I need help on this please and thank you

I Need Help On This Please And Thank You

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

NH4has a positive charge and sticks to soil particles.

Explanation:

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Related Questions

If a drug that specifically prevented the interaction of cytochrome c with other proteins was added to respiring mitochondria in a test tube, what effects would be observed?.

Answers

The cell won’t be able to completely oxidise glucose if an additive molecule that hinders the electron transport chain is applied. As a result, less oxygen is consumed.

When complex I is inhibited by antimycin A, electron transport from complexes or flavoproteins containing FADH2 to cytochromes is prevented.In this instance, the initial Complex Ill constituents are completely reduced and the subsequent constituents are oxidised. The final complex of eukaryotic oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria is called cytochrome c oxidase. This process combines the reduction of electron carriers during metabolism with the reduction of molecular oxygen to water as well as the transfer of protons from the inner matrix of the mitochondria to the intermembrane gap.Adenosine triphosphate, an energy-carrying molecule, is present in the cells of all living things (ATP). ATP stores the chemical energy produced by the disintegration of food molecules before releasing it to drive other cellular processes.Cells often require chemical energy for three types of tasks: driving metabolic activities that wouldn’t occur naturally; transferring required materials across membranes; and doing mechanical work, like flexing muscles.

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Accuracy in the translation of mrna into the primary structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the _____.

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Accuracy in the translation of mRNA to the primary structure of polypeptide depends on the binding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.

On what does translation of mRNA depends?

The main components required for translation are mRNA, ribosomes, transfer RNA and other enzymatic factors. mRNA carries the sequence information for the protein to be synthesized.

The translational efficiency of a given mRNA depends on concentration in the cell and sequence as well as on the available cellular resources, including pools of free ribosomes, aa‐tRNAs and availability of translation factors.

Assessing a translation for accuracy can be done by working from side-by-side printouts, systematically uncovering and assessing short sections of text.

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What happens to the rate of
photosynthesis as temperature
decreases?
A. The rate will stay the same.
B. The rate will decrease.
C. The rate will increase.

Answers

Answer:

c

Explanation:

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What type of mutation has occurred in the following example?
A.) deletion mutation
B.) insertion mutation
C.) point mutation
Which letter choice is correct? A, B, or C? Use screenshot to help

Answers

C is the right one point mutation

Males with high fertility rates tend to _______. Select both answers that apply.

Answers

The answer is : B
hope that helps

of the four abdominal muscles, which is not a prime mover in lateral pelvic rotation from a hanging overhead by the hands position?

Answers

In lateral pelvic rotation from the four abdominal muscles hanging overhead by the hands position, the transverse abdominis is not a primary mover.

Of the six abdominal muscles, the transverse abdominis (TrA) muscle is the deepest. Between the ribs and the pelvis, it expands, encircling the trunk from front to back. Similar to a back support belt, the muscle's fibres run horizontally called transverse abdominis.

The large group of muscles in the front of the abdomen known as the abdominal muscles lift and stabilise abdominal organs like the intestines as well as contribute to normal breathing. They also support the muscles of the spine are called abdominal muscles.

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remove plasma water and solutes by adding dialysate. b. remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection. c. remove plasma water in cases of volume overload. d. combine ultrafiltration, convection and dialysis

Answers

Continuous Veno-venous hemofiltration is used to: (b) remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection.

Continuous Veno-venous hemofiltration is a form of treatment for the people with acute renal failure. This treatment is pursued when the patient is unstable and cannot tolerate hemodialysis. In this the dialysis catheter is inserted into the veins.

Convection is the method of movement of solvent and even some solutes through a semi-permeable membrane. This process is applied in the process of dialysis. The solutes gets adsorbed in the surface of membrane and therefore being removed. A hydrostatic or transmembrane transmembrane pressure gradient is involved in this.

The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:

Continuous veno-venous hemofiltration is used to

remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection.remove plasma water in cases of volume overload.remove plasma water and solutes by adding dialysate.combine ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis.

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What group of organisms carry
out photosynthesis?
A. consumers
B. producers
C. decomposers

Answers

Answer:

your answer will be B which is producers because they make their own food which creates energy for them to grow and survive

If water were a nonpolar molecule , how would its properties be different ? A. Water would be able to form hydrogen bonds. B. Water would stick together much more strongly . C. Water would not be able to climb up inside plants. D. Water would be a much heavier molecule .

Answers

Answer:

Cohesiveness, adhesiveness, and surface tension: would decrease because without the +/-‐ polarity, water would not form hydrogen bonds between H20 molecules.

