jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeletons. The class Insecta, which makes up a significant portion of all animal species in the world, is one of a number of significant classes found in this phylum. It is believed that annelids and arthropods share a common ancestor. The three arthropod lineages are assumed to have split from a single common ancestor. Adaptations like breathing tracheae were developed by the earliest arthropods. Arthropods are organisms with segmented bodies, an exoskeleton covering their bodies, and joint appendages or legs. Invertebrates classified as Arthropoda mostly consist of insects, crustaceans, and myriapods.
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QuestionWhich one of the following statements with regard to embryonic development in humans is correct?ACleavage divisions bring about considerable increase in the mass of protoplasm.BIn the second cleavage division, one of the two blastomeres usually divides a little sooner than the second.CWith more cleavage divisions, the resultant blastomeres become larger and larger.DCleavage division results in a hollow ball of cells called morula.Hard
Of the options provided, option D is correct. Cleavage division results in a hollow ball of cells called the morula, which is the precursor to the blastula.
During cleavage, the fertilized egg undergoes a series of rapid cell divisions without any increase in the overall size of the embryo. This results in a large number of smaller cells, each containing a smaller amount of cytoplasm than the original egg cell.
As these cells continue to divide, they form a compact ball of cells known as the morula. The cells within the morula then rearrange themselves, forming a hollow ball of cells called the blastula. The blastula contains an inner cell mass that will give rise to the embryo, as well as an outer layer of cells that will form the placenta and other supporting structures.
It is important to note that the other options provided are not accurate statements about human embryonic development. Option A is incorrect because cleavage divisions do not increase the mass of protoplasm, but rather divide the existing mass into smaller cells. Option B is incorrect because both blastomeres typically divide at the same time. Option C is incorrect because as cleavage divisions continue, the resultant blastomeres become smaller, not larger.
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What would happen if the inside solution of a cell is hypertonic to the solution outside of the cell ( outside solution is hypertonic )?
Answer:
Please read below:
Explanation:
If the inside solution of a cell is hypertonic to the solution outside of the cell, the cell will lose water due to osmosis and can become dehydrated, causing it to shrink or shrivel. If the outside solution is hypertonic, water will move out of the cell and it will shrivel. The cell may also burst if the water loss is too great.
Phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and receptor-mediated endocytosis all involvea. the export of macromolecules.b. invagination of the plasma membrane.c. the intake of large particles.d. the intake of specific fluids by the cell.e. the presence of receptor proteins.
Phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and receptor-mediated endocytosis all involves
option b. invagination of the plasma membrane.
Endocytosis is the process by which particles that are too large to pass passively through the cell membrane are taken inside. Pinocytosis is the ingestion of liquid particles, whereas phagocytosis is the ingestion of large food particles. Large particles are transported across the cell membrane via receptor-mediated endocytosis, which employs specialised receptor proteins.
Phagocytosis is the process by which a cell extends its membrane and internalises a large particle, such as a bacterium. Similar processes, such as pinocytosis, involve the cell engulfing extracellular fluid droplets and absorbing any dissolved chemicals within them. Because the chemicals transported into the cell are specific ligands that could bind to the endocytosed receptors, receptor-mediated endocytosis is more selective.
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which of the following best explains how some cells of an individual produce and secrete a specific enzyme, but other cells of the same individual do not? responses the cells contain different genes and therefore do not make the same proteins. the cells contain different genes and therefore do not make the same proteins. the cells have evolved under different selective pressures, resulting in some cells making proteins that others cannot. the cells have evolved under different selective pressures, resulting in some cells making proteins that others cannot. the cells transcribe and translate different combinations of genes, leading to the production of different sets of proteins. the cells transcribe and translate different combinations of genes, leading to the production of different sets of proteins. the cells produce different types of ribosomes that enable the translation of different genes.
Different gene combinations are translated and transcribed by the cells, resulting in the synthesis of various protein sets.
Proteins are created by genes, and proteins control how cells function. Therefore, a cell's capabilities are determined by the hundreds of genes that are expressed in that cell. Additionally, the cell can potentially regulate each stage of the informational chain from DNA to RNA to protein by altering the quantity and kind of proteins it produces. This allows the cell to self-regulate its operations. A protein's concentration in a cell at any one time reflects the equilibrium between its metabolic pathways for synthesis and degradation. Recall that protein creation begins with transcription (DNA to RNA) and continues with translation on the synthetic side of this balance (RNA to protein).
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The major type of cell found in fibrous connective tissue is the:_________
The major type of cell found in fibrous connective tissue is the fibroblast.
