Answer:
false ⠀⠀⠀ ⠀⠀⠀ ⠀⠀⠀ ⠀⠀⠀
The statement that a person experiencing purposeless, blank movements is not experiencing a seizure is false.
What is seizure?A sudden electrical disturbance in a person's brain is what is meant when other symptoms, like blank stares and picking motions, appear.
There are various sorts of seizures, and they typically range from a few seconds to a few minutes before returning to normal. The person might have a vacant, bewildered expression and make repetitive, pointless selecting motions.
Even though there may not be any physical movements of the body in some circumstances, seizures can nevertheless occur in a variety of ways.
Therefore, If a person has a blank, dazed stare, and repetitive, picking movements that seem to serve no purpose is false.
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A __________ is the portion that replaces the natural tooth of a fixed bridge. clasp retainer pontic abutment
What baseline levels should you perform before initiating an anti-adhd medication?
Explanation:
Base line methods include: Blood pressure, pulse, blood glucose and an Electrocardiogram (EKG). These are the necessary tests
Tomatoes are best eaten raw, because cooking tomatoes destroys most of the nutrients and phytochemicals. True or false
It's false. Tomatoes are best eaten raw, because cooking tomatoes destroys most of the nutrients and phytochemicals.
Does cooking destroy nutrients?Cooking also loses some minerals and vitamin A, albeit to a smaller level. Cooking has little effect on fat-soluble vitamins like D, E, and K. Boiling causes the most nutrient loss, but other cooking methods efficiently preserve the nutrient content of food.
How does cooking affect the nutrients in food?Cooking breaks down parts of the fibers and plant cell walls in food, making it easier for the body to digest and absorb the nutrients. Cooking also improves the taste and aroma of food, making it more delightful to eat.
How are vitamins destroyed?Some vitamins dissolve in water, therefore if you prefer to boil your vegetables, you will lose your vitamins to the cooking water. Boiling a potato, for example, might cause much of the potato's B and C vitamins to move into the boiling water.
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A patient has undergone procedures in the dental office to improve his periodontal health. The patient had severe periodontal disease and has shown moderate improvement, although he states his “gums are still bleeding.” The patient already has undergone a series of radiographs, a periodontal chart, and intraoral photographs that were taken before the treatment began. What instruments and forms should the dental assistant have ready for the dentist for this patient’s next examination? What must the dental assistant do during and after the examination?
Answer:
Who is a Dentist?
A dentist is a health practitioner which specializes in oral health and
treatment plans for individuals.
The instruments and forms the dental assistant should have ready for this
patient’s next examination include:
Briault probe
Cotton forceps
Explorers
Mouth mirror
Periodontal probe
Straight probe
These instruments should be used to check the cause of the bleeding and
administer the right treatment. and is the reason why an examination has
to be conducted.
During a sales presentation in Ms. Sullivan’s home, she tells you that she has heard about a type of Medicare health plan known asPrivate Fee-for-Service (PFFS). She wants to know if this would be available to her. What should you tell her about PFFS plans?
If she wants to know if f Private Fee-for-Service (PFFS) would be available to her. What you should tell her about PFFS plans is: A Private Fee-for-Service (PFFS) plan is a types of Medicare Advantage plans that are offered by private company and she may tend to enroll in one if the plan is available in her area.
What is a Medicare plan?A Medicare plan can be defined as the plan that help to cover the medical cost or expenses of those people that enroll under the plan.
PFFS which full meaning is Private Fee-for-Service plan is a kind of Medicare plan and this plan help you to know the fee or the amount you have to pay when you received a medical care.
What you should tell her about PFFS plans is that a Private Fee-for-Service (PFFS) plan is a types of Medicare Advantage plans that are offered by private company and she may tend to enroll in one if the plan is available in her area.
Therefore she may tend to enroll in Private Fee-for-Service plan if the plan is available in her area.
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Describe first and second intention healing and give an example of each.
The first intention of healing is when the doctor closes the wound with stitches or staples to let it heal. The second intention healing is when the wound remains open to healing itself.
What is second intention healing?The second intention of healing is when the doctor does not close the wound and remain it open to heal the bottom itself.
When the doctor uses stitches or staples to close the wound and allow it to heal, this is the first step in the healing process. When the wound is still capable of healing itself, this is known as the second intention healing.
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A 78-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department (ed) with bradycardia resulting from overdose of donepezil. the nurse knows that the ed is likely to order which medication?
The answer is Atropine
How many g of a medication should be provided if 400 mg is prescribed?
Within six months of effectively using the antibiotic methicillin to treat s. Aureus infections in a community, all new infections were caused by mrsa; a multidrug resistant s. Aureus. How can this result best be explained?.
Some drug-resistant microorganisms were present at the outset of treatment, and their frequency grew due to natural selection.
Staphylococcus aureus :Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive spherically shaped bacterium that belongs to the Bacillota and is a common member of the body's microbiota, commonly found in the upper respiratory tract and on the skin.
