Your pancreas will release the hormone glucagon if you are too busy to eat during the day.
The pancreas releases more glucagon when blood sugar levels get dangerously low. This hormone assists in restoring blood glucose in a number of ways: It prompts the liver to transform saved glucose into a form that may be used, after which it is released into the bloodstream. (A method known as glycogenolysis.) During a fast, the pancreas secretes more glucagon when blood glucose levels drop. A 29-amino acid peptide hormone produced "glucagon" is mostly released by the pancreatic alpha cells. Insulin and glucagon, which control the amount of glucose in the blood, are the primary hormones secreted by endocrine gland in the pancreas.
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Plants can reproduce both sexually and asexually. Asexual reproduction does not require the investment required to produce a
flower, attract pollinators, or find a means of seed dispersal. Asexual reproduction produces plants that are genetically identical to
the parent plant because all of the genetic material comes from one parent. Traditionally, these plants survive well under stable
environmental conditions when compared with plants produced from sexual reproduction because they carry genes identical to those
of their parents. What are some examples of asexual reproduction in plants? Select ALL that apply.
A)
Tomatoes produce flowers which grow into fruits.
B)
Irises grow from bulbs.
C)
Potatoes have nodes or eyes from which the new growth begins.
D
Zinnias are grown from seeds.
E)
Strawberries produce runners.
l
Examples of asexual reproduction in plants include B. Irises grow from bulbs, C. Potatoes have nodes or eyes from which the new growth begins And E. Strawberries produce runners.
What is asexual reproduction?Asexual is a type of reproduction in plants that does not involve flowers and seeds in the process. So there are other ways to produce new offspring without the marriage process.
Examples of asexual reproduction in problems include:
1. Plants from tubers
Tubers are an example of a place to store food reserves for plants and can act as a means of reproduction. When the tuber is separated from the plant, the tuber can grow new shoots and form a complete plant. Examples are irises and potatoes which grow from tubers.2. Strawberries produce runners.
Runners are often called stolons. Stolons are stems that grow horizontally and in each segment are able to form a whole new plant. Stolons are found in strawberries and grasses such as sedges.Learn more about examples of asexual reproduction at https://brainly.com/question/16213920
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Answer:
B, C, and E
Explanation:
usa testpreppp
Which characteristic was not necessary in order for plants to colonize land?A. Vascular tissue for moving water throughout the plantB. a waxy cuticle to reduce water lossC. the ability to screen ultraviolet lightD. the development of thick spore walls to protect the spore from dehydrationE. development of embryos protected
A. Vascular tissues for moving water throughout the plant. The vascular tissues of these plants allow them to have true roots, stems, and leaves.
The few large plants that were present before the development of vascular tissues did so in watery environments, where support and water conduction were not necessary. Another notable difference between bryophytes and vascular plants is the sporophytic phase of the life cycle, which is the larger, more pronounced reproduction among vascular plants.
Tracheophytes, or vascular plants, are different from nonvascular bryophytes in that they contain specialised xylem and phloem tissues for holding and carrying food and water, respectively. A central column (stele) that runs through the center of the plant is made up of vascular tissue, including xylem and phloem.
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The ultimate source of energy for most organisms is
Oglucose
O carbon dioxide
O oxygen
the sun
Answer:
c
Explanation:
What are the possible chromosome combinations in the two daughter cells? (Use DG, LG, DP, and LP. )
The combinations will depend on the specific cell division process and the chromosome makeup of the parent cell.
What are chromosomes?Chromosomes are structures within cells that contain genetic information in the form of DNA.
The possible chromosome combinations in the two daughter cells can vary depending on the type of cell division.
In mitosis, each daughter cell receives an identical set of chromosomes, so the chromosome combination is the same in both cells, represented as DG (duplicated genome). In meiosis, daughter cells receive a unique combination of chromosomes due to the process of recombination, resulting in either LG (haploid genome) or DP (duplicated haploid genome) in one daughter cell and LP (haploid genome) or DP (duplicated haploid genome) in the other daughter cell.
Daughter cells are the two identical cells that result from the division of a single cell during cell division.
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b. an unknown organism is found in the forest and the gene is sequenced as follows: unknown: c c a t g g a a t c g a using the table above, what kind of an animal do you think this is?
Answer: I believe its something close to a pig
Explanation:The DNA sequence is closest to the pig . The amino acids Gly, Thr, Leu, and Ala are from the "unknown animal." On the worksheet, the pigs amino acids are Gly, Thr, Phe, and Ala. There is only one different amino acid between the two.