Elongated, spindle-shaped cells called fibroblasts are essential for the development and upkeep of fibrous connective tissue. They are in charge of creating and arranging the extracellular matrix, which is made up of proteins like glycoproteins and fibers like collagen and elastin.
Additionally, fibroblasts play a role in tissue regeneration and wound healing. They proliferate and move to the site of harm when there is damage, where they produce proteins and other compounds that aid in healing and tissue regeneration. They also contribute to the regulation of the extracellular matrix by dissolving and eliminating worn-out or broken fibers and generating fresh ones.
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Page(s) 175–1775.3. How Do We Hear?Place in order the steps involved for sound waves to create a perception of the sound in thebrain.Sound waves enter the auditory canal.The eardrum vibrates.The hammer, anvil, and stirrup transfer vibration to the oval window.Pressure waves of the cochlea move the basilar membrane.Stimulated hair cells send information to the auditory nerve.The auditory nerve carries information to the thalamus.The thalamus directs information to the brain’s primary auditory cortex
This sequence of events represents the process by which sound waves are converted into electrical signals that are sent to the brain for processing and interpretation.
The correct order of the steps involved in how we hear is:
Sound waves enter the auditory canal.The eardrum vibrates.The hammer, anvil, and stirrup transfer vibration to the oval window.Pressure waves of the cochlea move the basilar membrane.Stimulated hair cells send information to the auditory nerve.The auditory nerve carries information to the thalamus.The thalamus directs information to the brain's primary auditory cortex.The process begins when sound waves enter the ear and travel through the auditory canal. The eardrum vibrates in response to the sound waves, and this vibration is transmitted through a series of tiny bones in the middle ear called the hammer, anvil, and stirrup. These bones transfer the vibration to the oval window, which is a membrane that separates the middle ear from the inner ear. The pressure waves created by the movement of the oval window cause the basilar membrane in the cochlea to move. The basilar membrane is lined with tiny hair cells that are stimulated by the movement, and these hair cells send electrical signals to the auditory nerve. The auditory nerve carries these signals to the thalamus, which acts as a relay station for sensory information. Finally, the thalamus directs the information to the brain's primary auditory cortex, where the sound is perceived and interpreted.
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Please help me with these 3 questions. I don't need an explanation, just the number.
1. Rigo left 62 grams of ice in a closed container. When he came back he found that the ice had melted. How much water would be expected to have in the container?
2. Rust is formed when iron reacts with the oxygen in moist air. Suppose 100 g of iron metal rusts. We weigh the rust and find that the rust has a mass of 143 g. What mass of oxygen reacted with the iron?
3. 15 grams of hydrogen and 7.5 grand of oxygen were placed in a beaker. An explosion happened inside the beaker that produced water. The beaker was never opened. How many grams of water were produced?
Thank you for anyone who has taken the time to answer these questions. I really do appreciate you :)
Answer:
how to construct a scale and vernier
The substances that participate in a reaction are called __________________, whereas the substances that form as a result of a reaction are ____________________
Substances that participate in a reaction are called reactants, and substances formed in a reaction are called products.
Why should reactants and products be balanced?Reactants are starting materials and are on the left side of the equation. The product is the final result of the reaction and is on the right side of the equation. To obey the law of conservation of mass, which states that matter is neither created nor destroyed, chemical reactions must be in balance. A balanced chemical equation gives a rough idea of the number of reactants needed for a reaction
What is the role of reactants and products in chemical reactions?A reactant is the substance that initiates a chemical reaction, and a product is the substance that results from the reaction. Chemical reactions can be represented by common chemical formulas. Reactant → Product. Bonds are broken and reformed during chemical reactions. The reaction also occurs in the opposite direction.
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A small child and a teenager are at the top of a hill on skateboards. What could the child do to decrease his gravitational potential energy?
Answer: Do nothing.
Explanation: Considering they are on top of the hill on skateboards, and not going down the hill, the best thing for them to decrease there gravitational potential energy, is by doing nothing.
if we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, ___
If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, it would cause an increase in the rate of depolarization of the pacemaker cells.
This, in turn, would result in an increase in the heart rate, since the pacemaker cells set the pace for the rest of the heart. The normal pacemaker cells in the sinoatrial (SA) node of the heart spontaneously depolarize and generate an action potential, which then spreads to the atrial and ventricular muscles and causes them to contract. If the sodium influx into the pacemaker cells is increased, the rate of depolarization will be faster, and the time it takes to reach the threshold potential will be shorter. This will lead to a more rapid firing of action potentials in the SA node, and thus a faster heart rate.
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what is planet the smallest of the inner planets and looks very much like earth’s moon?
Closest planet to the Sun in our solar system is Mercury. The Sun would be visible from the surface of Mercury as being up to seven times brighter and more than three times as huge as it is from Earth.
