If a negative result is obtained for positive control what would be your possible conclusion?

The main answer to the question is that the following are specific to protein deficiency occurring in early development:
1. Stunting
2. Impaired cognitive development
3. Increased susceptibility to infections

An explanation for this is that during early development, protein is essential for growth and development. If a child does not receive enough protein during this critical period, they may experience stunting, which means they will not grow to their full potential.

Additionally, protein is necessary for brain development, and a lack of protein can result in impaired cognitive development.

Finally, protein plays a vital role in the immune system, and children who do not receive enough protein may be more susceptible to infections.

In summary, protein deficiency during gestation to the first 2 years of life can lead to stunting, impaired cognitive development, and increased susceptibility to infections.

Learn more about protein click here:

https://brainly.com/question/10058019

#SPJ11

The wide radiolucent area seen below the apices of teeth nos. 30 to 32 is submandibular fossa.

C is the correct answer.

Below the hinder portion of the mylohyoid line, the submandibular gland sits against the submandibular fossa, a tiny depression. Numerous anatomical components involved in implant surgery, salivary calculus, and static bone cavity are located close to the submandibular fossa.

The submandibular glands are situated below the jaw and are roughly walnut-sized. These glands produce saliva, which is then secreted from behind the tongue into the mouth. The superficial lobe and the deep lobe are the names of the two sections that make up the submandibular glands, like the parotid glands.

Learn more about radiolucent area:

https://brainly.com/question/29591049

#SPJ4

The statement that deodorants mostly contain the chemical compound called triclosan is incorrect. While triclosan is commonly found in some personal care products, including toothpaste and antibacterial soap, it is not typically used in deodorants.

Instead, deodorants often contain other antibacterial substances such as alcohol, baking soda, or essential oils to help control odor-causing bacteria. Deodorants function by masking or eliminating body odor, and some also help reduce the amount of perspiration produced by sweat glands. However, antiperspirants, which are often confused with deodorants, contain aluminum-based compounds that block sweat ducts and reduce sweat production. It's important to note that excessive use of antibacterial substances, such as triclosan, may lead to the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria, making it crucial to use these products in moderation.

To know more about bacteria visit :

https://brainly.com/question/6777054

#SPJ11

Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by drug that : E)prevents attachment of the microtubules to the kinetochore.

During anaphase, the microtubules attached to the kinetochores shorten, pulling the sister chromatids apart and towards opposite poles of the cell. If the attachment of the microtubules to the kinetochore is prevented, the chromosomes will not be able to move to opposite poles during anaphase, leading to defects in cell division.

Chromosomes are the thread-like structures that are made of DNA and protein and are found in the nucleus of cells. They carry genetic information in the form of genes, which determines the traits and characteristics of an organism.

Cyclin concentrations and microtubule elongation or shortening do not directly affect the attachment of microtubules to kinetochores.

To know more about chromosomes, refer

https://brainly.com/question/11912112

#SPJ11

Using narrow-spectrum antibiotics is preferable because they specifically target particular bacteria, reducing the risk of antibiotic resistance and protecting beneficial bacteria.


1. Targeted action: Narrow-spectrum antibiotics are designed to combat specific bacteria, making them more effective in treating infections caused by those pathogens. This targeted action ensures a quicker and more efficient response to the infection.

2. Reduced risk of resistance: Since narrow-spectrum antibiotics act on specific bacteria, the chances of other bacteria developing resistance are minimized. This helps maintain the effectiveness of antibiotics for future use.

3. Preservation of beneficial bacteria: Our bodies contain beneficial bacteria that aid in digestion and maintain a healthy immune system. Using narrow-spectrum antibiotics reduces the chances of inadvertently killing these helpful bacteria, which can happen when using broad-spectrum antibiotics.

4. Fewer side effects: Due to their targeted action, narrow-spectrum antibiotics are less likely to cause side effects in patients, improving the overall treatment experience.

5. Lower chances of superinfections: When broad-spectrum antibiotics kill off both harmful and beneficial bacteria, it can create an environment where other harmful bacteria can grow and cause a secondary infection. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics help to prevent this scenario.

In conclusion, narrow-spectrum antibiotics are a better choice because they specifically target the bacteria causing the infection, minimizing the risk of antibiotic resistance, preserving beneficial bacteria, and reducing potential side effects and superinfections.