I might be wrong but there u go
in mice, the gene (C) for colored fur is dominant over its allele (c) for white. The gene (N) for normal behavior is dominant over ()n for waltzing. Pairs of mice were mated, and the following results obtained. In each case, give the probable genotypes of the parents:
a) colored normal mated with white normal produced 29 colored normal, and 10 colored waltzers.
b) colored normal mated with colored normal produced 38 colored normal, 15 colored waltzers, 11 white normal, and 4 white waltzers
c) colored normal mated with white waltzer produced 8 colored normal, 7 colored waltzers, 9 white normal, and 6 white waltzers
The probable genotypes of parents include:
a) CcNn and ccNn
b) CcNn and CcNn
c) CcNn and ccnn
How to determine probable genes?a) The probable genotypes of the parents in this case would be CcNn and ccNn, where C represents the dominant allele for colored fur, N represents the dominant allele for normal behavior, c represents the recessive allele for white fur, and n represents the recessive allele for waltzing behavior.
b) The probable genotypes of the parents in this case would be CcNn and CcNn, where C represents the dominant allele for colored fur, N represents the dominant allele for normal behavior, c represents the recessive allele for white fur, and n represents the recessive allele for waltzing behavior.
c) The probable genotypes of the parents in this case would be CcNn and ccnn, where C represents the dominant allele for colored fur, N represents the dominant allele for normal behavior, c represents the recessive allele for white fur, and n represents the recessive allele for waltzing behavior.
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as dehydration progresses and blood volume decreases, blood pressure will and heart rate will . a. increase; increase b. remain the same; decrease c. decrease; decrease d. decrease; increase
The volume of blood in your body, or the amount of blood flowing through it, reduces when you are dehydrated. In order to make up for this, your heart beats more quickly, raising both your blood pressure and heart rate.
Age, genetics (family history and race), atherosclerosis, obesity, salt intake, and alcohol consumption are risk factors. A poor intake of potassium, calcium, and magnesium-rich low-fat milk products, whole grains, nuts, fruits, and vegetables may also raise the risk of developing hypertension. The calcium mineral implanted into the organic matrix of bone contributes to the stiffness and strength of bone and is a storage of calcium that can be withdrawn to keep the circulation calcium levels within the typical range of about 2.5 mM. (10 mg per dl).Blood pressure may drop when dehydration worsens due to a reduction in blood's water content. Increased levels of dehydration affect cardiovascular function along with an increase in heart rate and challenges managing the amount of blood the heart pumps to the tissues.
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What is process by which 2 species evolve in response to changes in each other?
Coevolution, the process of mutual evolutionary change that occurs when pairs of species or groups of species evolve in response to changes in each other.
What is the concept of coevolution?Coevolution is most broadly interpreted as two groups of organisms interacting and influencing the evolution of other organisms. Groupings can be created at various levels of biological organization and co-evolution of the groups under study (eg, intra- or inter-species, intra- or inter-generic, intra- or inter-guild).
What are the three types of coevolution?Several different categories of coevolution are often debated by scientists in ecology and evolutionary biology: Pairwise coevolution, diffusion coevolution, and gene-by-gene coevolution.
What Causes Coevolution?Interactions co-evolve as an ever-changing geographic mosaic; Much of evolution is coevolution, the coevolution of parasites and hosts, predators and prey, competitors and mutualists. Interacting species impose choices on each other, constantly changing the traits and life histories of other species
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the fibula group of answer choices articulates with the femur. crosses the tibia when the leg is rotated. forms the lateral border of the knee joint. stabilizes the ankle joint.
The fibula or calf bone is a leg bone on the lateral side of the tibia, to which it is connected above and below.
The fibula or calf bone is a leg bone on the lateral side of the tibia, to which it is connected above and below. It is the smaller of the two bones and, in proportion to its length, the most slender of all the long bones.
The structure of the fibula can be broken down into the head, neck, shaft, and distal end of the fibula. As the head becomes narrow distally, the fibular neck is formed. The fibular shaft lies distal to the neck and has three surfaces, lateral, medial, and posterior. The lower leg is comprised of two bones, the tibia and the smaller fibula. The thigh bone, or femur, is the large upper leg bone that connects the lower leg bones (knee joint) to the pelvic bone (hip joint).