Mercury is close to the Sun, but Venus, which is also close by, has the record for having the hottest planet in our solar system.
From some areas of Mercury's surface, the Sun appears to momentarily rise, set, and rise again due to the planet's eccentric orbit (which resembles an egg) and sluggish rotation. After sunset, the identical scenario plays out in reverse.
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Do eukaryotes break down molecules to generate energy?
Yes, eukaryotes use molecular breakdown to create energy.
Cellular respiration is the term for this procedure, which is necessary for living. In order to create energy during this process, organic compounds like carbohydrates and lipids are broken down in the presence of oxygen.
Depending on the oxygen supply, cellular respiration can happen either aerobically or anaerobically. In aerobic respiration, glucose is converted into carbon dioxide, water, and energy using oxygen. In anaerobic respiration, glucose is transformed into lactic acid and energy without the need of oxygen.
In both situations, the energy generated powers a number of cellular processes, such as the pumping of ions across membranes and the creation of macromolecules.
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Lorraine's coworkers regularly plan potluck lunch parties, although there is an inadequate food storage area for all of the potentially hazardous foods her coworkers bring. To prove a point, Lorraine brought a thermometer to today's gathering. She found the following temperatures. Click to select the foods that are in the danger zone.A. potato casserole 132 chilled salad made with may at 55 degreesB. a fruit salad with melons at 39 FC. a rotisseries chicken at 138 FD. a warm scalloped potato casserole at 132 F
The correct answers are C and D. Both of these meals are dangerous since they are over the required temperature of 140°F or below.
The potato casserole, at 132°F, and the rotisserie chicken, at 138°F, are both over this temperature, indicating that they are contaminated with germs and should not be ingested.
Both the fruit salad with melons at 39°F and the chilled salad with mayonnaise at 55°F are safe to eat because they are below the advised temperature. Before eating, it's crucial to check the food's temperature to make sure it's safe to eat.
To prevent potential food-borne diseases, food should be thrown away if it is warmer than recommended.
Complete Question:
Lorraine's coworkers regularly plan potluck lunch parties, although there is an inadequate food storage area for all of the potentially hazardous foods they bring. To prove a point, Lorraine brought a thermometer to today's gathering. She found the following temperatures. Click to select the foods that are in the danger zone.
A. potato casserole 132 chilled salad made with may at 55 degrees
B. a fruit salad with melons at 39 F
C. a rotisseries chicken at 138 F
D. a warm scalloped potato casserole at 132 F
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the condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse of alveoli is group of answer choices copd. anoxia. respiratory distress syndrome. pulmonary embolism. pneumothorax.
The condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse of alveoli is respiratory distress syndrome. option 3)
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a life-threatening illness where the lungs cannot provide the body's important organs with enough oxygen. It is frequently the result of a major pre-existing medical condition. This means that most people are already in the hospital when they acquire ARDS.
What is the cause of RDS?A lack of surfactant in the lungs causes RDS. During the third trimester, which begins after the 26th week of pregnancy, the lungs of a fetus begin producing surfactant.
Surfactant is a frothy material that keeps the lungs fully extended after birth so that babies may breathe in air. Without it, the newborn's lungs collapse and he or she must struggle hard to breathe. This can result in the baby's organs not functioning properly.
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Full Question: The condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse of alveoli is group of answer choices
Copd. Anoxia. respiratory distress syndrome. pulmonary embolism. pneumothorax.Name the epidermal layer that is found in thick skin, but is absent from thin skin.
Answer:
Explanation:
Thick skin is thicker due to it containing an extra layer in the epidermis, called the stratum lucidum. Thick skin actually has a thinner dermis layer than thin skin, but is still thicker due to the stratum lucidum layer present in the epidermis.
QuestionTrait that masks the other trait is called _______ trait.ADominantBRecessiveCMutantDMaskMedium
Trait that masks the other trait is called dominant trait. Even though there is only one copy of the dominant characteristic, it is always expressed when the connected allele is dominant. option a)
Dominance is the phenomena in genetics of one variant (allele) of a gene on a chromosome masking or overriding the action of another variant of the same gene on the other copy of the chromosome. The first variant is known as dominant, whereas the second is known as recessive. This condition of having two different variants of the same gene on each chromosome is produced by a new (de novo) or inherited mutation in one of the genes.
Gene variants on non-sex chromosomes (autosomes) and their associated traits are referred to as autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive, whereas those on sex chromosomes are referred to as X-linked dominant, X-linked recessive, or Y-linked; these have an inheritance and presentation pattern that depends on the sex of both the parent and the child (see Sex linkage).
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