The cell won’t be able to completely oxidise glucose if an additive molecule that hinders the electron transport chain is applied. As a result, less oxygen is consumed.
When complex I is inhibited by antimycin A, electron transport from complexes or flavoproteins containing FADH2 to cytochromes is prevented.In this instance, the initial Complex Ill constituents are completely reduced and the subsequent constituents are oxidised. The final complex of eukaryotic oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria is called cytochrome c oxidase. This process combines the reduction of electron carriers during metabolism with the reduction of molecular oxygen to water as well as the transfer of protons from the inner matrix of the mitochondria to the intermembrane gap.Adenosine triphosphate, an energy-carrying molecule, is present in the cells of all living things (ATP). ATP stores the chemical energy produced by the disintegration of food molecules before releasing it to drive other cellular processes.Cells often require chemical energy for three types of tasks: driving metabolic activities that wouldn’t occur naturally; transferring required materials across membranes; and doing mechanical work, like flexing muscles.
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if avery and his colleagues found that rna was the transforming material, what would the results of their experiment look like? please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices only type iir bacteria would be isolated from the rnase-treated filtrate. only type iir bacteria would be isolated from the protease-treated filtrate. only type iir bacteria would be isolated from the dnase-treated filtrate. only type iiis bacteria would be isolated from the rnase-tre
Option A. Only type IIR bacteria would be isolated from the RNase-treated filtrate.
RNases (or ribonucleases) are a class of hydrolytic enzymes that catalyzes the in vivo and in vitro degradation of ribonucleic acid (RNA) molecules into smaller components. The nuclease operates at the extent of transcription and translation and breaks down the RNA by cleaving the phosphorus-oxygen bonds.
Ribonuclease is a sort of nuclease that catalyzes the degradation of RNA into smaller components. Ribonucleases can be divided into endoribonucleases and exoribonucleases, and contain several sub-classes inside EC 2.7 and three.1 training of enzymes.
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At which of the cell-cycle checkpoints do external forces have the greatest influence?.
The one that would be most influenced by the cell cycle checkpoints The G-1 checkpoint would be the outside forces.
The primary decision point at which a cell must decide whether or not to divide is the G 1 start subscript, 1, end subscript checkpoint. Once the cell reaches the S phase and passes the G 1 start subscript, 1, end subscript checkpoint, it is irrevocably committed to dividing.Different cell cycle checkpoints have developed to stop damaged DNA from replicating, to delay premature entry into or exit from mitosis, and to give DNA time to repair itself if damage is encountered. The G1/S checkpoint, the intra-S checkpoint, and the G2/M checkpoint are the three major cell cycle checkpoints.
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An unknown sample of metal had a mass of 240. 0 grams. It displaced 30. 0 mL of water when placed into a graduated cylinder. What is the density of the metal?
The density of the metal will be 8 g/ml when an unknown sample of metal had a mass of 240 gm and is displaced 30 ml of water when placed into graduated cylinder.
What is density and how the density of the metal comes out to be 8 g/ml of unknown sample?Density is the quantity representing the mass of the product per unit volume of the container containing liquid.The units of density varies depending upon the units of mass and volume of the liquid contained.Here by using the simple density = mass/ volume formula we can calculate the density.Given, mass = 240 gm , volume = 30 ml , density = 240/ 30 = 8 g/ ml is the density.Hence the density of the metal is 8 gm/ml of an unknown sample of the metal of mass 240 gm and displaced 30 ml of water into graduated cylinder.To know more about density visit:
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What do you know about an organism's parents if it is heterozygous for a certain trait?.
If an organism's parents if it is heterozygous for a certain trait the parents supplied different alleles.
Any offspring's genotype is determined by the equal contribution of alleles from both parents. As a result, even when an organism is heterozygous, it is clear that the allele pair expressing the trait (due to the heterozygous pair) is formed by the equal contribution of both parents, which means that one allele is given by one parent and the other allele is given by the other parent.
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if hershey and chase had found radioactive sulfur, 35s, in the produced phages, what would that have meant for their conclusions?