The fibular collateral ligament is a strong ligament that originates from the lateral epicondyle of the femur, just posterior to the proximal attachment of the popliteus, and extends distally to attach on the lateral surface of the fibular head.
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The biological species concept is inadequate for grouping. A) plants. B) parasites. C) asexual organisms. D) animals that migrate. E) sympatric populations.
The biological species concept is inadequate for Asexual organisms. Hence, Option C is correct answer.
Asexual reproduction is a type of reproduction where the progeny of a single organism only have the genes of the parent from whence they derived. It excludes the joining of gametes. Binary fission, budding, vegetal reproductive, spore formation (sporogenesis), fragmentation, parthenogenesis, and apomixis are the several asexual reproduction methods.
Asexual reproduction is a method used by bacteria, archaea, many plants, fungi, and some mammals. Planarians, several annelid worms, especially polychaetes and some oligochaetes, turbellarians, and sea stars are instances of animals that reproduce asexually.
Many plants and fungi produce offspring. Specific plants, like liverworts, have gemmae, which are specialised structures for fragmentation-based reproduction.
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The shape of the lens of the eye is controlled by the _____.(a) pupillary constrictor muscles(b) pupillary dilator muscles(c) ciliary muscles(d) iris(e) All of the above.
The ciliary muscles are in charge of shaping the eye's lens.These ciliary muscles are very important for eyes.
Our eyes lenses must adapt in shape to allow us to focus on objects at various distances.While, the circular ciliary body is moreover an outgrowth of the iris, On the other hand, a colourful portion is often known as eye fluid, is created by the ciliary body. Moreover, it houses the ciliary muscle, which modifies the lens' shape when your eyes focus on a close object.The ciliary body, which is located between the anterior border of the choroid and the eye, is mostly made up of the ciliary muscle. It is made up of smooth muscle fibres that are aligned longitudinally, radially,
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this substance is produced in the liver, but is stored in and secreted by the gallbladder. t/f
It is TRUE that bile is produced in the liver, but is stored in and secreted by the gallbladder.
The liver produces bile, also known as gall, which is a greenish yellow secretion that is then sent to the gallbladder for concentration, storage, or transportation into the duodenum, the first part of the small intestine. Its job is to facilitate the duodenum's ability to digest lipids. Bile is made up of bile acids and salts, phospholipids, cholesterol, pigments, water, and electrolyte molecules that make the overall solution slightly alkaline. Bile is continuously released from the liver cells into the common bile duct and gallbladder, where it is normally concentrated to 5–18 times its original intensity.
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The actual question is:
True, or False,
Bile is produced in the liver, but is stored in and secreted by the gallbladder.
Cartilage has a flexible matrix that can accommodate mitosis of chondrocytes – this makes it an excellent scaffolding tissue upon which to build bone.
True/false
The adaptable matrix of cartilage acts as an excellent scaffold for the formation of bone because chondrocytes can go through mitosis there. The given statement is true.
FlexibilityThe three types of cartilage are hyaline, elastic, and fibroblastic. Elastic cartilage is the type of cartilage that makes up the majority of the human body.The three types of cartilage are chondrocyte cartilage, chondrocyte cartilage, and hyaline cartilage. Due to the tightly packed collagen fibers in the matrix, it is strong but slightly flexible.The matrix of cartilage does not contain calcium like bone does. It actually has high concentrations of chondroitin, a chemical that contributes to suppleness and flexibility.For more information on cartilage kindly visit to
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What is the correct order of the exocytosis or secretion pathway?
A. rough ER, endosome, Golgi, smooth ER
B. rough ER, Golgi, smooth ER, plasma membrane
C. smooth ER, rough ER, exocytosis, Golgi
D. rough ER, Golgi, transport vesicle, plasma membrane
E. rough ER, Golgi, endosome, plasma membrane, transport vesicle
The correct order of the exocytosis or secretion pathway is option D
D. rough ER, Golgi, transport vesicle, plasma membrane.
The entry of proteins into the ER serves as a key junction point for protein flow within eukaryotic cells. The ER is the initial target for proteins that are intended for secretion or integration into the Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, or plasma membrane. Most proteins in mammalian cells are translated on membrane-bound ribosomes before being moved into the ER. Proteins that will remain in the cytosol or that will be incorporated into the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts, or peroxisomes, on the other hand, are made on free ribosomes and released into the cytosol after their translation is finished.
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the lipopolysaccharide molecule is an important component of the cell membranes of which organisms?
The lipopolysaccharide (LPS) molecule is an important component of the cell membranes of gram-negative bacteria.