To know more about narrow-spectrum antibiotics refer to

https://brainly.com/question/17011130

#SPJ11

John Maynard Keynes, the renowned economist, would have likely been critical of Reaganomics, which was a set of economic policies implemented during the presidency of Ronald Reagan in the 1980s. Keynesian economics, which Keynes advocated for, posits that government intervention is necessary to stabilize the economy during economic downturns.

Reaganomics, on the other hand, aimed to reduce government intervention and promote free-market principles. Keynes would have argued that the government should increase spending during economic downturns to stimulate the economy, whereas Reaganomics advocated for reducing government spending and lowering taxes to spur economic growth. Keynes would have also been critical of the trickle-down theory of economics, which is a central tenet of Reaganomics, as he believed that it favored the wealthy and did not benefit the overall economy.

John Maynard Keynes would likely have some criticisms of Reaganomics. Reaganomics, also known as supply-side economics, emphasized tax cuts, deregulation, and reduction of government spending to promote economic growth. In contrast, Keynesian economics, advocated by John Maynard Keynes, emphasizes the importance of government spending and intervention during economic downturns to stimulate demand and promote economic recovery.

Keynes may argue that the tax cuts implemented under Reaganomics disproportionately benefited the wealthy and led to increased income inequality, as his economic theory places more importance on boosting demand through government spending and investment in public services. Additionally, Keynes might criticize the deregulation aspect of Reaganomics, as he believed that government intervention and regulation were necessary to prevent market failures and maintain economic stability.

In summary, John Maynard Keynes would likely criticize Reaganomics for its focus on tax cuts and deregulation, and argue that increased government spending and intervention would be more effective in promoting economic growth and stability.

To know more about Reaganomics visit:

https://brainly.com/question/12814840

#SPJ11

An intact coastal wetland is an example of an ecosystem service that provides protection from a hurricane storm surge. The Correct option is B

Coastal wetlands, such as salt marshes and mangrove swamps, act as natural barriers that can absorb and reduce the impact of storm surges by slowing down the flow of water and reducing wave energy. In addition, these wetlands also provide important habitats for various species of plants and animals, and help to filter pollutants and improve water quality.

Therefore, preserving and restoring coastal wetlands is not only important for storm protection, but also for maintaining biodiversity and providing other ecosystem services.

Learn more about ecosystem service

https://brainly.com/question/31303757

#SPJ4

Answer:

Explanation:

False. In the ABO blood type system, there are three possible alleles (IA, IB, i) and six possible genotypes (IAIA, IAi, IBIB, IBi, IAIB, and ii). However, there are four possible phenotypes: A, B, AB, and O. The phenotypes are determined by the expression of antigens on the surface of red blood cells, which are determined by the specific combination of alleles inherited from the parents.

PLS MARK ME BRAINLIEST

The statement that is not true regarding streptococcal pharyngitis is "it is usually caused by the viridans streptococci." This is because streptococcal pharyngitis is usually caused by group A streptococcus, not viridans streptococci. The other statements are all true: it causes redness, difficulty in swallowing, and fever; it can lead to serious sequelae; it can present with a purulent exudate over the tonsils; and it can lead to scarlet fever if it is an erythrogenic toxin-producing strain.
The statement that is not true regarding streptococcal pharyngitis is: "It is usually caused by the viridans streptococci." In fact, streptococcal pharyngitis is most commonly caused by group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes, not viridans streptococci. The other statements are accurate descriptions of the condition and its potential complications, including redness, difficulty swallowing, fever, purulent exudate over the tonsils, and the potential to lead to scarlet fever if caused by an erythrogenic toxin-producing strain.

To know more about streptococcal pharyngitis visit:

brainly.com/question/29839687

#SPJ11

Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to effectively break down and eliminate harmful pathogens or cellular debris through a process called phagocytosis. This can compromise the immune response and leave the body more vulnerable to infections.

Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system by fighting off infections. Lysosomes are organelles within the neutrophil that contain enzymes necessary for the breakdown of foreign material, such as bacteria or viruses. If a neutrophil has defective lysosomes, it means that the enzymes within the lysosomes are not functioning properly, which can lead to an inability to effectively clear infections.

This can result in chronic infections, increased susceptibility to infections, and potential tissue damage from the accumulation of waste material. In summary, neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to properly break down and clear foreign material, which can have detrimental effects on the immune system.