Hershey and Chase concluded that deoxyribonuclease( also known as DNase), an enzyme that breaks down DNA, didn't introduce any 32P into a result containing the tagged bacteriophages.
What is Hershey and Chase experiment?Hershey and Chase added the radioactive factors to separate media in which bacteria were allowed to grow for 4 hours prior to the preface of the bacteriophages. The radioactive isotopes were present in the structures of the seed when the bacteriophages infected the bacterium. This made it possible to watch and examine each one singly. Radioactive phosphorus- 32 was employed to identify the DNA present in the T2 phage since phosphorus is present in DNA but not amino acids. Since DNA doesn't contain sulphur, radioactive sulfur- 35 was employed to mark the T2 phage's protein portions.
Since amino acids aren't set up in DNA but phosphorus is, radioactive phosphorus- 32 was employed to identify the DNA in the T2 phage. Nuclear- powered sulfur- 35 was used.
The DNA from the phage is integrated into the bacteria soon after the contagion binds to its host, according to Hershey and Chase's substantiation. After adsorption, they were suitable to remove the bacteriophages from the bacterial cells by blending them at a fast speed. The bacteriophage DNA was transported into the bacterial cell, as substantiated by the absence of 32P- labeled DNA in the result after the bacteriophages had been allowed to adsorb to the bacteria. The protein subcaste that shields the DNA previous to adsorption was still present, as substantiated by the presence of nearly all the radioactive 35S in the result.
They discovered that although a bacteriophage's defensive protein fleece formed, its inside DNA was what gave it the capacity to induce seed inside a bacterium. This made it possible to watch and examine each one singly. Radioactive phosphorus- 32 was employed to identify the DNA present in the T2 phage since phosphorus is present in DNA but not amino acids.
Hershey and Chase demonstrated that deoxyribonuclease( also known as DNase), an enzyme that breaks down DNA, didn't introduce any 32P into a result containing the tagged bacteriophages
.
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Order the entence from top to bottom to how how onar can be ued to locate object underwater
Sonar can be used to locate objects underwater. These are the correct order of the sequences of how the sonar works:
The sonar system sends bursts of U/S waves that travel through water.When sound waves strike an object on the ocean floor, the waves reflect backward.The sonar device detects the reflected waves.The farther the wave travels, the longer it takes to return to the system.A computer will measure the time it takes for the sound to go out and return, then multiply by the speed of sound in water and is divided by 2.What is a sonar system?Sonar, which stands for sonic navigation and ranging, is a technique to measure and locate underwater objects using sound propagation. It has been used for commercial fishing to submarine and mine detection.
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Which technology has been commonly utilized by scientists to manipulate heritable information by creating dna fragments with ends that can join with other dna fragments?.
Gel electrophoresis is a technology that has been widely used by scientists to manipulate heritable information by producing DNA fragments with ends that can join with other DNA fragments.
What is gel electrophoresis?Gel electrophoresis is a widely used molecular biology technique for separating biomolecules such as DNA and proteins. The DNA fragments are segregated based on their molecular size. An electrical field pushes the molecules to be separated through a gel with microscopic holes in gel electrophoresis.
The following are several basic processes to perform gel electrophoresis:
Pouring the gel.Getting the DNA samples ready.Loading the gel (adding the DNA samples to the gel).Running the gel (exposing the gel to an electric field).Staining the DNA in the gel.Learn More
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Answer:
d. Restrictive enzyme analysis
Explanation:
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which of the following statements is true? a. the microvilli absorb nutrients into the lymphatic system. b. the microvilli trap nutrients so the villi cells can absorb them. c. the villi block toxins from being absorbed into the blood. d. the villi complete the breakdown of foods into nutrients. e. the microvilli facilitate the digestion of a large percentage of deficient nutrients.
The correct answer is (b) the microvilli trap the nutrients so the villi cells can absorb them. The microvilli increase the surface are a thereby it facilitates the absorption of the nutrients.