Gram-negative bacteria are a diverse group of bacteria that are characterized by their cell walls, which consist of a thin layer of peptidoglycan surrounded by a thicker outer membrane. The outer membrane contains a variety of lipids and proteins, including the LPS molecule.
LPS is a large, complex molecule that is composed of three parts: a lipid, a polysaccharide, and a protein. The lipid component, known as lipid A, is responsible for the toxic effects of LPS, while the polysaccharide and protein components are involved in the recognition and specificity of LPS by the host.
The presence of LPS in the cell membrane of gram-negative bacteria makes them highly resistant to certain types of antibiotics and other antimicrobial agents. LPS also plays a role in the pathogenesis of many gram-negative bacterial infections, as it triggers an immune response that contributes to the symptoms of the infection. For these reasons, LPS is an important target for the development of new antibiotics and other treatments for gram-negative bacterial infections.
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What are extensions of the plasma membrane called?
Many cells have extensions of their plasma membrane called flagella and cilia.
Are pili simply the cell membrane's extensions?The oligomeric protein known as pilin makes up the extensions of the cytoplasmic membrane known as fimbriae and pili. They are flagella-like extensions found on the bacterial cell wall that resemble hairs. They play a role in bacterial movement, surface adhesion, and conjugation.
Is the plasma membrane extended by the mesosome?A mesosome is a specific membranous structure that is created when the plasma membrane is extended inside the cell. Vesicles, tubules, and lamellae are examples of these extensions. They support cell wall construction, DNA delivery to daughter cells, and cell division.
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during the staationary phase of the bacteriaal growth curve, bacteria may resond to the environmental stress by
The stationary phase of bacterial growth is a period of time during which the bacterial population stops increasing in size and number due to all the given options thus, option (E) is the correct answer.
The stationary phase comes after the exponential or log growth phase of fast population expansion. The number of bacteria that are born and those that are decline are equal during the stationary phase. This is brought on by a deficiency in nutrients as well as other environmental conditions like pH, temperature, and oxygen levels.
In order to survive and adapt to their environment, bacteria may start to create spores during the stationary phase. The population starts to decline during the decline phase after the static phase. Understanding the various stages of bacterial proliferation is essential for developing management and prevention methods for bacterial illnesses as well as for understanding how bacterial populations behave.
The complete question is:
During the stationary phase of the bacterial growth curve, bacteria may respond to environmental stress by______________
(A). producing highly resistant endospores.
(B). growing flagella.
(C). becoming competent,
(D). capable of taking up pieces of DNA
(E). all of these choices
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if robert suffers from a dysfunction in a(n) ______, he would know the relevant structure was in the central nervous system.
If Robert suffers from a dysfunction in a(n) structure, he would know the relevant estructura was in the central nervous system.
This is because the central nervous system is responsible for controlling and coordinating the body's functions and movements, and a dysfunction in a structure within this system can result in a variety of symptoms, including loss of movement or sensation, changes in behavior, and difficulty with cognitive functions.
It is important to identify the specific structure that is affected in order to develop an appropriate treatment plan and address the underlying cause of the dysfunction.
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what is it called when bulky solids are taken in through endocytosis?
The process of taking in bulky solid particles into a cell through endocytosis is called phagocytosis.
A kind of endocytosis called phagocytosis involves a cell ingesting solid particles. The particle is absorbed into the cell after being engulfed by the cell by extending its plasma membrane around it.
Specialized cells called phagocytes, which comprise white blood cells like neutrophils and macrophages, carry out phagocytosis. By enveloping and eliminating dangerous germs and foreign chemicals that have entered the body, these cells perform a key role in the immune system.
In the process of phagocytosis, the phagocyte's plasma membrane stretches pseudopodia around the target particle, creating a vesicle known as a phagosome. The phagosome then joins with lysosomes, which have enzymes that digest the phagosome's contents.
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5.a parasite that draws blood, irritates the skin, and causes restlessness is most likely a/an a.ectoparasite b.endoparasite c.helminth d.vector
Ectoparasite: A parasite that disturbs sleep, irritates the skin, and draws blood.