To know more about Neutrophils visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/14531154

#SPJ11

Meiosis is the process by which gametes (sex cells) are formed. During meiosis, the homologous chromosomes of a cell separate and are distributed to different gametes. This results in the formation of genetically diverse gametes, each containing only one copy of each chromosome.

When these gametes combine during fertilization, the resulting offspring inherit one copy of each chromosome from each parent. This means that each offspring has a unique combination of genetic information.

In the F2 generation, the offspring inherit one copy of each gene from each parent. If one parent has two dominant alleles and the other has two recessive alleles, all of the offspring will inherit one dominant allele and one recessive allele. This results in a 3 dominant: 1 recessive ratio.

This ratio is consistent because each parent contributes one allele for each gene. Since there are two possible alleles for each gene, there are four possible combinations of alleles in the offspring: DD, Dd, dD, and dd. The ratio of these combinations is 3:1, which explains the consistency of the ratio in the F2 generation.

To know more about meiosis click this link

brainly.com/question/29383386

#SPJ11

Negative control and induction of a gene. This gene can be expressed if an activator and a repressor are present. Gene transcription is always in the "on" state when there is inducible negative regulation. Hence (a) is the correct option.

By itself, the regulatory protein attaches to the operator site to prevent transcription and turn it off. The protein responsible for negative regulation of gene expression either prevents RNA polymerase from binding to a promoter (transcription initiation block) or prevents the elongation phase of transcription.The lac repressor protein is a tetramer composed of four identical subunits that prevents the lac operon from transcribing. The lacI gene, which is upstream of the lac operon and has its own promoter, codes for the lac repressor.

To know more about gene, click here:

https://brainly.com/question/8832859

#SPJ4

Answer:

what is physiological changes associated with aging in Elderly population

The external surface of the skull has several prominent bony features that include:

Frontal bone: Forms the forehead and the roof of the orbits.

Parietal bones: Form the top and sides of the skull.

Occipital bone: Forms the posterior and inferior aspect of the skull.

Temporal bones: Form the lower sides and base of the skull, including the ear canal.

Sphenoid bone: Located at the center of the skull base, it has a complex shape that includes several bony processes that serve as attachment sites for muscles and ligaments.

Ethmoid bone: Located at the anterior part of the base of the skull, it is involved in the formation of the nasal cavity.

The internal surface of the skull base also has several prominent bony features that include:

Sella turcica: Located on the sphenoid bone, it houses the pituitary gland.

Foramen magnum: Located on the occipital bone, it is the large opening through which the spinal cord enters the skull.

Crista galli: Located on the ethmoid bone, it is the attachment site for the falx cerebri, a membrane that separates the two cerebral hemispheres.

Jugular foramen: Located between the temporal and occipital bones, it is the opening through which several important blood vessels and nerves exit the skull.

Learn  more about  external surface,

https://brainly.com/question/30657023

#SPJ4

The bacterium you are referring to is Staphylococcus epidermidis. It is a Gram-positive, coagulase-negative, and novobiocin-sensitive bacterium commonly found in the skin flora of humans.

It is an opportunistic pathogen that can cause infections, particularly in individuals with compromised immune systems or those with indwelling medical devices such as prosthetics, catheters, and intravenous lines.

S. epidermidis is particularly known for its ability to form biofilms on surfaces, which makes it difficult to treat and eradicates infections. Biofilms are dense and structured communities of bacterial cells that adhere to surfaces and are often resistant to antibiotics and host immune responses. S. epidermidis biofilms can form on a variety of surfaces, including medical implants, and can lead to the development of chronic infections, which can be difficult to eradicate. S. epidermidis infections are commonly diagnosed by culturing blood or other body fluids and identifying the bacteria using various microbiological techniques.

To know more about Staphylococcus epidermidis click here:

https://brainly.com/question/30629556

#SPJ11

When applying fertilizer, it is crucial to consider the timing of precipitation to ensure its effectiveness. Ideally, fertilizers should be applied 24-48 hours before rainfall.

24-48 hours allows the fertilizer to properly absorb into the soil and prevents nutrients from being washed away by the rain. If applied too early, the nutrients may dissipate before they have a chance to be taken up by the plants. On the other hand, if applied too late or immediately before heavy rain, the fertilizer may be washed away, leading to wasted resources and potential environmental damage through nutrient runoff.