In the simplest terms, microvilli are minuscule microscopic projections that are found in, on, and around cells.They may exist independently or with villi (projections of some mucous membranes, most specifically of the small intestine, which are tiny folds that project out like numerous fingers).Microvilli are even more minute folds that protrude like fingers from each villi.The surface of egg cells, the small intestine, and white blood cells are where microvilli are most frequently seen.On the apical surface of some epithelial cells, such those in the small intestine, thousands of microvilli come together to form a structure known as the brush boundary.Microvilli are a kind of surface protuberances that are rather polymorphic and are regularly packed in some tissues while being loosely positioned in others.To know more about microvilli check the below link:
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theory of mind and autobiographical memory appear to depend on slightly different areas of the ____________ frontal cortex.
The theory of mind and autobiographical memory appear to depend on slightly different areas of the medial frontal cortex.
What is the medial frontal cortex?The medial frontal cortex is a given area of the cerebral context which is contained in the frontal cortex and it is involved in several functions associated with non-social behavior.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the medial frontal cortex is involved in the non-social behaviors of an individual.
Complete question:
Fill in the blank. The theory of mind and autobiographical memory appear to depend on slightly different areas of the ___ frontal cortex.
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I need help please and thank you
The fixation of nitrogen is Bacteria. Option B.
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria have the role of supplying plants with vital nutrients that they cannot obtain from the air. Nitrogen-fixing microorganisms do things that plants cannot do. In other words, it absorbs nitrogen on behalf of plants. Bacteria absorb it from the air as a gas and release it into the soil mainly as ammonia. The Nif gene is responsible for biological nitrogen fixation.
Regulates the synthesis of the nitrogenase enzyme. Rhizobium is found in tuberous roots of legumes such as beans and peas. Rhizobia take up nitrogen from the atmosphere and fix it in the soil for plant roots to absorb. The main product of nitrogen fixation is ammonia. In the nitrogen cycle, ammonia is formed and decomposed into nitrates and nitrites in four stages assimilation ammonification nitrification, and denitrification.
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which diagnostic test differentiates between aspiration of gastric contents from reflux and aspirations of gastreo contents from poor
The diagnosis of GERD is typically made by a combination of clinical symptoms, response to acid suppression, as well as objective testing with upper endoscopy and esophageal pH monitoring.
Which diagnostic procedure is used to evaluate the degree of acid reflux?Impedance–pH Testing.
During an impedance–pH test, your gastroenterologist measures the pH, or acidity, levels in your esophagus during a 24-hour period. The doctor also uses impedance technology to measure how much liquid and air are going up and down your esophagus during this time.
How is gastric reflux diagnosed?The diagnosis of GERD is typically made by a combination of clinical symptoms, response to acid suppression, as well as objective testing with upper endoscopy and esophageal pH monitoring.
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In the light-dependent reactions, the transfer of energy through electrons produces a hydrogen ion concentration gradient. Many more hydrogen ions are in the thylakoid space than in the stroma. The process that occurs when these hydrogen ions pass back to the stroma through a specialized channel
Select one:
a.is called chemiosmosis and requires ATP
b.is an electron transport chain and creates NADPH
c.is an electron transport chain and uses NADPH
d.is called chemiosmosis and produces ATP
Answer: c
Explanation:
In light dependent reactions the process in which the hydrogen ions pass back to the stroma via a specialized channel: (d) is called chemiosmosis, which produces ATP.
Light-dependent reactions are the initial stage of photosynthesis in plants, algae, and some bacteria. They take place in the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts and require light energy to occur. These reactions capture and convert light energy into chemical energy which are essential for the subsequent dark reactions that produce glucose.
ATP, which stands for adenosine triphosphate, is a molecule that serves as the primary energy carrier in cells. ATP plays a fundamental role in various processes like muscle contraction, active transport of molecules across cell membranes, DNA replication, protein synthesis, and many others.
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In some species of trees, short leaves are dominant to long leaves. analyze the punnett square. what is the probability of an offspring having short leaves? punnett square showing the cross with the parent generation (ss) and (ss) and the offspring displayed as ss, ss, ss, and ss. 25% 0% 75% 50%
Answer: It's 50%.