Explanation:

Please give me brainlist answer

Answer:

The correct answer is obviously B. water would stick together much more strongly

Explanation:

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HELLO! IT WOULD MEAN A LOT IF YOU PLEASE HELP!

Answers

The side that would increase in volume due to osmosis is Side II.

What is Osmosis?

The random net movement or diffusion of solvent molecules through a selectively permeable membrane from a location of high water potential to a region of lower water concentration, in the direction that tends to equalize the solute concentrations on the two sides, is referred to as osmosis.

Osmosis is classified into two types:

Endosmosis: The process through which water molecules enter cells.Exosmosis: The process through which water molecules leave the cell.

Osmosis in microporous membranes is induced by a momentum deficit within the pores caused by the membrane's reflection of solute molecules. For a semipermeable membrane, this reduces the pressure on the solution side of the pore by π.

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DNA is considered the blueprint of life, yet in eukaryotic organisms such as humans, it never leaves the nucleus. Which of the following is the BEST explanation for how DNA provides the code for protein synthesis in the cytoplasm?

Inside the nucleus, DNA is translated into mRNA, which then leaves the nucleus before being transcribed into proteins.
The DNA in the nucleus is transcribed into mRNA, which then leaves the nucleus and be translated into proteins at the ribosome.
The DNA in the nucleus is translated into proteins, which then leave the nucleus and enter the cytoplasm where transcription of mRNA can occur.
Under the right conditions, DNA is converted into tRNA, which then leaves the nucleus and is translated into proteins.

Answers

DNA is the blueprint of life that never leaves the nucleus but yet makes protein, so the statement saying "The DNA in the nucleus is transcribed into mRNA, which then leaves the nucleus and is translated into proteins at the ribosome" is true. The second option is true.

How does the DNA regulate the cell?

Because DNA preserves the genetic content of the organism, it does not enter the cytoplasm directly to encode the protein in eukaryotes. So it transcribes the mRNA, which further goes to the cell cytoplasm and codes for the proteins with enzymes and ribosomes. In this way, DNA being in the nucleus regulates the cell and protein synthesis.

Hence, the second option is true regarding this process.

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The genetic code consists of ____ codons that specify amino acids, and ____ codons that do not specify amino acids.

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The genetic code consists of 61 codons that specify amino acids, and 3 codons that do not specify amino acids.

The genetic code specifies how many amino acids there are.

The four nucleotides included in mRNA—A, U, G, and C—can combine in 64 different ways according to the codon's three-letter structure. The following 61 codons are related to amino acids, whereas the final three of these 64 codons are stop signals that signal the completion of protein synthesis.

Instead of coding for amino acids, three of the 64 potential codons indicate the end of a protein. The 61 remaining codons describe the 20 amino acids that are utilized to form proteins. Methionine is coded for by the AUG codon, which is located at the beginning of the DNA

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Cell Analogy, PLEASE HELP IF YOU ARE GOOD WITH BIOLOGY! THANK YOU I APPRECIATE IT SO MUCH! NEED ANSWERS ASAP.

Read the example analogy below and label which underlined words match the different organelles listed. Then,
in the space at the bottom of the page, write your own cell analogy!
There is a building in the middle of town designed for making donuts. In the building are special ovens where
these donuts are made. In the center of the building is an office where the bakers keep all of the recipes for
making the donuts. Within the office there is a small workspace where the special oven parts are designed and
assembled.
Outside of the office is a conveyor belt which is used to move the baking sheets, pieces of the oven, and other
necessary things to the ovens. There are many generators that provide the energy to power the ovens so that
they can bake donuts all day. Once the donuts are made, they are sent to the decorating station to be iced,
sprinkled, and packaged up for delivery. Rolling carts are used to move the donuts from place to place, and
eventually to the delivery trucks lined up along the back wall of the building to take them out into the town.
If any of the donuts get damaged in the process, they get placed in the break room where hungry employees will destroy them on their breaks.

Answers

Answer: Just use clues from the questions

Explanation:

there are clues that represent the different parts

In the given scenario the oven that is used to make the donuts are analogous to the ribosomes which are used for the synthesis of protein. A. The different parts of the building can be matched with the cell organelles as follows: 1- oven, 2- office for recipes, 3- delivery trucks, 4-generators, 5- hungry employees, 6- decorating station, 7- small workspace to design oven parts, 8- donuts, 9- conveyer belt, 10- office for oven assembly.

Describe the process of sorting and transporting proteins.

Protein targeting and sorting are laborious processes that must be done carefully. While translation is still active, the first stage of protein sorting takes place. On ribosomes that are attached to the endoplasmic reticulum membrane, numerous proteins that are destined for the endoplasmic reticulum, the Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, the plasma membrane, and secretion from the cell are synthesized.