Humans are susceptible to three main forms of parasites: protozoa, helminths, and ectoparasites. Ectoparasites such as lice, sheep ticks, ticks, fleas, and mange mites have been linked to a variety of health issues, including mechanical tissue damage, irritation, inflammation, hypersensitivity, abscesses, weight loss, lameness, anaemia, and in some extreme cases, the death of infected animals with the resulting... Ectoparasites are organisms that can cause harm to the host because they can survive in the skin or skin-related growths of the host for a variety of periods of time. Examples of typical human ectoparasites include lice, fleas, bedbugs, mites, and ticks. The most prevalent foodborne parasites in the United States are roundworms like Trichinella spp. and Anisakis spp., protozoa like Giardia intestinalis, Cyclospora cayetanensis, and Toxoplasma gondii, and tapeworms like Diphyllobothrium spp. and Taenia spp.
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a tissue that is dominated by thick collagen fibers that extend mostly parallel, allowing little space for cells and ground substance, is known as
A tissue that is dominated by thick collagen fibers that extend mostly parallel, allowing little space for cells and ground substance, is known as Connective tissue.
The body's cells are supported and integrated by connective tissue, which is made up of organic tissues that are divided into their cells and extracellular components. The latter is known as the ground material and is integrated with the fibers that give connective tissue its elastic properties.
Connective tissue, also referred to as fibrous tissue, is one of the four primary types of animal tissue, along with epithelial tissue, muscle tissue, and nerve tissue. It arises from the mesenchyme, which originates from the mesoderm, an intermediate embryonic germ layer. Connective tissue fills in the spaces between various tissues all over the body, including the nervous system. The three meninges, which are membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, are made of connective tissue.
Mammal bodies have a form of tissue called connective tissue, which is utilized to unite or connect all the other tissues.
Several varieties of connective tissues are:
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5. The map below shows the typical breeding ranges for six different populations of juncos. The UCSD juncos population is not shown on this map. If you wanted to look for evidence of whether juncos from one of these six populations ever interbred with juncos from one of the other of the six populations, in what parts of the map do you think you would be more likely to observe such behavior? Mark those locations on the map with small stars.
HEEELPPP ASAAPPP
Juncos interbred in the forest of northern rocky mountains and from southern Alberta to eastern Idaho.
What are Juncos?A species of junco, or small, greyish New World sparrows, includes the dark-eyed junco.
A large portion of temperate North America is home to this bird, which is also widespread in the Arctic throughout the summer. Similar to the closely related fox sparrow, it is a very variable species, and its systematics are still not fully understood.
Juncos interbred in the forest of northern rocky mountains and from southern Alberta to eastern Idaho.
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what is the megagametophyte also know as in angiosperm reproduction?
Megagametophytes, or embryo sacs, are produced during angiosperm reproduction.
One of the reproductive stages of plants like mosses and bryophytes is the gametophyte. The female gamete, or megagametophyte, is also referred to as an embryo sac. The megagametophyte emerges from the megaspores of heterosporous plants. In angiosperms, the megagametophyte serves as the embryo sac. An immature ovule is a megasporangium. There are megasporocytes inside the ovule. Megaspores are formed as a result. The megagametocyte, the female gamete, is produced by the megaspore. An ovule becomes fully developed from these megagametocytes. They serve as the equivalent of an embryo sac in several plants. The process through which megagametophytes mature and evolve is known as megagametogenesis. The female gametes, or eggs, are produced by megagametophytes.
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The above question is incomplete. Check complete question below -
what is the megagametophyte also know as in angiosperm reproduction?
A. embryo sac
B. Endosperm
C. Pollen sac
D. microsporophyll
the structure of the spleen and lymph nodes are composed mainly of
The structure of the spleen and lymph nodes are composed mainly of Reticular loose connective
The spleen is the body's biggest lymphatic organ. The spleen is made up of two types of tissue: white pulp and red pulp. It is surrounded by a connective tissue capsule that continues inside to split the organ into lobules. The white pulp is lymphatic tissue made up primarily of lymphocytes that surround arteries.
Lymph nodes are made up of lymph tissue and other types of cells, such as white blood cells (lymphocytes). Lymph nodes and other lymphatic organs such as the spleen and thymus contain lymphocytes, which are unique white blood cells. These may rapidly proliferate and produce antibodies in response to bacteria, viruses, and a variety of other stimuli emitted by dead or dying cells, as well as improperly behaving cells such as cancer cells.
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Full Question
The structure of the spleen and lymph nodes are composed mainly of ______-
which of the following situations is a potential consequence of a phospho-mimetic mutation (mimic phosphorylation) in lamin a? a: nuclear envelope does not assemble properly b: protein import into the nucleus is blocked c: protein export is blocked d: cell division is blocked e: transcription is blocked
Option E: transcription is blocked.