Explanation: I took the quiz and got it right.
this is about punnett squares!! the question is below in the picture. please help me fill out the graph also. thank you so much!! having to redo this because the image didnt attach.
Answer:
a. Child with blue eyes = 25% chance
b. Child with brown eyes = 75% chance
Explanation:
parental phenotype: brown eyes 》brown eyes
parental genotype: Bb 》 Bb
gametes: (B) (b) 》 (B) (b)
random fertilization: (punnet square)
B b
B BB Bb
b Bb bb
f1 generation phenotype: Brown eyes 》Blue eyes
f1 generation genotype: BB, Bb, Bb, 》bb
ratio: 3 : 1
percentage: 75% 》25%
( the symbols " 》" was used as a divider that means brown eyes versus blue eyes etc. so you can see more clearly the comparison between both genes)
why is glycolysis considered to be one of the first metabolic pathways to have evolved? why is glycolysis considered to be one of the first metabolic pathways to have evolved? it requires the presence of membrane-enclosed cell organelles found only in eukaryotic cells. it does not involve organelles or specialized structures, does not require oxygen, and is present in most organisms. it is found in prokaryotic cells but not in eukaryotic cells. it produces much less atp than does oxidative phosphorylation. request answer
Glycolysis is one of the earliest metabolic routes because practically all species employ it. The anaerobic process uses no oxygen. Therefore, option (B) is correct.
Why is glycolysis considered the first type of respiration?Glycolysis requires no oxygen. It is a sort of anaerobic respiration that is carried out by all cells, including anaerobic cells that cannot survive in the presence of oxygen. Because of these factors, glycolysis is thought to be one of the earliest forms of cellular respiration and an extremely old process that dates back billions of years.
The first step in the process of cellular respiration that involves the oxidation of glucose molecules is called glycolysis. As a result, it does not involve any organelles or other specialized structures, does not call for the presence of oxygen, and can be found in virtually all organisms.
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Which organelles are present in animal cells? Select all that apply.
nucleus
cell wall
chloroplast
cytoplasm
cell membrane
The organelles among the options present in animal cells include the nucleus, cytoplasm, and cell membrane. Options 1, 4, and 5.
Organelles of the animal cellThe animal cell is a type of eukaryotic cell. It is an advanced cell with a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. It differs from the other eukaryotic cell, the plant cell, in that the latter has a chloroplast and cell wall.
The organelles that are found in the animal cell include:
The cell membrane which delimits the cell and acts as a differentially permeable structure to substances.The cytoplasm which is the liquid portion in the inner part of the cell.The nucleus which is located centrally in the cell and controls the cell's activities.The ribosome which is the site for the synthesis of proteins.The mitochondrion which generates energy for the cell.Other organelles found in the animal cell include the Golgi apparatus, the endoplasmic reticulum, the lysosome, and so on.
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Which organelle is responsible for breaking down carbohydrates into useable energy.
Answer:
Mitochondria
Explanation:
Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the cell. They are organelles that act like a digestive system which takes in nutrients, breaks them down, and creates energy rich molecules for the cell.
Why are the cells in your skin different from the cells in your heart?.
These cells are different because they use the same set of genes differently. So even though each of our cells has the same 20,000 or so genes, each cell can select which ones it wants to “turn on” and which ones it wants to keep “turned off”
Fresh milk should be received at 57 degrees f or lower. Responses false false true.
Fresh milk should be received at 57 degrees F or lower is false.
How to store fresh milk?Fresh milk is categorized mainly by the amount of butterfat it contains. Fresh milk does not contаin аny preservаtives, hence it hаs to go through а pаsteurizаtion process to extend its shelf life. Аll fresh fluid milk should be stored аt temperаtures below 40 °F аnd should not be stаcked high in the displаy cаses. If stored аbove 40 °F, milk will begin to develop signs of spoilаge, including sour odour, off-flаvor аnd curdled consistency. So, fresh milk should not be left out at room temperature.
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Which of the b vitamins are intricately involved in the breakdown and processing of proteins?.
Biotin is required by the body to break down proteins, carbs, and lipids.