The endoplasmic reticulum, where protein folding and processing occur, receives the polypeptide chains as translation continues. Proteins are moved in vesicles from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus, where they undergo additional processing and sorting before being moved to lysosomes, the plasma membrane, or secretion from the cell. Thus, they stand out from other cytoplasmic organelles, such as the Golgi apparatus and lysosomes.

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What is the structure of hydrophobic hairs or ridges on the body that allow insects to carry water in aquatic habitats?.

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Plastrons are hydrophobic hairs or ridges on the body of an insect.

It is a special array of rigid, closely-spaced hydrophobic hairs/water-repellent (also called setae) that create an airspace next to the body. This pile of small hairs covers much of the cuticle and prevents the air film from collapsing. Also known as gill, it consists of a stationary layer of air held in place on the body surface by millions of tiny hairs that support a permanent air–water interface, so that the insect never has to renew the gas at the water's surface. Many water-walking insects possess hydrophobic hairs.

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Compared to the cell in g1, the number of chromosomes in one cell _______ after the s phase and _______ after the m phase.

Answers

Compared to the cell in G1, the number of chromosomes in one cell is 14 after the S phase and 14 after the m phase.

A cell's growth and division are governed by a series of events known as the cell cycle. The majority of a cell's time is spent in interphase, where it grows, replicates its chromosomes, and gets ready for cell division. After that, the cell enters mitosis, completes its division, and leaves interphase.

In the G1 phase, the cell synthesizes, and in the S phase, DNA replication, the cell cycles in the order G1–S–M.

In the beginning, there were 14 chromosomes in the G1 phase.

The number of chromosomes does not change during the S phase. Thus, there are once more 14 chromosomes.

Again, there is no change at the beginning of the M phase.

Thus, the cell will have the chromosome number at G1, after S, and after M stage individually are

  14,14,14.

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(complete question)

Compared to the cell in g1, the number of chromosomes in one cell _______ after the s phase and _______ after the m phase. if it has 14 chromosomes at the beginning of interphase?

which of the following is an acceptable definition of an adaptation among biologists? which of the following is an acceptable definition of an adaptation among biologists? a phenotypic variant that results in the highest fitness among a specified set of variants in a given environment. a derived character that evolved in response to a specific selective agent. a trait that evolved by natural selection for a particular function (because it increases fitness) from an ancestor that did not have that trait. all of these are acceptable definitions.

Answers

The most acceptable definition of adaptation among biologists is:  a trait that evolved by natural selection for a particular function (because it increases fitness) from an ancestor that did not have that trait.

Adaptation is the phenomenon of an organism adjusting to its surrounding and changing environment. This adaptation may or may not increase the fitness of the individual. Sometimes the adaptations are only to maintain the living of the organism.

Natural selection is the phenomenon of evolution where the organisms that adapt to the changing environment are able to survive better and longer than the organisms those are not able to do so.

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During gene expression, when dna is being transcribed into rna, the non-coding sections are removed. The remaining coding segments are connected. This process is called.

Answers

The process in which the non-coding sections of the DNA are removed and the coding sections are connected is referred to as splicing.

After the process of transcription, the mRNA that has been produced in not ready to be translated. This is because it contains the introns and the exons.

The introns are the non-coding region of the DNA whereas the exon is the coding region of the DNA.

The non-coding regions of the DNA do not code for any known proteins and hence are removed before the translation process. The process through which the introns or the non-coding regions are removed is referred to as splicing.

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The most important adaptive advantage associated with the filamentous nature of fungal mycelia is.

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The large surface area that the filamentous form of fungal mycelia offers is the most significant adaptive benefit suitable for invasive growth and absorptive feeding.

A mycelium, also known as mycelia, is a fungus's root-like structure made up of a mass of branching, thread-like hyphae. Mycelium-based fungi can be found in and on soil as well as many other substrates. A mycelium can be small, growing into an invisible colony, or it might expand to cover thousands of acres, as in the case of Armillaria.

Due to their function in the microbial breakdown of plant matter, mycelia are essential to both terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems. As they grow, they add to the organic portion of the soil and release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. Many soil invertebrates rely on mycelium as a major food source. Nearly all plant species depend on them, and many species have coevolved with fungus, making them essential to agriculture and to all plant species. Mycelium plays a key role in the fitness of plants by influencing their health, nutrient uptake, and growth.

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What is the sequence of the 5’ end of the mrna transcribed from this prokaryotic gene?.

Answers

The prokaryotic gene's mRNA transcript's 5' end has the sequence UUGA.

During transcription, what happens at the 5 end?