It is essential to monitor weather forecasts and choose an optimal window for fertilizer application. Light rainfall is beneficial, as it helps dissolve the fertilizer and carry it into the soil without causing excessive runoff. In case of unexpected rain shortly after application, consider reapplying the fertilizer to ensure the plants receive the necessary nutrients for growth and development. Always follow the manufacturer's guidelines for application rates and timings to maximize the fertilizer's benefits and minimize potential risks.

Learn more about fertilizers here:

https://brainly.com/question/24196345

#SPJ11

A bacterial infection in a previously uninfected house cat would most quickly activate its innate immune system to fight off the invading bacteria.

Bacterial infections are caused by harmful bacteria that invade the body and cause damage to tissues. When a house cat is infected with bacteria for the first time, its immune system will quickly activate to fight off the infection. The immune system is a complex network of cells, tissues, and organs that work together to protect the body from invading pathogens.

When a bacterial infection occurs, the immune system will recognize the bacteria as foreign and activate an immune response. The first line of defense is the innate immune system, which includes physical barriers like the skin and mucous membranes, as well as immune cells like neutrophils and macrophages. These cells will quickly move to the site of infection to attack and destroy the bacteria.

If the infection is not successfully cleared by the innate immune system, the adaptive immune system will be activated. This system is more specific and includes immune cells like T cells and B cells, which work together to produce antibodies that can recognize and neutralize the bacteria.

In summary, a bacterial infection in a previously uninfected house cat would most quickly activate its innate immune system to fight off the invading bacteria.

To know more about  infection  visit:

brainly.com/question/28964805

#SPJ11

The difference between a regular deoxynucleotide and the chain-termination nucleotides used in Sanger sequencing lies in their structure and function during the sequencing process.

A regular deoxynucleotide is a building block of DNA, consisting of a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group, and one of the four nitrogenous bases (adenine, thymine, cytosine, or guanine). These deoxynucleotides are used to synthesize new DNA strands during processes like replication and polymerase chain reaction (PCR).

On the other hand, chain-termination nucleotides, also known as dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs), are used specifically in Sanger sequencing to determine the DNA sequence. Structurally, ddNTPs are similar to regular deoxynucleotides but lack the 3'-OH group on the deoxyribose sugar.

This absence prevents the addition of further nucleotides to the growing DNA strand, causing chain termination.

In Sanger sequencing, a mixture of regular deoxynucleotides and chain-termination nucleotides is used. During DNA synthesis, if a ddNTP is incorporated into the growing DNA strand, the chain terminates at that point.

By using fluorescently labeled ddNTPs corresponding to each of the four bases, the terminated DNA strands of varying lengths can be separated and detected using capillary electrophoresis. The sequence of the original DNA template can then be determined based on the order in which the fluorescent signals appear.

In summary, the key difference between a regular deoxynucleotide and a chain-termination nucleotide used in Sanger sequencing is the absence of the 3'-OH group in the latter, which leads to chain termination during DNA synthesis and enables the determination of DNA sequence.

To know more about deoxynucleotide, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30062070#

#SPJ11

In Arabidopsis thaliana and gorilla, the number of genes is less than the number of proteins because genetic analysis was performed incorrectly.

For the purpose of identifying specific defence mechanisms of plant-pathogen resistance, Arabidopsis thaliana is a model organism. On the cell surfaces of these plants, there are unique receptors that enable the detection of infections and start processes to stop the spread of those pathogens.

Arabidopsis thaliana, a diploid plant with one of the shortest genomes of any living thing (157 megabase pairs and five chromosomes), is excellent for genetic mapping and sequencing. This is because of the genome's small size and diploid nature.

Learn more about Arabidopsis thaliana:

https://brainly.com/question/14818979

#SPJ4

The common STIs (sexually transmitted infections) include:

c) Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and HPV (human papillomavirus).

Gonorrhea and syphilis are also common STIs, but they were not listed in the given options. Influenza, TB, Clostridium perfringens, and Listeria are not considered STIs as they are not primarily transmitted through sexual contact.

what is Clostridium?

Clostridium is a genus of bacteria that includes several species, some of which are pathogenic (disease-causing) to humans and animals. These bacteria are anaerobic, meaning that they can only survive and grow in environments with very low levels of oxygen. They are typically found in soil, water, and the digestive tracts of animals and humans.