Which B vitamin participates in the metabolism and breakdown of proteins?The metabolism of proteins and carbohydrates, the production of red blood cells, and the production of several brain chemicals all require pyridoxine. It affects steroid hormone activity, immunological response, and the growth and development of the brain.
Vitamins that break down proteins?The metabolism of proteins and carbohydrates, as well as the synthesis of hormones and cholesterol, all depend on biotin. The B vitamin niacin supports healthy skin and nerves. At greater doses, it can help decrease cholesterol. Red blood cell formation is aided by folate and vitamin B12.
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(7.2) why does the rate of evolution appear rapid when studied in the short term but agonizingly slow when studied in the fossil record?
Evolution only happens gradually and slowly. Evolution is a slow process, thus humans cannot change it. Only in tiny populations do mutations wander.
How does the fossil record show that there has been evolution?The earliest rocks contain the fossils of the simplest species, whereas the most recent rocks include the fossils of more complex organisms. This is consistent with Darwin's theory of evolution, according to which more complex life forms gradually developed from simpler ones. Fossils provide proof of early life forms.
What kind of fossil evidence is there supporting evolution?Using recovered fossils, paleontologists have recreated instances of significant evolutionary changes in form and function. For instance, reptiles have several lower jaw bones, whereas mammals only have one. The reptile's jaw's additional teeth were plainly seen.
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Suppose that a certain gene functions to enforce a checkpoint on the cell cycle. A mutation causing the loss of this gene’s function would cause a person to?.
A higher chance of developing cancer at some point in their lives.
Which mutant type is most likely to be lethal?Be aware that any chromosome mutation that causes a sizable loss of genetic material (Deletion) is almost certainly fatal. Despite the fact that many chromosome mutations do not cause the loss of genetic material, the location of a gene on a chromosome can have an impact on how it is expressed.
How do mutations impact genetic diversity in a population?Random DNA mutations and the introduction of new alleles into the population as a result of intermarriage between members of various populations are two ways to promote genetic diversity. indicates a higher prevalence of hereditary illness. When members of an original population start a new population, it happens.
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Sensing the position and movement of individual body parts is an example of which sense?.
Kinesthetic sense aids in sensing the position and movement of individual body parts.
What is Kinesthetic sense?
The kinesthetic senses are the senses of position and movement of the body, senses we are aware of only on introspection. A method used to study kinesthesia is muscle vibration, which engages afferents of muscle spindles to trigger illusions of movement and changed position.
Kinesthesia is the awareness of the position and movement of the parts of the body using sensory organs, which are known as proprioceptors, located in joints and muscles.
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Which describes a scenario that would most likely use an inhibitor? during activity, sugar is converted to energy. when at rest, the body stores sugar. after a meal, protein digestion occurs in the stomach. before a meal, digestive juices are preparing for food.
Digestive juices start to get ready for food before a meal.
Why is it important to obtain activation energy?All chemical reactions, even exothermic ones, require activation energy to begin. Reactants need activation energy in order to move together, overcome repelling forces, and begin forming bonds.
Is activation energy ever required?A chemical reaction can only occur when two molecules collide with a minimum amount of energy (called the activation energy, or vEa). Plots of a system's potential energy against the reaction coordinate reveal an energy hurdle that needs to be cleared for the reaction to take place.
Enzymes that accomplish digestion are only activated during digestion; they are blocked by inhibitors before and after to prevent gastritis and even stomach perforations.
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Answer:
b. when at rest, the body stores sugar.
Explanation:
Which describes a scenario that would most likely use an inhibitor?
When at rest, the body stores sugar.
Capillary walls are only one layer of cells thick. Passage of oxygen into and out of the capillaries is controlled most by which process?.
Passage of oxygen in and out of the capillaries is mostly controlled by the process of collection of waste materials.
What are blood vessels?
The channels through which blood is distributed to all body tissues are called blood vessels. These vessels make up two closed systems of tubes. They start and end at the heart.
One of these systems is the pulmonary vessel. It transports blood from right ventricle to the lungs, and then back to the left atrium.