Transcription comes to a halt during termination, which happens when RNA polymerase crosses a stop (termination) sequence in the gene. The finished mRNA strand separates from the DNA.

Does mRNA's 5' end mark the beginning of translation?

There are unique initiation locations where translation starts rather than just at the 5' end of the mRNA. Therefore, the 5' terminal sections of mRNAs from prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are noncoding sequences known as 5' untranslated regions.

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if atp used by this plant is labeled with radioactive phosphorus, which molecule or molecules of the calvin cycle will be radioactively labeled first?

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1,3-bisphosphoglycerate is the first radiolabeled molecule of the Calvin cycle.

For plants to "fix" carbon from CO₂ into three-carbon sugars, a series of chemical events known as the Calvin cycle must occur. These three-carbon substances can later be converted by plants and animals into more complex carbohydrates including starches, nucleotides, and amino acids.

The three fundamental phases of the Calvin cycle are fixation, reduction, and regeneration. The Calvin cycle is the name given to the photosynthesis reactions that use the energy stored by the light-dependent reactions to create glucose and other molecules of carbohydrates.

The Calvin cycle uses the ATP molecules as energy sources and hence the 1st product of the calvin cycle will be radio labeled.

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What is the average of 2cm squared and 4cm squared

Answers

Answer:

((2 (cm squared)) + (4 (cm squared))) / 2 =

0.0003 m2

Explanation:

which body region would have the most sensory receptors and in turn have more space dedicated to them in the primary somatosensory cortex?

Answers

The area of ​​the body that will have the most sensory receptors and is dedicated to them in the primary somatosensory cortex is a sense of touches such as the skin, soles of the feet, or the palms of the hands.

What is a sensory receptor?

A sensory or receptor is an organ or cell that is useful for receiving stimuli. By using this tool, the nervous system recognizes changes in various forms of energy, both in the internal and external environment. 7 sensory systems must be stimulated as early as possible for optimal development, namely tactile, vestibular, proprioceptive, olfactory, visual, auditory, and taste.

The primary somatosensory cortex is the anterior portion of the parietal lobe (Brodmann areas 3, 1, and 2), located behind the central area and anterior to the parietal association areas (Brodmann areas 5, 7, 39, and 40). This division receives information from the ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus. The somatosensory cortex is the main receptive area for the sense of touch, kinesthesia (movement), and proprioception (body position).

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what is a cleavage furrow?what is a cleavage furrow?the metaphase plate where chromosomes attach to the spindlethe separation of divided prokaryotesa groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nucleithe space that is created between two chromatids during anaphasea ring of vesicles forming a cell plate

Answers

The cleavage furrow is a groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nuclei. (Option c)

After fertilization, cleavage, a series of mitotic divisions in which the enormous cytoplasm of the egg is divided into numerous smaller, nucleated cells, is the process by which a multicellular organism develops.

A cell's surface indentation known as a cleavage furrow appears as the cell prepares to divide. It signals the beginning of the cell "pinching" its cytoplasm and cell membrane in the middle. At some point, the cell will completely split in two, resulting in the formation of two daughter cells.

Typically, this process begins during anaphase, when a contractile cleavage furrow forms in the middle of the cell and eventually divides it in half.

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(Complete question)

What is a cleavage furrow?

a. A ring of vesicles forming a cell plate

b. The separation of divided prokaryotes

c. A groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nuclei

d. The metaphase plate where chromosomes attach to the spindle

e. The space that is created between two chromatids during anaphase

a student stimulated his earthworm twice with a stimulus interval of 1ms and a voltage above the threshold for the median axon (but below the threshold of the lateral axon). he only saw one biphasic waveform response. explain what is occurring inside the median axon to prevent the second biphasic waveform. also, how many action potentials do you expect are being generated by his stimulation?

Answers

A student stimulated his earthworm twice with a stimulus interval of 1ms and a voltage above the threshold for the median axon (but below the threshold of the lateral axon) result of an action potential propagating past our negative and positive electrodes.

A threshold is what you step across when you input a room. A threshold takes you from one vicinity into any other, and when you're approximately to begin something new, you're also on a threshold. A threshold is a point of departure or transition.

Threshold electricity (FTP): you may estimate FTP with your high-quality current 20-minute strength value (either from a committed 20-minute take a look at or a sufficiently tough 20-minute effort from a race or exercising). Multiply that price by ninety five% to get your FTP. you can also estimate FTP from a latest best 45-60 minute electricity output.

In electrophysiology, the edge capability is the important stage to which a membrane capability need to be depolarized to initiate an motion potential. In neuroscience, threshold potentials are necessary to modify and propagate signaling in both the important fearful device (CNS) and the peripheral anxious gadget (PNS).

