I really need help here:0

Answer:

x = 75

Step-by-step explanation:

X = 180 - 78 - 27 = 75

Answer:

The answer is 75

Step-by-step explanation:

I got this answer because i added 78 and 27 then i subtracted it from 180 because that was the interior angle of a triangle and i got 75.

Answer:

[tex]\frac{circumference}{2\pi}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

This is how you solve for radius if you have circumference.

Hope it helps!

A function is a set of relation without repetitive domain. That means we cannot have the same value of x in a set.

Example

{(1,1),(1,2),(2,4),(3,9)}

This is not a function because the relation has same two x = 1 which does not make it a function.

{(1,1),(2,4),(3,9)}

This is a function because there are no same x-values or repetitive domain in a single set.

Back to the question, we can find which table represent a function by looking at the x-value table. If there are two same or more x-values, it is not a function.

The answer is the left bottom table as the other table have two same x-values.

Answer:

u can prove using SAS congruency

Step-by-step explanation:

Ae=Ae common

BE=DE (E MID POINT)

Angle E=angle E (90 degree)

The ΔBAE is congruent to ΔDAE.

Given to us,

E is the midpoint of ,

AC⊥ BD,

As given E is the midpoint of the line [tex]\overline{BD}[/tex],

So, BE = ED,

further, line AE = AE, because this is the common line between the two triangles.

Also, ∠BED =∠DEA =90°, as AC⊥ BD.

Therefore, the ΔBAE is congruent to ΔDAE.

To know more visit:

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given on the diagram:

PQ is therefore a midsegment

Property of the midsegment:

Answer:

10x + 35

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

In a triangle, the sum of each 2 sides must be greater than the third side.

17 + 32 ≠ >49

17 + 32 isn't greater than 49.

I hope this helps.

Answer:

38.40

Step by Step

48•0.8

Answer:

Scientific Notation: 4.88 ×10^7

Standard Form: 4.88 ×10^7

Step-by-step explanation:

6.1×10^(-3) = 0.0061

8×10^9 = 8000000000

0.0061×8000000000 = 48800000

[tex] = 4.88 \times {10}^{7} [/tex]

34^2+41^2-(c^2)=0

((342) +  412) -  c2  = 0 2.1     34 = 2•17

(34)2 = (2•17)2 = 22 • 172

((22•172) +  412) -  c2  = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer

Input= 5

Output= 120

Step-by-step explanation:

The input goes up by 1, so m=5

The output shows how many hours there are in that many days so blank=120

Answer

output for m is 5

Step-by-step explanation

- multiply the input by a number to get the output

- to get the number to multiply it by you can divide a given out put by the input

( 24/2) = 12

- notice patterns

input- output

2         24

3          36

4          48

5         120

Answer:

C. undefined

Step-by-step explanation:

Have a nice day

Answer:

[tex]j(s) = 0.05s -500[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]Base\ Salary = 2000[/tex]

[tex]Commission = 5\%[/tex] on Sales over 50000

Required

Determine the function j(s) for sales over 50000

Represent the total sales in a month with s.

Sales over 50000 in that month will be: s - 50000

So, the function j(s) is:

j(s) = Base Amount + Commission * Sales over 50000

[tex]j(s) = 2000 + 5\% * (s - 50000)[/tex]

Convert % to decimal

[tex]j(s) = 2000 + 0.05 * (s - 50000)[/tex]

Open bracket

[tex]j(s) = 2000 + 0.05 * s - 0.05 * 50000[/tex]

[tex]j(s) = 2000 + 0.05s - 2500[/tex]

Collect Like Terms

[tex]j(s) = 0.05s - 2500 + 2000[/tex]

[tex]j(s) = 0.05s -500[/tex]

Answer:

for every x the y moves -4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

............................................

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.01167

Step-by-step explanation:

180 - 0.669 = 89.331

complementary angle = 89.331

cos(89.331) = 0.01167

Answer:

0.262

Step-by-step explanation:

Edge 2021

The probability of getting 2 or more "Winner" caps on 4 bottles of water

is 0.2616.

In an experiment with two possible outcomes, the likelihood of exactly x successes on n repeated trials is known as the binomial probability.

The binomial probability is, [tex]^nC_xP^xq^{n - x}[/tex].

Let, p be the probability of winning,

Given,  1 out of every 4 bottles has the word "Winner".

Therefore, p = 1/4 and we know q = 1 - p = 3/4.

So, The probability of getting 2 or more "Winner" caps on 4 bottles of water

is P(X ≥ 2) which is, P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4).

P(X ≥ 2) = [tex]^4C_2p^2q^2 + ^4C_3p^3q^1 + ^4C_4p^4q^0[/tex].

P(X ≥ 2) = 6(1/4)²×(3/4)² + 4(1/4)³×(3/4) + 1(1/4)⁴×1.

P(X ≥ 2) = 0.2109 + 0.0468 + 0.0039.

P(X ≥ 2) = 0.2616 or 26.16%.

learn more about binomial distribution here :

https://brainly.com/question/14565246

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Answer:

375 students

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply: 500*.75=375

375 students

Hope this helped!! :)

Please correct me if I'm wrong

Stay safe and have a wonderful day/night!!!!!

Brainliest?!?!

Answer: the answer is 387,420,489

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

they answer is y^6=−y^3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y^6=−y^3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

9,-5

Step-by-step explanation:

imagine the coordinate on a graph

if it helps draw a graph