To learn more about Clostridium visit:

brainly.com/question/28215960

#SPJ11

Food is moved throughout the intestines by a sequence of wave-like contractions of muscles called peristalsis. The peristaltic reflex is also known as the myenteric reflex since it depends on the myenteric plexus. Hence (a) is the correct option.

Propulsion—peristaltic contractions of the smooth muscle from the fundus towards the constricted pylorus—cause mechanical digestion in the stomach. Peristalsis is the involuntary contraction and relaxation of circular and longitudinal muscles in the gastrointestinal system, which enables the propulsion of contents from the pharynx to the anus. Peristalsis is a wave-like movement of the muscles used to push food to various processing stations where it can be further broken down. This process is an uncontrollable, gradual movement that starts in the oesophagus.

To know more about peristalsis, click here:

https://brainly.com/question/22350049

#SPJ4

which of the following best describes peristalsis?

a. Waves of muscular contraction

b. Enzymatic

c. digestion

d. Churning

During the G2 phase of the cell cycle in a human cell, the homologous chromosomes are in a replicated state.

This means that each chromosome has already undergone DNA replication during the S phase of the cell cycle, resulting in two identical sister chromatids that are attached at the centromere. The homologous chromosomes are the two chromosomes that are inherited from each parent and contain the same genes, but may have different versions of those genes (alleles). During G2, the replicated homologous chromosomes are condensed and compacted, preparing for cell division in the subsequent phases of mitosis or meiosis.

It is important that the homologous chromosomes are replicated and condensed before cell division, as this ensures that each daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes. Any errors or abnormalities during the G2 phase can lead to genetic mutations or chromosomal abnormalities in the resulting daughter cells.

Learn more about chromatids here:

https://brainly.com/question/30331369

#SPJ11

p53 activity results in the suppression of tumor growth and the promotion of apoptosis in cancer cells.

p53 is a tumor suppressor protein that plays a crucial role in regulating cell cycle progression, DNA repair, and apoptosis. Mutations in the TP53 gene, which encodes p53, are found in approximately 50% of all cancers, and inactivate the protein's tumor suppressor functions. When p53 is activated in response to DNA damage or other stress signals, it can induce cell cycle arrest to allow for DNA repair or promote apoptosis in cells with irreparable damage.

This process helps to prevent the accumulation of genetic mutations and the development of cancer. However, in cancer cells with p53 mutations, this protective mechanism is compromised, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and survival. Therefore, understanding the role of p53 in cancer development and progression is essential for the development of new cancer therapies.

To know more about the cancers visit:

https://brainly.com/question/3168202

#SPJ11

A list of steps used to create a transgenic organism. Place them in order from first at the top to last at the bottom. are

The first step in creating a transgenic organism is to acquire the source DNA containing the gene of interest. The source DNA is then cut using restriction enzymes along with the vector DNA. Next, the donor and vector DNA are mixed together, allowing for the creation of recombinant DNA through the process of ligation. Finally, the recombinant DNA is inserted into the genome of the target organism, where it can be integrated and expressed, resulting in the production of a transgenic organism.

Learn more about transgenic organism

https://brainly.com/question/4372248

#SPJ4

Below are a list of steps used to create a transgenic organism. Place them in order from first at the top to last at the bottom.acquire source DNAcut source and vector DNAmix donor and vector DNAinsert recombinant DNA

acquire source DNA

cut source and vector DNA

mix donor and vector DNA

insert recombinant DNA

Francis Bacon believed that scientists should rely on empirical evidence and experimentation to explain the laws of nature.

He emphasized the importance of observation, and he believed that by gathering data and testing hypotheses, scientists could arrive at a more accurate understanding of the natural world. Bacon believed that knowledge could be gained through the accumulation of data, and he advocated for a systematic approach to scientific inquiry that involved careful observation, experimentation, and analysis. This approach to scientific inquiry has become known as the scientific method.

what is laws of nature?

The laws of nature refer to the fundamental principles that describe how the physical world behaves. These laws are based on observations, experiments, and mathematical models and provide explanations for the behavior of natural phenomena, such as motion, energy, and gravity.