What disease does S. aureus cause?It is the most common cause of skin and soft tissue infections like abscesses (boils), furuncles, and cellulitis. Although the majority of staph infections are minor, S. aureus can cause serious infections such as bloodstream infections, pneumonia, and bone and joint infections.
How do you get Staphylococcus aureus?These bacteria are spread through direct contact with an infected person, through the use of a contaminated object, or through inhaling infected droplets distributed by sneezing or coughing. Although skin infections are common, bacteria can move through the bloodstream and attack distant organs.
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These glands are also known as eccrine glands and help maintain body temperature.
Eccrine glands are nothing but sweat glands:
one of two different kinds of sweat glands, which are only found in mammals. Body temperature is regulated by the sympathetic nervous system, which is in charge of the eccrine sweat gland. Eccrine glands produce water to the skin's surface when internal temperature rises, where it evaporates to reduce heat.
In such a these glands help to maintain the body temperature and prevent body heating as well.
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On assessment, the nurse notes that the patient is dyspneic and crackles are audible on lung auscultation, and that the patient has gained 1. 8 kg over the past 24 hours. What nursing diagnostic label do these data suggest?.
Answer:
Excessive fluid - heart workup may be in order
Explanation:
It is difficult to study the specialized abilities of the left and right cerebral hemispheres in the brains of normal individuals because.
It is difficult to study the specialized abilities of the left and right cerebral hemispheres in the brains of normal individuals because the two hemispheres share information quickly and completely.
What is the cerebellar hemisphere?The cerebellar hemispheres are two divisions of the cerebellum on either side of the vermis that are the largest sections of the cerebellum. They are separated into two functional sections: lateral and medial.
What's the function of the cerebral hemisphere?Somatosensory, motor, language, cognitive thought, memory, emotions, hearing, and vision are all controlled by the cerebrum. A deep longitudinal fissure divides the cerebrum into the left and right hemispheres; the corpus callosum keeps the two hemispheres in contact and communication with one another.
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A number of chemical treatments cause microtubules to fall apart. Colchicine is one such drug. What would happen if a dividing cell was treated with colchicine?.
Behavior therapy assumes that:____.
a. the objective assessment of the results of therapy.
b. a focus on overt specific behavior.
c. a formulation of precise treatment goals.
d. all of these.
Answer:
d. all of these.
Explanation:
You will use the entire 1g contained in Powder-C. Does it matter how much diluent you use to dissolve the powder? Why or why not?
In this case, 1 gram doesn't seem much, however, it does matter howmuch diluent used to dissolve the powder because of the level ofviscousity/density.
Yes, it matters how much diluent we use to dissolve the powder, however, it's not much if we use the full 1g that the powder contains. The level of density really affects how much diluent is used to dissolve the powder.
What is diluent?According to the label's reconstitution instructions, the powder must be reconstituted into a liquid form for injection by adding 2 mL of sterile water to the vial.
Normal saline (NS), sterile water for injection (SWFI), dextrose 5% in water (D5W), and lidocaine 1% plain are a few examples of diluents. Draw up the necessary diluent in a syringe and add it to the dry medicine once you've established the volume needed and the proper diluent.
Therefore, the level of density really affects how much diluent is used to dissolve the powder.
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A client admitted to the hospital after an accident has clear drainage oozing from the ear. Which action would the nurse take?
Answer:
I would say test for glucose and apply sterile dressing
Explanation:
The school nurse sees a child who has had an absence seizure. which characteristics are typical of this type of seizure?
The school nurse sees a child who has had an absence seizure. Alterations in consciousness that last seconds are typical of this type of seizure.
Briefing :Absence seizures are characterized by brief changes in awareness lasting only a few seconds.
Which type of seizures involves a loss of consciousness?Seizures that affect entire brain are known as generalized seizures. These seizures arise as a result of aberrant brain activity that appears quickly on both sides of the brain. A person loses consciousness and may fall during this type of seizure.
What does an absence seizure look like?For a few seconds, someone experiencing an absence seizure may appear to be looking blankly into space. Then there is a rapid return to normal attentiveness. This sort of seizure rarely causes bodily harm.
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Federal regulations (21 CFR 50.20 and 45 CFR 46.116) state that the information given in the consent process must be:
Answer: In language understandable to the subject
Federal regulations (21 CFR 50.20 and 45 CFR 46.116) state that the information given in the consent process must be in language understandable to the subject and require that legally valid informed permission be obtained before any researcher uses a human being as a subject in research.
Participants must be told in writing or verbally about the main goal of the research project and any processes they will have to go through.
Participants must also be made aware of any dangers or advantages involved with the study, as well as their rights to the study (such as voluntary participation, safeguarding anonymity or secrecy, privacy, etc.).
Sometimes it is necessary to acquire IRB permission in order to forego getting written consent or to change the conditions of consent. The IRB will choose and approve the sort of consent that is appropriate for your research.
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A nurse is reviewing a patient's medical record before administering a medication. which factors can alter the patient's physiologic response to the drug?
When a nurse reviews a patient's medical record before administering a medication, it is important to keep in mind that the following factors can alter the patient's physiological response to the drug.