Lamin A is a protein component of the nuclear lamina, which is involved in maintaining the structural integrity of the nucleus and regulating gene expression. Phosphorylation of lamin A is a key regulatory mechanism that can influence its function in the nucleus. A phospho-mimetic mutation in lamin A can prevent proper transcription of genes by inhibiting the activity of certain transcription factors, which can lead to various cellular dysfunctions. None of the other options listed are direct consequences of a phospho-mimetic mutation in lamin A. Pre-lamin A/C or lamin A/C is a protein that in humans is encoded by the LMNA gene. Lamin A/C belongs to the lamin family of proteins.
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imagine a population that is polymorphic at the a locus. if the frequency of the a allele is 80% and the frequency of the a allele is 20%, what proportion of the population would you expect be heterozygotes?
You would estimate that 0.0016 of something like the population would be heterozygotes. if the frequency of one allele is 20% and indeed the frequency of another is 80%.
What is an example of an allele?An allele is a component of a group of genes that govern the same feature, such as red cells or color blindness, and are located at a specific place on a specific chromosome. The alleles you received from your parent define your blood group.
Why is there two alleles in humans?Diploid humans exist. As a result, everyone of our genes has just two alleles. This is mostly due to the fact that we only receive one copy of each parent's chromosomes. We all have pairs of chromosomes because we each have two parents.
AA × AA = 0.4096
AA × Aa = 0.4096
AA × aa = 0.0512
Aa × Aa = 0.1024
Aa × aa = 0.0256
aa × aa = 0.0016
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The primers play three roles in a PCR reaction. Select all of the answers that are correct. They denature the double-stranded DNA They serve as the templates onto which the new complementary strands are made. They determine what region of the genome will get amplified. They determine the size of the resulting PCR product. They provide a double-stranded region for Taq to initiate synthesis They are the monomers that are polymerized by Taq to make the new complementary strands
Primers serve three purposes in the PCR reaction. The second, fourth, and fifth choices are appropriate in this case since they show the three functions that primers perform in a PCR reaction.
It is known that primers are brief RNA or DNA strands (typically 18–24 nucleotide bases long). They are not monomers, at all. The synthesis of primers is carried out by primase rather than taq polymerase. The first option is incorrect.
Since the size of the PCR products generated in a reaction heavily depends on the primer design, the second option is the best.
The third approach is incorrect since primer does not serve as a temple and taq polymerase does not initiate synthesis from primer. A DNA strand serves as the template in a PCR process. Because primer offers free -3'OH, which taq polymerase uses to start synthesis.
The fourth option is the best one. Without primer, Taq polymerase cannot start adding nucleotides. The target chromosomal area that will be amplified by the PCR reaction can be specified by the primer, which makes the fifth option accurate.
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kent cycle at a speed of 20km/h how long does it takes for him to cyclew 120 km
Answer:
6 Hours
Explanation:
120/20 = 6
As the speed is given in km/h the answer is 6 Hours
which of these functional groups is found in all amino acids?
The functional group that is found in all amino acids is -NH2, which is the amino group.
Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins and contain both an amino group (-NH2) and a carboxyl group (-COOH) attached to a central carbon atom. The carboxyl group is responsible for the acidic properties of amino acids, while the amino group is responsible for the basic properties.
In addition to the amino and carboxyl groups, amino acids also contain a side chain or R-group, which can vary in size, shape, and chemical properties. There are 20 different amino acids commonly found in proteins, each with a different side chain that confers unique chemical properties.
None of the other functional groups listed -OH, =O, -PO42- are found in all amino acids. -OH is the hydroxyl group, which is found in some amino acids such as serine and threonine, but not all amino acids. =O is the carbonyl group, which is not found in any of the standard amino acids. -PO42- is the phosphate group, which is not present in amino acids but is found in some phosphorylated amino acids in certain proteins.
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The full question was here:
Which of these functional groups is found in all amino acids? -NH2 -OH =O -PO42-
John is a livestock inspector for the state of Oklahoma and his job is to inspect
animal production operations to ensure all regulations are being followed. On
Monday, John visited a goat operation facility and saw many of the animals were ill.
What freedom does this violate?
A. The freedom to express normal behavior
B. The freedom from confinement
C. The freedom from pain, injury and disease
D. The freedom from hunger and thirst
Answer: c because medicine should be aloud
Explanation: hope thid helps