Arteries, veins, and capillaries are the three types of blood vessels. These vessels hold a special role in circulation process of the body.
Arteries: they carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the other tissues. Veins: they carry deoxygenated blood form body tissues to the heart and lungs.Capillaries: they are what makes the passage between these blood vessels.Therefore, passage of oxygen in and out of the capillaries is mostly controlled by the process of collection of waste materials.
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From what you learned in the diffusion handbook, what is causing the patient's low arterial oxygen?.
Low oxygen tension inside the arterial blood (PaO2) is because of the incapacity of the lungs to properly oxygenate the blood. causes consist of hypoventilation, impaired alveolar diffusion, and pulmonary shunting. it's miles because of pump failure (coronary heart is unable to pump sufficient blood, and arterial oxygen shipping is impaired).
Hypoxemia is a beneath-ordinary degree of oxygen on your blood, in particular inside the arteries. Hypoxemia is a sign of a problem related to respiratory or circulate, and can result in various signs, inclusive of shortness of breath.
The current devices use two wavelengths and degree the absorption within the pulsatile detail of the blood glide, for that reason producing a degree of the oxygen saturation of arterial blood cut loose the non-pulsatile venous blood.
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if an autologous blood component is shipped from the donor center without the completion of infectious disease testing, the unit must be labeled with:
If an autologous blood component was shipped from a donor center without an infectious disease test performed, the unit should be marked with the following: the phrase donor untested
Infectious diseases are diseases caused by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Many organisms live in the and on in our bodies. They are usually harmless or helpful. However, under certain conditions, some organisms can cause disease. Some infections that laso can be passed from the person to person. Infectious diseases are diseases caused by pathogens (bacteria, viruses, fungi, etc.) that enter the body, multiply, and cause infection. Some infections are contagious (or contagious) and can be passed from person to person.
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each sequence of three nitrogen-containing bases of rna that codifies one amino acid is called ... group of answer choices anticodon units codon base
Sequence of three nitrogen-containing bases of RNA that codifies one amino acid is called codon .
Bases in mRNA are grouped into sets of three called codons. A codon is a sequence of three DNA or RNA nucleotides that corresponds with a specific amino acid or stop signal in the process of protein synthesis.
The three letter nature of codons means that the four nucleotides found in mRNA A, U, G, and C that can produce a total of 64 different combinations. These codons will match complementary to an anticodon which will have an amino acid attached.
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which option is a light wavelength that chlorophyll does not absorb?(1 point) responses violet violet yellow yellow red red green green
The wavelengths of green and yellow are not absorbed by chlorophyll.
Where does chlorophyll absorb the least light?Chlorophyll a and b pigment absorption spectra in the visible light spectrum, as measured in a solvent. Almost no green light is absorbed by any type. The most powerful light-absorbers for chlorophyll A are violet and orange. Mostly blue and yellow light is absorbed by chlorophyll b.
Which wavelength does chlorophyll absorb best?All photosynthetic organisms include chlorophyll a, which absorbs both red and blue light with wavelengths of 662 nm and 430 nm, respectively. It reflects green light, giving the plants it is found in a green appearance. Chlorophyll an is found in plants in greater abundance than other pigments.
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A cell containing 12 replicated chromosomes at the beginning of mitosis will have how many chromosomes after the completion of mitosis?.
When mitosis is finished, a cell that had 12 replicated chromosomes at the start of the process will still have 12 chromosomes.
Since you don't need to double the number of chromosomes if they have already been copied, you will have the same number of chromosomes at the end of mitosis.
The term "chromosomes replicated" refers to chromosomes with two sister chromatids joined at the centromere. There will be 12 chromosomes in the daughter cells because during prophase, this chromatin condenses, resulting in each chromosome has two sister chromatids.
These sister chromatids are divided during anaphase and travel to opposite poles. There were 12 replicated chromosomes so 24 chromatids, chromatids of each chromosome are separated and move to opposite poles, and become chromosomes of the daughter cells. So the number of chromosomes in each daughter cell after mitosis is 12.
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