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griffith experiment. why did an injection of both living. ir cells and dead iiis cells kill the mice when each of those cells individually did nothing

Answers

R-strain cells and heat-killed S-strain cells individually did not kill the cells because R-strain was non-virulent and the virulent S-strain lost its virulence due to being killed by heat. But when both were injected simultaneously in the cells, some transformation took place from heat-killed S-strain to the R-strain and the R-strain became virulent and killed the cells.

Virulence is the ability of a pathogen to cause harm to the host cell. It is a measure of the degree of capability. In Latin, the meaning of the word virulence is full of poison.

Transformation is the process of uptake of exogenous DNA which is not covered by an cell membrane or envelope.

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localized area of pus formation in the lungs: a.pleurisy b.pulmonary embolism c.pulmonary edema d.pleural effusion e.pulmonary abscess

Answers

Localized area of pus formation in the lungs is pulmonary abscess.  

What is lung abscess?

The creation of cavities (more than 2 cm) containing necrotic debris or fluid and liquefactive necrosis of the lung tissue are both symptoms of lung abscess, which are brought on by microbial infection.

It can be brought on by aspiration, which can happen when under the influence of drugs or alcohol and typically results in a pus-filled cavity.

Chest pain, especially when you breathe in, a cough, fatigue, a fever, a loss of appetite, and night sweats are all signs of a lung abscess.

Following antibiotic therapy, the prognosis for lung abscess is generally good. Unless bronchial obstruction owing to cancer is to blame, medical therapy alone can cure more than 90% of lung abscess.

Therefore, Option E is correct.

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identify the important processes facilitated by chromosomal sequences in their roles at the molecular level.

Answers

For chromosome mobility to be facilitated, the chromosomes must compress during mitosis.

Chromosomes must compact in order for DNA to be able to replicate inside the nucleus.

Colchicine is a substance that is used to freeze the cells during the mitotic process in order to block or inhibit the movement of the chromosomes. Additionally, the faithful replication or transmission of the genome to those daughter cells depends on this mechanism. Cells divide during the interphase, however cell condensation is discovered to be taking place during the prophase. Chromosomes are permitted to travel prior to the mitotic process, and during this time, entanglements and breaks were also seen.

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The hiv virus attacks only a certain type of white blood cells, and not other cell types. Why?.

Answers

HIV virus infects and destroys white blood cells called CD4+ cells. The body can no longer defend itself against infection if too many CD4+ cells are destroyed.

What is HIV?

HIV, human immunodeficiency virus, attacks the body’s infection fighting cells, which makes a person vulnerable to diseases and infections. More specifically, HIV attacks the white blood cells called the CD4+ cells.

There is no effective cure for HIV, so once you contract the virus, it stays for life. There is, however, an effective treatment with HIV medicine. But, if left untreated, HIV can lead to AIDS, acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.

AIDS is the last stage of HIV. This occurs when the immune system of the body is badly damaged.

A person is said to have progressed to AIDS from HIV when their CD4 cell number falls below 200 per cubic ml of blood.

Therefore, HIV virus infects and destroys white blood cells called CD4+ cells. The body can no longer defend itself against infection if too many CD4+ cells are destroyed.

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Carbon monoxide in cigarette smoke interferes with the ability of blood cells to carry.

Answers

Carbon monoxide in cigarette smoke interferes with the ability of blood cells to carry oxygen.

Cigarette smoke contains carbon monoxide, which binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells, reducing the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Carbon dioxide levels, blood pH, body temperature, environmental factors, and diseases can all have an impact on oxygen transport and delivery. With an increase in carbon dioxide and temperature, as well as a decrease in pH within the body, hemoglobin's oxygen-carrying ability decreases. Smoking raises the number of leukocytes, neutrophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes in the blood, as well as the hematocrit, hemoglobin, and mean corpuscular volume. The smoking relationships observed were long term for white blood cell indices and short term for red blood cell indices.

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Although stress does not create cancer cells, it may affect their growth by suppressing the activity of: lymphocytes. ... .oxytocin. the adrenal glands.

Answers

We hypothesised that central oxytocin might be involved since stress causes intracerebral oxytocin release irrespective of gender.

A major area of study in this subject is how stress impacts our ability to fight off illness.

Psychoneuroimmunology's main goal is to comprehend how stress impacts our ability to resist illness. Emotion-focused coping is most typified by trying to lessen stress by avoiding or ignoring a stressor.

When you make an effort to reduce stress in a direct way, as by altering the stressor you are utilising?

Problem-focused coping is the attempt to actively reduce stress by altering the stressor or how one interacts with that stressor.

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