To learn more about accumulation visit:

brainly.com/question/14846351

#SPJ11

The first to express heterozygote genotypes with two letters (e.g. Aa) and homozygote genotypes (e.g. AA and aa) was Gregor Mendel. Mendel was an Austrian monk who conducted extensive experiments with pea plants in the mid-19th century. He observed that certain traits, such as seed color and plant height, were passed down from parent plants to their offspring in predictable patterns.

Mendel developed the concepts of dominant and recessive genes, which explained why some traits were expressed in offspring and others were not. He also introduced the idea of Punnett squares, which allowed scientists to predict the likelihood of certain traits appearing in offspring based on the genotypes of the parents.

Mendel's work laid the foundation for the study of genetics and is still considered a landmark in the field. His discoveries have helped to shape our understanding of inheritance and the role of genes in determining physical characteristics.

to know more about genetics click tis link

brainly.in/question/2664434

#SPJ11

Gene expression can be coordinated through the use of the same transcription factors and/or regulatory sequences in several ways: Transcription factors, Enhancers and Promoters, Chromatin modifications.

Transcription factors: Transcription factors are proteins that bind to specific DNA sequences and regulate gene expression by either promoting or inhibiting transcription. When multiple genes share the same binding sites for a particular transcription factor, that factor can activate or repress those genes simultaneously, coordinating their expression.

Enhancers and Promoters: Enhancers and promoters are regulatory sequences that control gene expression by binding specific transcription factors. If multiple genes share the same enhancers and promoters, the binding of the transcription factors to those sequences can coordinate their expression.

Chromatin modifications: Chromatin is the complex of DNA and proteins that makes up chromosomes. Certain chromatin modifications, such as histone modifications, can activate or repress genes. If multiple genes share the same chromatin modifications, they can be coordinately regulated.

Co-regulation: Some genes are co-regulated, meaning that their expression is controlled by the same set of transcription factors or regulatory sequences. In this case, the expression of these genes is coordinated by shared regulation mechanisms.

To learn more about DNA visit:

brainly.com/question/264225

#SPJ11

The statement that describes the distribution of ions across the membrane of a typical neuron is: There is substantially more potassium inside the cell than outside the cell.

These ion concentrations are maintained by various ion channels and pump in the neuronal membrane, which helps establish and maintain the resting membrane potential. Changes in ion concentrations across the membrane, mediated by ion channels and pumps, are critical for the propagation of action potentials and neuronal signaling.

Learn more about  the distribution of ions

https://brainly.com/question/12706239

#SPJ4

Full Question: Select the statements that describe the distribution of ions across the membrane of a typical neuron.

Answer:

The electrons needed to start Photosystem II come from water molecules.

During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, light energy is used to split water molecules into oxygen, protons (H+), and electrons (e-). The electrons released from water are then used to replace the electrons lost by Photosystem II when it absorbs light energy. This process is called photolysis, and it occurs in the thylakoid membranes of the chloroplasts.

The electrons released from water are initially transferred to the chlorophyll molecules in Photosystem II, which then use the energy from the absorbed light to transfer the electrons to an electron transport chain. The electron transport chain then uses the energy from the electrons to pump protons across the thylakoid membrane, which generates a proton gradient that is used to produce ATP through chemiosmosis. The electrons eventually reach Photosystem I, where they are re-energized by light energy and transferred to another electron transport chain that generates NADPH, another energy-rich molecule that is used to drive the synthesis of carbohydrates during the light-independent reactions.

The metabolism of fats and proteins containing phosphorus are not likely sources of hydrogen ions in blood plasma. Aerobic metabolism of glucose produces water and carbon dioxide as byproducts, while anaerobic metabolism of glucose produces lactic acid, which is a source of hydrogen ions in blood plasma. However, metabolism of fats and proteins containing phosphorus does not directly produce hydrogen ions. It is important to note that these metabolisms can indirectly affect the acidity of blood plasma through other pathways.
The option that is not a likely source of hydrogen ions in blood plasma is "aerobic metabolism of glucose". Aerobic metabolism uses oxygen to produce energy and produces carbon dioxide and water as waste products, without significantly affecting hydrogen ion concentration in blood plasma. In contrast, metabolism of proteins containing phosphorus, metabolism of fats, and anaerobic metabolism of glucose can all lead to an increase in hydrogen ion concentration.

To know more about metabolism visit

https://brainly.com/question/31384460

#SPJ11