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26 weeker is not breathing what’s the next step
Answer:
Next you are going to check if the airway is blocked and look for a pulse. If airway is clear then you are going to perform CPR giving 15 two finger compressions with two breaths if they do not have a DNR in place. If the airway is blocked you will then perform the heimlich maneuver giving 5 back thrushes and 5 chest compressions
Explanation:
The HIV virus is ---- complex and there are many unknowns about how it operates and how people's bodies react to it.
The correct word to fill the given blank will be extremely.
HIV is an extremely complex virus.
The two Lentivirus species that infect humans are the human immunodeficiency viruses (HIV). Lentiviruses are a subclass of retroviruses. They eventually lead to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), a disorder in which the immune system gradually fails, allowing malignancies and life-threatening opportunistic infections to proliferate.The HIV virus targets the immune system of the body. Important immune system components include helper T cells (particularly CD4+ T cells), macrophages, and dendritic cells are all infected by HIV.AIDS can develop from HIV if it is not treated.There isn't a cure that works right now. People who contract HIV are permanently infected.But HIV can be managed with the right medical attention. People with HIV can have long, robust lives if they receive adequate HIV therapy.Hence, HIV is an extremely complex virus.
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which is the greatest adversary of recorded detail?
Answer:
motion (Lang Prep, 3100)
Explanation:
When drawing blood on a patient, with which of the patient's body systems does the
equipment come in contact?
When drawing blood on a patient, with venipuncture of the patient's body systems the equipment come in contact.
A phlebotomist aims to obtain blood samples, most commonly done through the venous system via venipuncture, one of the most common invasive procedures in modern medicine.
Venipuncture sampling. fingertip sampling. phlebotomy is used to withdraw blood from a donor for a variety of therapeutic purposes. Blood draws or blood draws usually involve drawing blood and come in a variety of forms. It is also a general term for drawing blood for laboratory analysis. Three common blood collection methods are: arterial sampling. Venipuncture sampling.
Venipuncture is the most common method of drawing blood in adult patients. Sampling is done from superficial veins of the upper extremities, commonly the median cubital vein. This vein is close to the skin and does not have many large nerves nearby. This reduces patient pain and discomfort.
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_____ generally refers to the use of prescribed drugs in greater amounts than, or for purposes other than, those prescribed by a physician or dentist.
What best describes the level of ems training that emphasizes use of advanced airway devices and some prehospital medication administration?
Answer: Quality Improvement
Explanation:
Quality improvement is the framework used to systematically improve care. Quality improvement seeks to standardize processes and structure to reduce variation, achieve predictable results, and improve outcomes for patients, healthcare systems, and organizations
Which interventions does the nurse implement to empower a family who has a child with down syndrome?
Ensure a family member is confident about changing dressings correctly.
What is Down Syndrome?Down syndrome is characterized by presence of an extra chromosome. In the body, chromosomes are little "packages" of genes. They govern how a baby's body develops and functions during pregnancy and after delivery. A baby is typically born with 46 chromosomes.
Down syndrome is a genetic condition produced by excess genetic material from chromosome 21 due to improper cell division.
Down syndrome is characterized by a different facial appearance, intellectual incapacity, developmental delays, and may be linked to thyroid or heart illness.
Symptoms of Down syndromeDown syndrome also raises the likelihood of acquiring Alzheimer's disease. Other issues. Other health concerns that may be connected with Down syndrome include endocrine disorders, dental problems, seizures, ear infections, and hearing and vision problems.
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Antipsychotic drugs such as thorazine are often used to treat schizophrenia. Antipsychotic drugs are used as.
Answer:
Chlorpromazine which is under the trade name Thorazine is one of the antipsychotic drugs which is often used to treat schizophrenia. This drug works by blocking a variety of receptors in the brain, specifically dopamine receptors.
Explanation:
I am not sure if this is correct, hopefully it is. If not I apologize.
Higher mental functions that distinguish humans from other species are localized in the brain’s.
Higher mental functions that distinguish humans from other species are localized in the brain's cerebellum cortex where the association areas are.
What are association areas?
It is a region of the cerebral cortex that links and coordinates the activity in the sensory and motor domains. The right amount of neurons are arranged correctly and are connected together in the association areas of the neocortex to support higher cognitive tasks in primates, including humans.
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Capillary blood used for many home monitoring devices and several clia-waived poc tests.
True, capillary blood is used in several home monitoring devices and numerous clia-free poc tests.
Can't test be done with capillary blood?Capillary punctures are unsuitable for blood culture testing or the majority of coagulation assays. Consult the online test directory for the collection requirements of each test. Capillary Specimens can be used immediately for point-of-care testing.
When would a capillary blood test be useful?Capillary blood is transferred to a test strip and used to measure glucose. In most cases, the differences between capillary blood and plasma are insignificant. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, as well as platelet counts, differ slightly. Glucose levels are also slightly different.
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Your ambulance is the first emergency vehicle to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle collision. how should you position your ambulance?
Answer:
The first arriving unit should position themselves upstream and off-center of the collision to protect the site.
Explanation:
